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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-year history of restricting food intake and self-induced vomiting. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer: Transthoracic echocardiography
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: What to Expect
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s physical health, including their cardiovascular system. When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, there are several medical investigations that may be considered. Here is what you can expect:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): This is a baseline test that assesses heart rate and the QT interval. Electrolyte imbalances caused by eating disorders can affect cardiac stability, so it’s important to check for any cardiovascular instability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This test may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray: This is not routinely required unless there are other respiratory symptoms present.
Serum prolactin: This test is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This test is not routinely required unless there are clinical indications for imaging of the heart.
Overall, medical investigations for anorexia nervosa are tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine which tests are necessary for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Following the 2011 NICE guidelines for managing panic disorder, what is the most suitable initial drug therapy for treating the condition in younger patients?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type II diabetes; the condition seems to be well controlled with metformin, with HbA1c levels in the target range and no signs of end-organ damage.
During the consultation, the nurse asks some routine questions and is alarmed to find that the patient drinks almost 50 units of alcohol a week. The patient insists that he only drinks at the end of the day to relax, and on a Sunday when he goes to the pub with friends. He is adamant that he does not have a drinking problem and that he could stop at any time if he wanted to.
The nurse refers the patient to the doctor to assess for potential signs of alcohol dependency.
Which of the following are indications of alcohol dependency?Your Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, progressive neglect of alternative pleasures or interests, depression
Correct Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, a strong desire or sense of compulsion to drink alcohol, increased tolerance to alcohol
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Substance Dependence
Substance dependence, including alcohol dependence, is diagnosed based on a set of criteria. These criteria include a strong desire or compulsion to use the substance, difficulty controlling substance use, physiological withdrawal symptoms when substance use is reduced or stopped, evidence of tolerance, neglect of other interests or activities, and continued substance use despite harmful consequences. It is important to note that the presence of a physiological withdrawal state is a key factor in the diagnosis of substance dependence. However, drinking late at night or avoiding sweet drinks are not indicative of dependence. Understanding these criteria can help in identifying and treating substance dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. She is seeking medication to help her sleep. What is her response?
Your Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Although this patient’s symptoms have the potential to develop into PTSD, they currently meet the criteria for acute stress disorder. It is important to monitor their progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month after the initial episode.
Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness or loss of pleasure in activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry that is pervasive and persistent, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms. This disorder must be present for longer than two weeks and is typically experienced on a continuum of severity.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been on sertraline for the past 6 months. They have previously attempted citalopram with minimal improvement. The patient complains of persistent anxiety, chest tightness, and palpitations and wishes to explore a different medication. What would be the most suitable medication to recommend for this patient?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If sertraline is ineffective or not tolerated as a first-line SSRI for GAD, consider trying another SSRI or an SNRI. The recommended medication in this case would be duloxetine. Since the patient has already tried citalopram with little benefit, it would not be appropriate to prescribe it again. Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not typically recommended for GAD management. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is also not recommended for GAD treatment due to the risk of tolerance and addiction.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has often presented with various physical complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. Despite receiving low intensity psychological interventions, her symptoms remain unchanged. What medication would be the most suitable next step in her treatment?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent memory decline and difficulty concentrating. She also notes that he has become incontinent of urine and is walking with smaller steps. The patient's medical history includes a myocardial infarction one year ago, as well as hypertension and diabetes. There is no family history of similar symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Correct Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Dementia is a term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily life. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their characteristic symptoms:
1. Vascular dementia: This type of dementia is often associated with risk factors for vascular disease, such as hypertension and diabetes. Symptoms may include sudden or stepwise deterioration in cognitive function, early gait disturbances, urinary symptoms, changes in concentration, and mood.
2. Alzheimer’s disease: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia. It typically results in progressive memory loss and behavioral changes, rather than sudden deterioration.
3. Frontotemporal dementia: This type of dementia usually presents with personality changes, loss of insight, and stereotyped behaviors. It is a slowly progressive form of dementia, with onset usually before the age of 70 and a strong family history.
4. Huntington’s disease: Huntington’s disease typically presents at a much younger age between 20 and 40 years old with psychosis, choreiform movements, depression, and later on dementia. There is also a strong family history.
5. Lewy body dementia: Lewy body dementia typically presents with parkinsonian symptoms, visual hallucinations, and sleep behavior disorders.
Understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment. If you or a loved one is experiencing cognitive decline, it’s important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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