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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Eye Hospital Emergency Department with a 4-day...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Eye Hospital Emergency Department with a 4-day history of blurred vision and left-eye pain worse on movement. On examination, there is decreased visual acuity and impaired colour vision in the left eye and a left relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals a mildly swollen left optic disc. Intraocular pressure is 20 mmHg in the left eye. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be either idiopathic or secondary to multiple sclerosis. Patients with optic neuritis typically experience periocular pain associated with eye movement, as well as a loss of color vision. Visual field defects, such as a central scotoma, can also occur. If the other eye is uninvolved, there is typically a relative afferent pupillary defect.

      It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms. A stroke, for example, would not typically cause eye pain or affect color vision. Acute-angle-closure glaucoma can also be ruled out if intraocular pressure is within the normal range. Cerebral venous thrombosis would usually cause sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal hemorrhages on fundoscopy. In cases of raised intracranial pressure, papilledema would be seen in both optic discs.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of optic neuritis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
      Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: High fibre and carbohydrates with a high glycaemic index (GI)

      Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish

      Explanation:

      Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management

      Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.

      Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.

      Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.

      Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.

      In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      96.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation and epilepsy presents with a complaint of feeling generally unwell. He reports a blue tinge to his vision. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced visual alterations
      Viagra, also known as ‘the blue pill’, can cause blue-tinted vision. Digoxin, on the other hand, may result in yellow-green vision.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after her midwife detected glucose in a routine urinalysis. The patient's results are as follows:
      - Blood pressure: 129/89 mmHg
      - Fundal height: 25.5 cm
      - Fasting plasma glucose: 6.8 mmol/L

      What treatment option should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence metformin

      Correct Answer: Trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      For a patient presenting with elevated fasting plasma glucose (6.8 mmol/L), indicating possible gestational diabetes, the recommended initial management is a trial of diet and exercise to control blood glucose without medication. The patient should be advised to consume a high-fibre diet with minimal refined sugars and monitor their blood glucose regularly. If the patient’s blood glucose remains elevated despite lifestyle interventions, insulin should be started if the initial fasting plasma glucose is 7 mmol/L or more. If there is no improvement within 1-2 weeks, metformin may be added, and if still inadequate, insulin may be required. It is important to note that pregnant women should not aim to lose weight and should maintain a balanced diet. Advising the patient to only monitor blood glucose without any interventions is inappropriate as lifestyle changes are necessary to manage gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals...

    Correct

    • In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals over the age of 65?

      Your Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Diseases and Conditions

      Age-related macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, senile cataract, and corneal abrasion are some of the most common eye diseases and conditions that affect people worldwide.

      Macular Degeneration

      Macular degeneration is a leading cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries. The non-exudative (dry) form of the disease is the most common, characterized by the presence of drusen in the macular region. Dry AMD progresses slowly over decades, while the exudative (wet) form can cause rapid central visual loss and distortion.

      Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness. It is the most common cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years globally. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is rare within the first decade of a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus, but increases with disease duration.

      Glaucoma

      Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and can cause specific visual field defects over time. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type, and it is described as a chronic, progressive, and irreversible optic neuropathy. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries.

      Senile Cataract

      Senile cataract is an age-related disease that causes gradual progressive thickening of the lens of the eye. It is the world’s leading cause of treatable blindness.

      Corneal Abrasion

      Corneal abrasion is a common eye injury that occurs due to a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or because of physical external forces. Most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, but deeper scratches can cause corneal infections, erosion, or scarring, leading to long-term vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women are screened for gestational diabetes with a serum glucose

      Correct Answer: Women of Afro-Caribbean origin are at an increased risk

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
      What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.

      On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.

      Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.

      Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man complains of recurring headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man complains of recurring headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times per month. The headaches are severe and occur on the right side of his head. They are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. In this case, the patient’s history is consistent with migraine and prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but rather for acute treatment of migraine.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old woman with a lengthy history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with a lengthy history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea. During the examination, her oxygen saturation is found to be 92% on room air, and spirometry reveals a restrictive pattern accompanied by a decreased transfer factor. Which medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      The use of methotrexate as well as other anti-rheumatoid drugs like sulfasalazine and gold may lead to the development of lung fibrosis in patients. This patient is currently experiencing pulmonary fibrosis which could be attributed to the use of methotrexate.

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman came to your GP clinic complaining of mild pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman came to your GP clinic complaining of mild pain and redness in both eyes that had been present for a week. During the examination, you noticed diffuse conjunctival injection with some purulent discharges and crusted eyelids. What is the ONE treatment you should initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with bacterial conjunctivitis should use topical fusidic acid eye drops for treatment. It is not recommended to use chloramphenicol ointment or eye drops in pregnant patients. Oral antibiotics are typically unnecessary for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, and steroid eye drops are not effective. While viral conjunctivitis can be monitored without treatment, bacterial conjunctivitis requires prompt treatment with topical antibiotics to prevent a secondary bacterial infection.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old G3P0+2 woman comes for a routine antenatal check at 14 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old G3P0+2 woman comes for a routine antenatal check at 14 weeks gestation to her general practitioner. She has a medical history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia, epilepsy, hypertension, antiphospholipid syndrome, and dyslipidemia. Her current medications include lamotrigine, labetalol, atorvastatin, low molecular weight heparin, and clozapine. Additionally, she has started taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy

      The correct statement is that all statins, including atorvastatin, are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. While there is no conclusive evidence of teratogenicity, there have been reports of adverse outcomes such as intrauterine growth restriction and fetal demise in women taking statins during the first trimester. Lipophilic statins like atorvastatin can cross the placenta and reach similar concentrations in both the mother and fetus.

      Clozapine is not a contraindication during pregnancy, as it is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia that is unresponsive to other medications. While caution is advised when using clozapine during pregnancy, it is not considered a contraindication.

      Lamotrigine is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, as it is generally considered safe for use in pregnant women. Unlike many other antiepileptic drugs, lamotrigine has not been associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations.

      Low-molecular-weight-heparin is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, and is often prescribed for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent blood clots. This medication does not cross the placenta and is considered safe for use during pregnancy.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being involved in a physical altercation while under the influence of alcohol at a bar. His recollection of the event is unclear, but he recalls being hit in the face and bitten on his hand. Upon examination, there is significant bruising around the left eye and a bite wound on the outer aspect of the left hand. What antibiotic should be administered for the bite?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating human bites, it is recommended to use co-amoxiclav, which is also used for treating animal bites. This medication is effective in targeting the primary organisms that are commonly associated with human bites, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Eikenella, Corynebacterium, and other anaerobes. It is important to note that even if there are no visible signs of infection, antibiotics should still be prescribed.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old patient with ankylosing spondylitis complains of sudden pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient with ankylosing spondylitis complains of sudden pain in the right eye and blurry vision. During examination, you observe redness around the cornea and a constricted pupil. Ophthalmoscopy reveals difficulty in visualizing the retina due to the patient's intolerance to bright light, but you do notice a fluid level at the front of the eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.

      Your Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old female of Afro-Caribbean descent visits the oncology clinic after being referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female of Afro-Caribbean descent visits the oncology clinic after being referred by her primary care physician. She has observed some painless, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy lumps on her neck. She reports experiencing more night sweats lately and has noticed some discomfort when consuming alcohol.
      What characteristic is linked to a negative prognosis for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol-induced pain

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Experiencing fever above 38ºC and night sweats in the past 6 months is linked to a poor prognosis if at least one of these ‘B’ symptoms is present. While acute lymphoblastic leukemia has a worse prognosis in individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent, Hodgkin’s lymphoma does not typically present with bone marrow failure and is more common in children. Alcohol-induced pain may be present in some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it does not indicate a poor prognosis. While female sex is not linked to a poor prognosis, some studies suggest that males may have a worse outcome. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a characteristic of Hodgkin’s lymphoma but has not been associated with a worse prognosis.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Histological Classification and Prognosis

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their third and seventh decades of life. The histological classification of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is based on the type of cells present and their frequency. The most common type is nodular sclerosing, which is more common in women and has a good prognosis. Mixed cellularity is the second most common type and is associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells. Lymphocyte predominant is a rare type with the best prognosis, while lymphocyte depleted is the rarest and has the worst prognosis.

      In addition to the histological classification, there are other factors that can affect the prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The presence of B symptoms, such as weight loss, fever, and night sweats, is associated with a poor prognosis. Other factors identified in a 1998 NEJM paper include age over 45 years, stage IV disease, low hemoglobin levels, low lymphocyte count, male gender, low albumin levels, and high white blood cell count. Understanding the histological classification and prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      23.3
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  • Question 18 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who is concerned about a red rash on her arms and chest. She has been feeling sick, with cold-like symptoms preceding the rash. The rash is erythematous, macular and symmetrical to both arms and chest and is non-blanching. She is currently without fever and appears to be in good health.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Different Skin Conditions: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura, eczema, intertrigo, meningococcal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all skin conditions that can present with various rashes and symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to distinguish between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, joint and abdominal pain, and nephritis. Eczema is characterized by areas of erythema that are blanching, dry skin with fine scales, and excoriations. Intertrigo primarily affects the flexures with erythematous patches that may progress to intense inflammation. Meningococcal disease presents with a non-blanching rash that rapidly progresses to purpura and requires immediate treatment. Systemic lupus erythematosus is rare in children and presents with a malar or butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, fever, or weight loss.

      By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      175.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the past three months. She describes that it is worse in the evening. There are no associated symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Headaches

      Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their distinguishing characteristics:

      1. Tension headache: This type of headache is often described as a tight, band-like pain across the forehead and is more common in females. It typically worsens towards the end of the day but does not interfere with daily activities. Chronic tension headaches occur at least 15 days of the month for at least three months.

      2. Brain tumour: Headaches caused by space-occupying lesions tend to be worse in the morning and when bending forward. They may also be associated with vomiting.

      3. Cluster headache: This type of headache is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, which can last for a few minutes up to three hours. There may also be simultaneous lacrimation and nasal congestion. Symptoms occur every day or multiple times every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years.

      4. Giant cell arteritis: This type of headache typically occurs in those aged over 50 years and is characterized by an abrupt onset and recurrent daily headache. Common symptoms include scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, fever, weight loss, and lethargy. A diagnosis of GCA requires three out of five specific criteria.

      5. Migraine: Migraines can occur daily but are typically accompanied by associated features such as nausea or vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. The International Headache Society criteria for migraine without aura include at least five attacks fulfilling specific criteria.

      Understanding the different types of headaches and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.6
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  • Question 20 - You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have...

    Correct

    • You receive a call for guidance. The parents of a 20-year-old man have just received a message from their son who is currently backpacking in Vietnam. He was bitten by a dog earlier in the day while staying in a rural community. Before embarking on his journey, he received a rabies vaccination as he planned to visit many rural areas. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: He should urgently seek local medical attention for consideration of booster vaccination + antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      If left untreated, rabies is almost always fatal. Although it may be difficult to recall all the countries with a high incidence of rabies, it is evident that being bitten by a dog in a rural area poses a risk. It is imperative that he seeks immediate medical attention as a booster vaccination is necessary to reduce the likelihood of contracting rabies. Delaying treatment by flying home is not advisable.

      Understanding Rabies: A Deadly Viral Disease

      Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis. It is caused by a bullet-shaped capsid RNA rhabdovirus, specifically a lyssavirus. The disease is primarily transmitted through dog bites, but it can also be transmitted through bites from bats, raccoons, and skunks. Once the virus enters the body, it travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion.

      Rabies is a deadly disease that still kills around 25,000-50,000 people worldwide each year, with the majority of cases occurring in poor rural areas of Africa and Asia. Children are particularly at risk. The disease has several features, including a prodrome of headache, fever, and agitation, as well as hydrophobia, which causes water-provoking muscle spasms, and hypersalivation. Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons, are also a characteristic feature of the disease.

      In developed countries like the UK, there is considered to be no risk of developing rabies following an animal bite. However, in at-risk countries, it is important to take immediate action following an animal bite. The wound should be washed, and if an individual is already immunized, then two further doses of vaccine should be given. If not previously immunized, then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If left untreated, the disease is nearly always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of bloating and abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Which of the following symptoms is not typically associated with a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Feeling of incomplete stool evacuation

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Exclusion of underlying malignancy or inflammatory bowel disease is necessary as weight loss is not a characteristic of IBS.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      91.8
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. An F1 administers metoclopramide, but 20 minutes later the patient reports feeling as though his eyes are stuck in an abnormal position and he cannot move them. What is the likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonia

      Explanation:

      The administration of metoclopramide can result in extrapyramidal side effects, with acute dystonia being the earliest and most common. This can lead to oculogyric crises, particularly in young individuals. Long-term side effects may include akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. The patient’s history does not suggest an allergic reaction, as there were no symptoms such as facial or lip swelling, breathing or circulatory issues, or the presence of a rash.

      Metoclopramide is a medication that is commonly used to manage nausea. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which helps to alleviate feelings of sickness. In addition to its antiemetic properties, metoclopramide also has other uses, such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis caused by diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics to treat migraines, which can cause gastroparesis and slow the absorption of pain medication.

      However, metoclopramide can have some adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. These side effects are particularly problematic in children and young adults. It is important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in cases of bowel obstruction, but it may be helpful in cases of paralytic ileus.

      Although metoclopramide primarily works as a D2 receptor antagonist, its mechanism of action is quite complex. It also acts as a mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist. The antiemetic effects of metoclopramide are due to its D2 receptor antagonist activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, while its gastroprokinetic effects are mediated by both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. At higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist activity also comes into play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      98.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.6
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  • Question 24 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      56.5
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man is being investigated for unexplained weight loss. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is being investigated for unexplained weight loss. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, dyspepsia, and nausea. He has a history of pernicious anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute Leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Stomach cancer

      Explanation:

      Dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia are among the early signs of stomach cancer. This type of cancer is uncommon and is more likely to occur in individuals over the age of 50, particularly those with pernicious anemia. Pancreatic cancer is linked to the onset of diabetes. Bone pain is a typical symptom of myeloma. Recurrent infections, bleeding, and bruising are common symptoms of acute leukemia.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      57.8
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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes after a...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes after a routine blood test. He has a history of myocardial infarction and chronic left ventricular systolic dysfunction. The patient is started on metformin and titrated to the maximum tolerated dose. The following are the results of his blood tests:
      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR >90 mL/min (>90)
      - Hba1c 62 mmol/mol (7.8%) (20-41)

      What is the most appropriate medication to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Empagliflozin

      Explanation:

      For this patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and cardiac comorbidity, the most appropriate medication would be an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is especially true for patients with established cardiovascular disease (CVD) or those under 40 with one or more cardiovascular risk factors. Studies have shown that SGLT-2 inhibitors have a cardioprotective effect, with the greatest benefit seen in those with CVD. Additionally, these medications have been associated with reduced hospital admissions and mortality in patients with heart failure.

      Gliclazide is not the best option for this patient as there is no evidence that it would have a beneficial effect on their cardiac comorbidity, unlike SGLT-2 inhibitors. While gliclazide is effective at lowering HbA1c, it can cause weight gain. In some cases, gliclazide may be used as rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.

      Insulin is not necessary at this stage, as there are many other medications available to optimize glycemic control before insulin should be considered. In some cases, insulin may be used as short-term rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.

      Pioglitazone is not a suitable option for this patient, as it is contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to its potential to worsen fluid retention and edema. Additionally, pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of fractures. However, pioglitazone does have benefits such as safety in renal impairment and a low risk of hypoglycemia.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of hypertension, managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. On direct fundoscopy, the optic disc's margins are ill-defined and seem to be raised in both eyes. There are also some cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. A grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, as classified by the Keith-Wagener-Barker system, is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling and cotton-wool spots. This condition can cause a reduction in visual acuity and color vision due to optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension.

      It is important to differentiate hypertensive retinopathy from other eye conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, for example, is unlikely if the patient’s type II diabetes is well-controlled. The presence of cotton-wool spots does not indicate diabetic retinopathy.

      An intracranial space-occupying lesion is also not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis, while it can present with loss of optic nerve function, is more likely to present unilaterally and without cotton-wool spots.

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s diabetes is well-controlled. In diabetic retinopathy, optic discs will not be raised.

      In summary, a thorough understanding of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose hypertensive retinopathy and differentiate it from other eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern of experiencing bleeding following sexual intercourse. What is the most frequently identifiable reason for postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Cervicitis secondary to Chlamydia

      Correct Answer: Cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Postcoital bleeding is most commonly caused by cervical ectropion.

      Understanding Postcoital Bleeding

      Postcoital bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after sexual intercourse. In approximately 50% of cases, no identifiable pathology is found. However, cervical ectropion is the most common identifiable cause, accounting for around 33% of cases. This condition is more prevalent in women who are taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other potential causes of postcoital bleeding include cervicitis, which may be due to Chlamydia infection, cervical cancer, polyps, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      24.3
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dobutamine

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.

      Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.

      To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.

      Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation

      Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.

      Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.

      To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of pneumonia, and a recent Giardia infection suffered a severe allergic reaction to a blood transfusion after a road traffic accident. His investigations showed slightly decreased immunoglobulins, a mild obstructive pattern on spirometry, and normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) deficiency

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immunoglobulin Deficiencies and Their Symptoms

      Immunoglobulin deficiencies are a group of disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce specific types of antibodies, leading to an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms.

      IgA Deficiency:
      This deficiency is characterized by a decrease in immunoglobulin A, which can lead to an increased incidence of mucosal infections, particularly gastrointestinal infections with Giardia. Patients may also experience recurrent ear infections, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections. Additionally, IgA deficiency increases the risk of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.

      IgE Deficiency:
      IgE is responsible for fighting parasitic and helminthic infections, so patients with IgE deficiency are more likely to develop these types of infections. They are also at an increased risk of autoimmune disease and non-allergic reactive airways disease.

      IgG Deficiency:
      Patients with IgG deficiency are prone to developing infections from encapsulated bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. This deficiency can lead to upper and lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.

      IgM Deficiency:
      Primary selective IgM deficiency results in increased infections by bacteria, fungi, and viruses, as well as increased autoimmune diseases. However, this deficiency does not have the selectivity for mucosal membrane infections seen in IgA deficiency.

      Severe Combined Immunoglobulin Deficiency (SCID):
      SCID is a rare disorder that results from abnormal T- and B-cell development due to inherited genetic mutations. Patients with SCID are affected early in life with multiple severe bacterial, viral, and fungal infections, as well as failure to thrive, interstitial lung disease, and chronic diarrhea.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms is crucial for prompt recognition and treatment of opportunistic bacterial infections and autoimmune diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      33.9
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  • Question 31 - A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.

      Explanation:

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      42.4
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  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?

      Your Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT

      The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.

      Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.

      Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      122.5
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  • Question 33 - A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment,...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 49-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of pain in his right elbow. He reports that the pain began last week after he painted the walls of his house. During the examination, it is observed that the pain intensifies when he resists wrist extension and supinates his forearm while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of elbow pain in this individual is lateral epicondylitis, which is commonly known as ‘tennis’ elbow. It is aggravated by wrist extension and supination of the forearm, although other activities can also trigger it. Cubital tunnel syndrome is not the correct answer as it presents with ulnar nerve compression and paraesthesia in the ulnar nerve distribution, which is exacerbated when the elbow is flexed for extended periods of time. Medial epicondylitis, also known as ‘golfer’s’ elbow, is not the correct answer either as the pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and there are no other associated features. Olecranon bursitis is also not the correct answer as it presents with a swelling over the olecranon, and may also have associated pain, warmth, and erythema, and typically affects middle-aged male patients.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      37.5
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  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic. He has been recently diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic. He has been recently diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) and wants to know what lifestyle changes and medical treatments he needs to adopt to help reduce symptoms, and which to avoid.
      Which of the following should be avoided in patients with IIH?

      Your Answer: Maintaining a high-sodium diet

      Explanation:

      Managing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Strategies and Interventions

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, which can lead to vision loss and other neurological symptoms. Effective management of IIH involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, medication, and, in some cases, surgery. Here are some key strategies and interventions for managing IIH:

      Low-sodium diet with acetazolamide: A low-sodium diet with acetazolamide has been shown to improve vision in patients with IIH. A high-sodium diet should be avoided as it can increase fluid retention and decrease the effectiveness of acetazolamide.

      Weight loss: Weight loss can induce remission of papilledema in patients with IIH. A strict diet and pharmacological therapy may be necessary to achieve weight loss and prevent vision loss.

      Surgical treatment: If patients are losing their vision despite maximal medical therapy, surgical treatment by optic-nerve-sheath fenestration or CSF shunting should be considered.

      Discontinuing excessive vitamin A intake: Excessive vitamin A intake can increase CSF volume and pressure, so it is important to eliminate this risk factor in patients with IIH.

      Discontinuing retinoid treatment: Retinoid, a metabolite of vitamin A, has been linked to the development of IIH. Therefore, discontinuing retinoid treatment is crucial when suspecting IIH.

      Starting acetazolamide: Acetazolamide is a medication that decreases CSF production in humans and is often used in the initial management of IIH.

      By implementing these strategies and interventions, patients with IIH can effectively manage their condition and prevent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.8
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  • Question 37 - You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was...

    Correct

    • You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?

      Your Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby

      Explanation:

      Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.

      Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.

      However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Cataracts are usually not associated with which of the following conditions? Please select...

    Incorrect

    • Cataracts are usually not associated with which of the following conditions? Please select only one option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Cataracts and Their Associated Symptoms

      Cataracts are a common eye condition that can cause visual impairment. While ageing is the most common cause, there are several other factors that can contribute to cataract development. Here are some of the common causes of cataracts and their associated symptoms:

      1. Thyrotoxicosis: This condition involves excess synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones, leading to the hypermetabolic condition of thyrotoxicosis. Symptoms include sympathetic activation in younger patients and cardiovascular symptoms and unexplained weight loss in older patients. Approximately 50% of patients with Graves-thyrotoxicosis have mild thyroid ophthalmopathy, which can cause periorbital edema, conjunctival edema, poor lid closure, extraocular muscle dysfunction, and proptosis.

      2. Diabetes mellitus: Patients with diabetes are at risk of developing several ophthalmic complications, including cataracts. Epidemiological studies have shown that cataracts are the most common cause of visual impairment in patients with older-onset diabetes. Hyperglycemia is associated with loss of lens transparency, and rapid decline of serum glucose levels in patients with marked hyperglycemia may induce temporary lens opacification and swelling.

      3. Myotonic dystrophy: This chronic genetic disorder affects muscle function and can cause gradually worsening muscle atrophy and weakness. Other symptoms include cataracts, intellectual disability, and heart conduction abnormalities. Myotonic dystrophy may cause a cortical cataract with a blue dot appearance or a posterior subcapsular cataract.

      4. Rubella: Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at birth and can be associated with ocular abnormalities, trauma, or intrauterine infection, particularly rubella. Congenital rubella infection may result in growth delay, learning disability, hearing loss, congenital heart disease, and eye, endocrinological, and neurological abnormalities.

      5. Hypoparathyroidism: This condition is characterized by hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and low or inappropriately normal levels of parathyroid hormone. Patients may present with hypocalcemia, mental changes, and neuromuscular excitability or tetany. Anatomical abnormalities, although not readily apparent, include deposition of calcium in soft tissues, including intracranial calcifications and cataract formation.

      In addition to these causes, cataracts can also be caused by trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with poorly controlled blood glucose levels. He was initially started on metformin therapy and his diabetes was well controlled until the last 6 months. Despite strict adherence to diet, exercise and maximum daily doses of metformin and pioglitazone, satisfactory blood glucose control has proved difficult to achieve and the last HbA1c was at 85 mmol/mol. You consider adding the agent empagliflozin.
      Managed either by lifestyle + diet
      HbA1c target levels in adults with type 2 diabetes
      Or
      Lifestyle + diet + single drug not associated with hypoglycaemia
      Managed with a drug associated with hypoglycaemia
      48 mmol/mol
      53 mmol/mol
      Which of the following class of drugs does sitagliptin belong to?

      Your Answer: A dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Common Diabetes Medications and How They Work

      Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as sitagliptin, work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which breaks down hormones that stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon secretion. This leads to increased insulin secretion and decreased glucagon release, helping to regulate blood glucose levels.

      α-Glucosidase inhibitors, like acarbose, inhibit enzymes needed to digest carbohydrates, leading to decreased glucose absorption.

      Sulfonylureas, such as tolbutamide and gliclazide, stimulate insulin release by inhibiting potassium channels in pancreatic cells.

      Non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues, like repaglinide and nateglinide, also stimulate insulin release but act on a different binding site of the potassium channels.

      Insulin sensitizers, including biguanides like metformin and thiazolidinediones (glitazones), increase glucose uptake by the cells and enhance insulin-dependent enzyme production, respectively.

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Common Diabetes Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday evening. He describes this as a veil dropping over his left eye. The symptoms have since resolved and his vision is currently normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis fugax, or transient vision loss, is a common complaint that typically lasts from seconds to hours and may have an identifiable cause. It often presents as a grey curtain moving from the periphery towards the center of vision. Ischemic causes, such as giant cell arteritis, cerebrovascular ischemia, and retinal arteriolar emboli, are more common in patients over 45 years old. A monocular visual disturbance, as seen in this patient, is more likely to be due to a circulatory disturbance of the anterior circulation, such as the carotid artery.

      Retinal detachment is a time-critical eye emergency that presents with floaters, flashing lights, field loss, and a fall in visual acuity. Patients with high myopia are at high risk. Over time, a shadow may appear in the peripheral visual field, which, if ignored, may spread to involve the entire visual field in a matter of days.

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world and usually manifests after age 50. The disease is often bilateral and may be asymmetrical. Peripheral visual acuity is preserved in all forms of dry AMD, but the advanced, non-exudative form is associated with severe central visual-field loss.

      Central retinal artery occlusion results in inner layer oedema and pyknosis of the ganglion cell nuclei, leading to ischaemic necrosis and opacification of the retina. The most common presenting complaint is an acute, persistent, painless loss of vision. A history of amaurosis fugax may be present.

      Central retinal vein occlusion presents with variable visual loss, retinal haemorrhages, dilated tortuous retinal veins, cotton-wool spots, macular oedema, and optic disc oedema. Visual loss can be sudden or gradual, over a period of days to weeks, and ranges from mild to severe. Photophobia, pain, and eye redness may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down...

    Correct

    • You perform a routine examination on a 6-month-old baby with newly diagnosed Down syndrome. The mother mentions 'white speckles on his eyes'. Upon examination, you find a bilateral red reflex and no abnormalities. What is the mother describing?

      Your Answer: Brushfield spots

      Explanation:

      Brushfield spots, which are small grey or brown spots found on the outer edge of the iris, are commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. Cataracts, on the other hand, involve clouding of the lens and are not likely present in this patient as their red reflex appears normal. Coloboma, a congenital defect that causes a gap in the lens, iris, or retina, is associated with Patau syndrome rather than Down syndrome. While there have been links between Down syndrome and congenital glaucoma, the patient’s history does not suggest this condition. A squint, or deviation in the gaze of an eye, is a separate issue altogether.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer: Increased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to decreased cortisol levels, which can cause postural hypotension. However, aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      In rare cases of adrenal adenoma, increased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone may occur, but this does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome. Similarly, decreased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case here.

      An unusual result would be increased cortisol levels with decreased aldosterone levels, which does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism in Sheehan’s syndrome. Conversely, decreased cortisol levels with increased aldosterone levels would also be an unusual result, as aldosterone levels are not typically affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with suspected Sheehan’s syndrome, it is important to consider the expected pattern of decreased cortisol levels with normal aldosterone levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      125.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?

      Your Answer: Dry skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible allergic reaction to seafood he ate at a restaurant. He administered his adrenaline autoinjector and received an additional dose of intramuscular adrenaline from the paramedics.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. He has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min and oxygen saturation of 93% on room air.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Further intramuscular adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      For patients with refractory anaphylaxis, which is characterized by persistent respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems despite receiving 2 doses of intramuscular adrenaline, the recommended next step is to start an intravenous adrenaline infusion. Administering further intramuscular adrenaline is not recommended. Intravenous chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are also no longer recommended in the updated guidelines for anaphylaxis management.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      81.6
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  • Question 45 - A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The parent reports that the child was violently shaken by the caregiver. The paediatricians on duty observe retinal haemorrhages and suspect encephalopathy. What was identified on the CT head to complete the triad of features of Shaken Baby Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      The combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy is known as the triad of symptoms associated with Shaken Baby Syndrome. The tearing of fragile bridging cerebral veins in infants is believed to be the cause of subdural haematomas, which are the most common and typical intracranial manifestation of this syndrome.

      Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome

      Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.

      Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood...

    Correct

    • The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have Hepatitis B. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.1
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  • Question 47 - A 75-year-old man visits the doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who is...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man visits the doctor's office accompanied by his wife, who is worried about his well-being. The man has been experiencing episodes of confusion and drowsiness that appear to occur unpredictably for the past five years. Additionally, he has developed a tremor in his right hand on one side of his body. The man's wife reveals that she has slept in a different bed from her husband for the past three decades due to his frequent nightmares. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Dementia with Lewy bodies, which is a type of dementia that is characterized by fluctuating cognition. This can be confusing as there are different types of dementia, especially non-Alzheimer’s disease dementia. In this case, the man’s symptoms and the classification of dementias point towards DLB. Parkinson’s disease dementia is also a type of dementia that falls under the category of Lewy body dementia, but it is characterized by tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity that develop before dementia. DLB, on the other hand, presents with dementia before these motor symptoms. Other clues that suggest DLB include the man’s periods of confusion and sleepiness that come and go randomly, as well as his wife’s report of him suffering from bad nightmares, which is a distinctive feature of DLB. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease dementia typically presents with slowly worsening memory loss and forgetfulness, while frontal lobe dementia primarily presents with behavioural changes and reckless behaviour.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.7
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the Japanese encephalitis vaccine. He receives 500mcg of intramuscular adrenaline immediately and is placed in a supine position with elevated legs while receiving high-flow oxygen. Despite the initial dose of adrenaline, his facial swelling persists and his blood pressure drops to 82/54 mmHg. How long should the healthcare provider wait before administering a second dose of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes during the management of anaphylaxis.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      102.2
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  • Question 49 - As a physician at a sexual health clinic, what would be the most...

    Correct

    • As a physician at a sexual health clinic, what would be the most suitable contraceptive to suggest to a young adult with a latex allergy who does not have a consistent partner?

      Your Answer: Polyurethane condom

      Explanation:

      Barrier Methods of Contraception

      Barrier methods of contraception are still commonly used as a means of preventing unintended pregnancies. In addition to preventing pregnancy, condoms also offer some protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The two most popular types of barrier methods used in the UK are condoms and diaphragms/cervical caps.

      When used perfectly, male condoms have an efficacy rate of 98%, while female condoms have an efficacy rate of 95%. However, in typical use, the efficacy rates drop to 80% for both male and female condoms. Diaphragms and cervical caps, when used with spermicide, have an efficacy rate of 92-96%.

      It is important to note that oil-based lubricants should not be used with latex condoms, as they can weaken the material and increase the risk of breakage. For individuals who are allergic to latex, polyurethane condoms should be used instead. Overall, barrier methods of contraception remain a popular choice for individuals looking to prevent pregnancy and protect against STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a football injury. He is able to bear weight, experiences pain below his lateral malleolus, and has no tenderness in the bone. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with no further treatment indicated

      Correct Answer: Give analgesia and review in 1 hour before discharge with advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules: Managing Foot and Ankle Injuries

      Foot and ankle injuries are common, but it can be difficult to determine whether a patient has sustained a sprain or a fracture. The Ottawa ankle rules are a set of guidelines that can help clinicians decide whether a patient with foot or ankle pain requires radiographs to diagnose a possible fracture. By following these rules, unnecessary radiographs can be reduced by 25%.

      When managing foot and ankle injuries, it is important to understand the Ottawa ankle rules and how they apply to each patient. If a patient does not meet the criteria for an ankle radiograph, simple analgesia and advice on managing a soft tissue injury may be sufficient. However, if a patient does meet the criteria, a radiograph may be necessary to diagnose a possible fracture.

      By understanding and applying the Ottawa ankle rules, clinicians can provide appropriate and effective management for foot and ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
      What supplements do you suggest she take?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day

      Explanation:

      For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.

      Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by his psychiatrist. He was admitted to the psychiatry unit six months ago due to delusions that he was being tracked by spies. At the time of admission, he was taking quetiapine, but it was changed to aripiprazole 400 mg monthly depot. Recently, he has been expressing to his wife that he believes his food is poisoned. His wife thinks that his new medication is not effective. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the appropriate choice for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded adequately to at least two antipsychotics. In this case, the patient has already tried quetiapine and aripiprazole without success, making clozapine a suitable option. However, it requires careful monitoring and titration. Continuing aripiprazole is not recommended as the patient has been on the highest dose for six months and is still experiencing delusional ideas. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for schizophrenia, but atypical antipsychotics are preferred due to fewer side effects. Lorazepam is not a long-term antipsychotic and is only useful for managing severe agitation in patients with schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      58.8
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  • Question 54 - A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a surgeon, four months after switching his antiepileptic medication. Despite being seizure-free, he has gained 5 kg in weight since his last check-up. Which antiepileptic drug is commonly linked to weight gain?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Weight gain can be a side effect of taking sodium valproate.

      Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.

      Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.

      Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      181.8
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  • Question 55 - A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper abdominal pain on the right side. He admits to drinking a six-pack of beer every night after work. Over the past year, he has lost about 9 kg (1.5 stone) in weight, and his wife says that he often skips meals in favor of alcohol. He has occasional diarrhea, which he describes as greasy and difficult to flush away. Physical examination reveals a lean man with tenderness upon deep palpation in the right upper quadrant. Blood testing reveals mild normochromic/normocytic anaemia and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level raised to twice the upper limit of normal. Amylase and anti-gliadin antibodies are normal. Upper abdominal ultrasound is performed and there is diffuse pancreatic calcification, but nothing else of note.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition where the pancreas undergoes ongoing inflammation, resulting in irreversible changes. The most common symptom is recurring abdominal pain, often in the mid or upper left abdomen, accompanied by weight loss and diarrhea. Imaging tests can reveal inflammation or calcium deposits in the pancreas, and pancreatic calcifications are considered a telltale sign of chronic pancreatitis. Excessive alcohol consumption is the leading cause of this condition, as it can cause blockages in the pancreatic ducts and stimulate inflammation.

      Pancreatic carcinoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. Symptoms are often vague and non-specific, such as fatigue, nausea, and mid-epigastric or back pain. Obstructive jaundice is a common symptom, with elevated levels of bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase. Ultrasound is often used for diagnosis, but it may not reveal the extent of the cancer.

      Acute pancreatitis is characterized by sudden, severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever, tachycardia, and abdominal muscle guarding are also common symptoms. Serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated, and leukocytosis may be present.

      Coeliac disease is a chronic digestive disorder that results in an inability to tolerate gliadin, a component of gluten. Laboratory tests may reveal electrolyte imbalances, malnutrition, and anemia. The most reliable antibodies for confirming coeliac disease are tissue transglutaminase immunoglobulin A, endomysial IgA, and reticulin IgA.

      Recurrent cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed due to gallstones blocking the cystic duct. Symptoms include recurring episodes of biliary colic, but a palpable mass is not always present. Ultrasound may reveal a thickened gallbladder wall, gallstones, or calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      24.4
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  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old woman is concerned about her risk of developing ovarian cancer due...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is concerned about her risk of developing ovarian cancer due to a family history of the disease. She wants to learn more about screening options available in the UK.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: There is currently no screening programme for ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      Currently, there is no dependable screening test for detecting ovarian cancer in its early stages. However, women, especially those over 50 years old, who experience persistent symptoms such as abdominal bloating, early satiety, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency or frequency should be suspected of having ovarian cancer and should undergo further tests.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      26.9
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  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
      Which medication should this patient be started on?

      Your Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      67.9
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  • Question 58 - Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is...

    Incorrect

    • Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is no one-size-fits-all solution for managing it. Which of the following is the best statement about migraine.

      Your Answer: Headache may last from a few minutes to a number of days

      Correct Answer: Over half of all patients have their first attack before the age of 20

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraines: Facts and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraines are a common neurological disorder that affects people of all ages. Here are some important facts to know about migraines:

      – The first attack of migraine often occurs in childhood or teenage years, with over half of all patients experiencing their first attack before the age of 20.
      – Migraine attacks can last for a few hours to several days, with the International Headache Society diagnostic criteria requiring at least five episodes of headache lasting 4-72 hours.
      – While aura is estimated to accompany headache in only a quarter to a third of patients, over half of all patients experience aura before the headache.
      – Migraine is classically described as a unilateral, pulsating headache, but subsequent migraines can affect the same side or be bilateral.
      – The release of vasogenic amines from blood vessel walls, accompanied by pulsatile distension, is believed to be responsible for migrainous attacks.
      – A good history is important in diagnosing migraines, as patients may self-diagnose and overlook other factors such as combined oral contraception.

      In summary, migraines are a complex neurological disorder that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Understanding the facts and diagnostic criteria can help with proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.2
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  • Question 59 - A 70-year-old man in the cardiology ward is experiencing muscle cramps, palpitations, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man in the cardiology ward is experiencing muscle cramps, palpitations, and constipation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Sodium 140 mmol/L, Potassium 3.1mmol/L, Calcium 2.2mmol/L, Phosphate 1.1mmol/L, and Magnesium 0.7mmol/L. Which medication is the most probable cause of this disturbance?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia is a possible adverse effect of loop diuretics, such as bumetanide. Other potential side effects of bumetanide include hypocalcaemia, metabolic alkalosis, ototoxicity, and gout. Digoxin toxicity may lead to hyperkalaemia, but not hypokalaemia. Ace inhibitors like enalapril are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia than hypokalaemia, and may also result in dry cough, hypotension, and angioedema. Propranolol, a non-selective beta blocker, is not typically associated with hypokalaemia, but may cause bronchospasm, hypertriglyceridemia, and hypoglycaemia.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      23.6
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  • Question 60 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the examination, it is observed that when a light is shone in her right eye, both pupils constrict, but when the light is immediately moved to the left eye, both pupils appear to dilate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      The ‘swinging light test’ can detect a relative afferent pupillary defect, which is indicated by less constriction of the pupils on one side. In this case, the left side is affected, suggesting an underlying condition such as multiple sclerosis causing optic neuritis. Symptoms of optic neuritis may include a dull ache around the eye that worsens with movement, which is common in patients of this age group.

      Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.

      When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

      There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 61 - A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old medical student noticed that he had a murmur when he tested his new stethoscope. On assessment in the Cardiology Clinic, he was found to have a harsh systolic murmur over his precordium, which did not change with inspiration. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed features of biventricular hypertrophy.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate underlying heart conditions. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      1. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD): This has a pansystolic murmur, heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge and causing biventricular hypertrophy due to increased strain on both the right and left ventricles.

      2. Mitral Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur which is heard loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla; it is louder on expiration. The ECG can show left ventricular and left atrial enlargement.

      3. Aortic Stenosis: This causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest in the aortic area and radiating to the carotids. It (and all other left-sided murmurs) is louder on expiration.

      4. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): HCM has an early peaking systolic murmur which is worse on Valsalva and reduced on squatting. It is also associated with a jerky pulse. The ECG would show left ventricular hypertrophy.

      5. Tricuspid Regurgitation: This has a pansystolic murmur and a brief rumbling diastolic murmur; these are louder on inspiration. The ECG may show right ventricular enlargement.

      It is important to note that right-sided murmurs increase with inspiration (e.g. tricuspid regurgitation or TR), whereas left-sided murmurs show no change. The clue to diagnosis is in the ECG finding. Aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation produce left ventricular hypertrophy; TR produces right ventricular hypertrophy and a VSD produces biventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      66.1
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  • Question 62 - The medical emergency team is called to an 85-year-old man who has fainted...

    Correct

    • The medical emergency team is called to an 85-year-old man who has fainted in the cardiology ward whilst visiting a relative. He has been moved to a trolley, where he appears confused and is complaining of dizziness. An A-E examination is performed:

      A: Is the airway patent?
      B: Is there any respiratory distress? Sats are 98% on air.
      C: Is the radial pulse regular? The patient has cool peripheries, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, and heart sounds of 1 + 2 + 0.
      D: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score? Are the pupils equal and reactive to light?
      E: Is the temperature normal? No other findings are noted.

      An ECG shows sinus bradycardia with a rate of 42 beats per minute. What is the immediate treatment for his bradycardia?

      Your Answer: Give 500 micrograms atropine

      Explanation:

      For patients with bradycardia and signs of shock, the immediate treatment is 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum of 3mg. This is in line with the Resuscitation Council Guidelines. It is important to identify the cause of the bradycardia and check for reversible causes, while also managing the bradycardia to prevent further deterioration and possible cardiac arrest.

      It should be noted that 3mg of atropine is the maximum amount that can be given, not the starting dose. If there is an insufficient response to 500 micrograms of atropine, further doses can be given until a total of 3mg has been administered.

      Administering 500ml of intravenous fluid stat may temporarily increase cardiac output, but it will not treat the bradycardia causing the patient’s shock.

      Transcutaneous pacing is a method of temporarily pacing the heart in an emergency by delivering pulses of electric current through the chest. It may be used as an interim measure if treatment with atropine is unsuccessful, while awaiting the establishment of more permanent measures such as transvenous pacing or permanent pacemaker insertion.

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      179
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?

      Your Answer: 9 months

      Correct Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.

      Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.

      To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

      In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 64 - You are asked to evaluate a 19-year-old student who has recently returned from...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 19-year-old student who has recently returned from a gap-year trip to India. He complains of extreme fatigue and loss of appetite during the last week of his journey and noticed that he had jaundice just before his return home. He denies being an intravenous drug user and having unprotected sexual intercourse. Additionally, he did not receive any blood transfusions or tattoos during his trip. He reports having a fever, but it subsided once his jaundice appeared. After conducting liver function tests (LFTs), you find that his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 950 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l), total bilirubin level is 240 μmol/l (reference range <20 μmol/l), and his alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is slightly above the upper limit of normal. His white blood cell count, albumin level, and prothrombin times are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Overview of Viral Infections and Their Clinical Manifestations

      Hepatitis A, B, and C, leptospirosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) are all viral infections that can cause a range of clinical manifestations. Hepatitis A is typically transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and is most common in resource-poor regions. Leptospirosis is associated with exposure to rodents and contaminated water or soil. Hepatitis B is transmitted through blood and sexual contact, while hepatitis C is most commonly spread through injection drug use. CMV is typically asymptomatic but can cause severe disease in immunocompromised individuals. Understanding the transmission and clinical manifestations of these viral infections is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 65 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. During examination, her temperature is 37.8ºC, pulse 102 / min, and respiratory rate 30 / min. She has generalised guarding and tenderness in her abdomen. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 10.9 g/dl, MCV 76 fl, Plt 348 * 109/l, WBC 23.4 * 109/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, K+ 5.0 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l, Urea 8.0 mmol/l, and Creatinine 118 µmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The presence of low bicarbonate levels indicates a metabolic acidosis, which strongly indicates the possibility of mesenteric ischemia.

      Bowel Ischaemia: Types, Features, and Management

      Bowel ischaemia is a condition that can affect the lower gastrointestinal tract and can result in various clinical conditions. Although there is no standard classification, it is helpful to categorize cases into three main conditions: acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors for bowel ischaemia include increasing age, atrial fibrillation (particularly for mesenteric ischaemia), other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features of bowel ischaemia include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count associated with lactic acidosis.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery that supplies the small bowel, such as the superior mesenteric artery. Urgent surgery is usually required for management, and prognosis is poor, especially if surgery is delayed. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a relatively rare clinical diagnosis that may be thought of as intestinal angina, with intermittent abdominal pain occurring. Ischaemic colitis describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel, which may lead to inflammation, ulceration, and hemorrhage.

      Diagnosis of bowel ischaemia is typically done through CT scans. In acute mesenteric ischaemia, the abdominal pain is typically severe, of sudden onset, and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings. In chronic mesenteric ischaemia, the symptoms are non-specific. In ischaemic colitis, thumbprinting may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal edema/haemorrhage. Management of bowel ischaemia is usually supportive, but surgery may be required in a minority of cases if conservative measures fail. Indications for surgery would include generalized peritonitis, perforation, or ongoing hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      125.6
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  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      56
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  • Question 67 - Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell cancer

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell skin cancer is the most notable adverse effect of PUVA therapy in treating psoriasis.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 68 - A 75-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also has angina, gout and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also has angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease.
      Which of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Antihypertensive Medications and NICE Guidelines

      NICE guidelines recommend different antihypertensive medications based on age and ethnicity. For those under 55, an ACE inhibitor or ARB is advised, while calcium channel blockers are recommended for those over 55 and of Afro-Caribbean origin. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, are only third-line treatments and contraindicated in gout. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension but can be used for oedema in heart failure. Beta blockers, like atenolol, are relatively contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease and not recommended for hypertension treatment. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, are the first-line treatment for patients under 55, while calcium channel blockers are advised for those over 55, like an 80-year-old patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.2
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  • Question 69 - A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his urine for the past day. He reports no pain while urinating or abdominal pain. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He had a mild cold four days ago. Upon analysis, his urine shows positive for blood and trace amounts of protein, but negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of IgA nephropathy is visible haematuria that occurs after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. This patient’s new-onset haematuria following a recent URTI is consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy, which is the most common cause of haematuria worldwide. IgA nephropathy typically presents acutely in young males, in contrast to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which presents after 2 weeks from an upper or lower respiratory tract infection. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and minimal change disease are unlikely diagnoses as they present with proteinuria rather than haematuria. While post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, it differs from this patient’s presentation as it typically presents with haematuria after 2 weeks following an acute infection.

      Understanding IgA Nephropathy

      IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.

      Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria with no or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 70 - Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years....

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years. She is not diabetic and there is no other significant medical history. She is currently taking amlodipine at the maximum recommended dose of 10mg.
      During her medication review at her GP surgery, her blood pressure remains elevated - it is averaging at 160/98 mmHg over several readings.
      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step according to NICE guidelines is to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this scenario, as the options do not include an ACE inhibitor, losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is the correct choice. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are included in step 4 of NICE guidelines only if diuretic therapy is contraindicated or ineffective, and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also part of step 4, so they are not the appropriate options for this patient.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 71 - A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when she flexes her neck. What type of symptom is this?

      Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign

      Explanation:

      Lhermitte’s sign is a well-known symptom that suggests the presence of an underlying condition in the cervical cord’s dorsal column nuclei. This sign is also observed in cases of subacute combined degeneration of the cord and cervical stenosis.

      Multiple Sclerosis: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that can present with various non-specific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis of MS can be made based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect different parts of the body, leading to a range of symptoms. Visual symptoms are common, with optic neuritis being a frequent presenting feature. Other visual symptoms include optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature), and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome (paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion). Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia and tremor may also occur.

      In addition to these symptoms, MS can also cause urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration. It is important to note that not all patients with MS will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity and frequency of symptoms can vary widely between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 72 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
      On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 73 - A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of the surgery, she complains of increased discomfort at the transplant site. Upon examination, she has a fever, tenderness at the transplant site, and has not produced urine since the procedure. Her creatinine levels have significantly increased in the past 24 hours. What is the fundamental mechanism behind her rejection?

      Your Answer: Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA Typing and Graft Failure in Renal Transplants

      The human leucocyte antigen (HLA) system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and plays a crucial role in renal transplants. The HLA system includes class 1 antigens (A, B, and C) and class 2 antigens (DP, DQ, and DR), with DR being the most important for HLA matching in renal transplants. Graft survival rates for cadaveric transplants are 90% at 1 year and 60% at 10 years, while living-donor transplants have a 95% survival rate at 1 year and 70% at 10 years.

      Post-operative problems may include acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections. Hyperacute rejection, which occurs within minutes to hours, is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in the need for graft removal. Acute graft failure, which occurs within 6 months, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Chronic graft failure, which occurs after 6 months, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms and leads to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, with recurrence of the original renal disease being a common cause.

      In summary, understanding the HLA system and its role in renal transplants is crucial for successful outcomes. Monitoring for post-operative problems and early detection of graft failure can help improve long-term survival rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 74 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 75 - At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia...

    Correct

    • At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy. To decrease the risk of intrauterine growth retardation, what medication should be initiated at 12-14 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      What is the effectiveness of secondary prevention measures for women with pre-eclampsia? A-level research has shown that low-dose aspirin, when started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation, is more effective than a placebo in reducing the occurrence of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. This treatment also reduces perinatal mortality and the risk of babies being born small for gestational age. While low molecular weight heparin may reduce placental insufficiency in pre-eclampsia, there is currently a lack of long-term safety studies. Labetalol and methyldopa are commonly used antihypertensive drugs for acute management of pre-eclampsia, but they are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Unfractionated heparin has also not been proven to prevent the development of uteroplacental insufficiency.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 76 - An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital...

    Correct

    • An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital for palliative care at home. She was prescribed oral morphine at a dose of 10mg four times a day to manage her pain from bony metastases. This dosage was effective in controlling her pain.

      However, the patient's condition has worsened, and she is now experiencing difficulty swallowing, making it impossible to take the medication orally. The GP has recommended converting the morphine to a subcutaneous injection, which will be administered by the district nurses.

      What is the appropriate subcutaneous morphine dose for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5mg four times daily

      Explanation:

      To convert from oral to subcutaneous morphine, divide the oral dose by two. In this case, the recommended subcutaneous morphine dose is 5mg four times daily, which is equivalent to 10mg of oral morphine four times daily. As the patient’s pain is currently well controlled, there is no need to adjust the analgesia dose.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 77 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and describes a feeling of weakness when climbing stairs. He has noticed occasional muscle twitches and spasms that seem to be increasing in frequency.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is polymyositis. This is a connective tissue disease that affects the striated muscles, causing symmetrical weakness in the proximal muscles. Patients may have difficulty rising from chairs and experience muscle tenderness. Creatine kinase levels are elevated, and a muscle biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. This presentation is not suggestive of Guillain-Barré syndrome, which typically presents with distal weakness that progresses proximally. Mononeuritis multiplex, which involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, is unlikely given the symmetrical distribution of symptoms affecting proximal muscles. Multiple sclerosis is also unlikely, as it tends to present with distal rather than proximal limb weakness or paraesthesia. Myasthenia gravis, which is associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and causes fatigability, is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 78 - A 28-year-old presents with profuse epistaxis (nose bleed) after being hit in the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents with profuse epistaxis (nose bleed) after being hit in the nose during a boxing match. The bleeding stops after applying direct pressure and packing the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, involving the anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries, superior labial artery, and greater palatine artery. On the other hand, the latter is triggered by underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolization of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to note that significant episodes of epistaxis may lead to a considerable amount of blood loss, especially in the elderly, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract. Thus, clotting and hemoglobin levels should always be checked.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery is not involved in epistaxis, as it is a terminal branch of the ophthalmic artery emerging from the orbit. Similarly, the superficial temporal artery and zygomatic artery have no involvement in epistaxis. The former is a major artery of the head arising from the internal carotid and passing anterior to the pinna, while the latter runs across the top of the zygomatic arch.

      In summary, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in preventing significant blood loss and ensuring proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 79 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a dense left-sided hemiparesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a dense left-sided hemiparesis that has been ongoing for 10 hours. A CT scan of the head reveals a hypodense area in the right middle cerebral artery territory, and he is admitted to the hyper-acute stroke unit for further treatment. He is given 300mg of aspirin. While in the hospital, an ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no p waves. The patient inquires about ways to decrease the risk of future strokes. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start anticoagulation with a DOAC after 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) after 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke

      Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.

      Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.

      Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.

      Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.2
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  • Question 81 - A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that...

    Correct

    • A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.5
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  • Question 82 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, her pulse is 90 / min, temperature is 38.2ºC, and she experiences diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels tender on vaginal examination, but her breasts appear normal. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia

      Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.

      If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      168.8
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  • Question 83 - A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with metastatic prostate cancer is seen in clinic. His wife reports that he has been experiencing confusion and occasionally talks to people who are not present. Despite investigations for reversible causes, no underlying issues are found. If conservative measures prove ineffective and he continues to exhibit confusion and agitation, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral diazepam

      Correct Answer: Oral haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.9
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  • Question 84 - A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends to conduct a contrast-enhanced CT scan, but they are apprehensive due to his stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Below is his most recent renal function:
      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l
      What is the most crucial measure in decreasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?

      Your Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride pre- and post-procedure

      Explanation:

      Contrast Media Nephrotoxicity and Prevention

      Contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition where there is a 25% increase in creatinine within three days of intravascular administration of contrast media. This condition usually occurs 2-5 days after administration and is caused by various risk factors such as known renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, and the use of nephrotoxic drugs. Procedures such as CT with contrast and coronary angiography/percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are examples that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy.

      To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post-procedure is recommended. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate is also supported by evidence. However, N-acetylcysteine, which was previously given, is now considered ineffective. Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function has been shown to be normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.

      In summary, contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition that can occur after the administration of contrast media. It is caused by various risk factors and can be prevented by using intravenous sodium chloride or isotonic sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended, and patients at high risk should have metformin withheld until their renal function is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 85 - A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate treatment with lansoprazole, as she has already made lifestyle modifications but has not experienced complete relief from her reflux symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of lansoprazole?

      Your Answer: It inhibits the H+/Na+ ATP ‘proton pump’

      Correct Answer: It inhibits the H+/K+ ATP ‘proton pump’

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of medication that reduces the production of gastric acid by irreversibly blocking the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphatase enzyme system, also known as the gastric proton pump. This is achieved by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump, not the H+/Na+ or H+/Ca2+ ATP proton pumps. PPIs, such as lansoprazole and omeprazole, are more effective than H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine and are commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and as part of the triple therapy regimen for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori. Antihistamines, on the other hand, act on histamine receptors such as the H1 and H2 receptors, which are found in smooth muscle, vascular endothelial cells, and the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.8
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  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.2
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  • Question 87 - A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle. When will it become a dependable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.

      There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.

      Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.1
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  • Question 88 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to inquire about the whooping cough vaccine. She mentions that her friend, who also sees the same GP, received the vaccine at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She wants to know if she can get the vaccine at this stage of her pregnancy.

      Your Answer: The pertussis vaccine is not offered to pregnant women

      Correct Answer: She can have the vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women at 16-32 weeks are given the option to receive the pertussis vaccine.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.4
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  • Question 89 - A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
      Which of the following is the most likely organism?

      Your Answer: Vibrio cholerae

      Correct Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers

      Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.6
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  • Question 90 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.9
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  • Question 91 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.6
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  • Question 92 - A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

    His...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

      His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is well controlled with metformin 500mg BD and gliclazide 80 mg OD.

      The surgery is scheduled for the morning, but he is not placed on a variable rate insulin infusion (VRII).

      What adjustments should be made to his antidiabetic medication regimen on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer: All doses should be given

      Correct Answer: Only the morning dose of gliclazide should be omitted

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, it is recommended to omit the morning dose of gliclazide for patients taking sulfonylureas. However, if the patient takes BD, they can have the afternoon dose. Metformin should be taken as usual on the day before and on the day of elective surgery, except for lunchtime dose if taken three times a day.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.4
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  • Question 93 - A 56-year-old man with hypertension presents to the clinic with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with hypertension presents to the clinic with a complaint of ankle swelling that has developed over the past two months. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers may cause adverse effects such as headaches, flushing, and swelling in the ankles.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.6
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  • Question 94 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is observed that he is experiencing behavioural issues. The GP recommends additional testing with a potential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Lewy body dementia (LBD) being considered.
      What aspect of the patient's medical history would suggest that LBD is the more probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluctuating confusion and hallucination

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia and Lewy Body Dementia

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and Lewy body dementia (LBD) are two types of dementia that can cause a range of symptoms. Understanding the signs and symptoms of these conditions can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

      Fluctuating confusion and hallucination are common signs of LBD, which is caused by protein deposits in nerve cells in the brain. People with LBD may also experience Parkinson’s disease symptoms such as rigid muscles and tremors. On the other hand, FTD is characterized by an insidious onset and a gradual progression. Personality changes, social-conduct problems, and a decline in judgment and empathy are common features of FTD.

      While memory loss is a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s, it can also occur in advanced stages of FTD and LBD. However, relatively preserved memory is more characteristic of FTD in its early stages. Additionally, FTD tends to have an onset before age 65, with some cases diagnosed in individuals as young as 17 years old.

      Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of FTD and LBD can help with early diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.8
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  • Question 95 - Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?
    ...

    Correct

    • Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      ECG Findings in Various Cardiovascular Conditions

      New-onset left bundle branch block may indicate ischaemic heart disease and could be a sign of STEMI if the patient’s symptoms match the diagnosis. Pericarditis typically causes widespread ST elevation on an ECG. Mitral stenosis can lead to left atrial enlargement and potentially atrial fibrillation. Pulmonary embolism often results in a right bundle branch block or a right ventricular strain pattern of S1Q3T3. Tricuspid stenosis can also cause right ventricular strain. It’s worth noting that mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, and secondary pulmonary hypertension due to PE are associated with right ventricular strain and hypertrophy with partial or complete right bundle branch block, while pericarditis is not typically associated with bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.8
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  • Question 96 - A 28-year-old woman is experiencing dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal vaginal discharge during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is experiencing dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal vaginal discharge during her 16th week of pregnancy. She is concerned as she has had unprotected sex with multiple partners. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a penicillin allergy. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) confirm a Chlamydia infection. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin or erythromycin are appropriate options for treating Chlamydia in a pregnant patient who is allergic to penicillin. In this case, the patient’s NAAT testing confirmed the presence of Chlamydia, but doxycycline is contraindicated due to the patient’s pregnancy. Amoxicillin is not an option due to the patient’s penicillin allergy. Ceftriaxone is not indicated for Chlamydia, and doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Therefore, azithromycin or erythromycin are the most appropriate treatment options.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 97 - A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?

      Your Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 45 years

      Correct Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 98 - A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of his wrists. Lichen planus is suspected. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Offer gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from work. She complains of experiencing a 'fluttering' sensation in her chest for the past 30 minutes. Although she admits to feeling 'a bit faint,' she denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, the results show a regular tachycardia of 166 bpm with a QRS duration of 110 ms. Her blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on room air. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Direct current cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Carotid sinus massage

      Explanation:

      Vagal manoeuvres, such as carotid sinus massage or the Valsalva manoeuvre, are the initial treatment for supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine should only be administered if these manoeuvres are ineffective. According to the ALS guidelines, direct current cardioversion is not recommended for this condition.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      86.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (10/13) 77%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/7) 14%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (8/10) 80%
Ophthalmology (5/8) 63%
Infectious Diseases (6/7) 86%
Cardiovascular (6/9) 67%
Reproductive Medicine (8/12) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (6/6) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/5) 40%
Paediatrics (4/6) 67%
Psychiatry (3/4) 75%
Immunology/Allergy (1/3) 33%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Renal Medicine/Urology (3/4) 75%
ENT (1/1) 100%
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