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Question 1
Correct
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What is the minimum time interval required after a suspected paracetamol overdose before levels can be measured?
Your Answer: 4
Explanation:Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A young woman with bipolar disorder discovers she is expecting a baby. She has been on lithium medication for several years. What recommendations would you make in this situation?
Your Answer: Withdraw the lithium over a 4 week period and offer an antipsychotic
Explanation:The preferred course of action would be to gradually discontinue the use of lithium and introduce an antipsychotic medication to prevent the onset of a relapse.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What approach is recommended by NICE guidelines for treating depression that does not respond to treatment?
Your Answer: Augment with lithium
Explanation:The NICE guidelines acknowledge that augmentation with lithium is a viable choice for managing depression that is resistant to treatment.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A young adult with multiple sclerosis is admitted to the ward with thoughts of self-harm, pervasive mood change and diurnal mood variation. You establish a diagnosis of depression, rule out iatrogenic causes, and confirm that there is no history of mania. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to manage the patient's depression?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:According to the Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines 11th Edition 2012, SSRIs are the preferred first-line treatment for MS due to their minimal side effects. In a single trial, sertraline was found to be equally effective as CBT. However, there is currently no published research on the effectiveness of mirtazapine for MS.
Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the most precise approximation of the percentage of individuals over the age of 60 who engage in suicide within 12 months after experiencing self-harm?
Your Answer: 0.50%
Correct Answer: 1.50%
Explanation:The rate is considerably greater than that of adults who are of working age.
Suicide Rates Following Self-Harm
Most individuals who engage in self-harm do not go on to commit suicide, which makes risk assessment challenging. A study conducted in the UK in 2015 by Hawton found that 0.5% of individuals died by suicide in the first year following self-harm, with a higher rate among males (0.82%) than females (0.27%). Over the two-year period following self-harm, 1.6% died by suicide, with more occurrences in the second year. Interestingly, a study by Murphy in 2012 found that the rate of suicide following self-harm was higher in the elderly (those over 60), with a rate of 1.5 suicides in the first 12 months. The only significant risk factor for suicide following self-harm in this study was the use of a violent method in the initial episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?
Your Answer: 1%
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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What is a characteristic of a personality disorder that includes anankastic?
Your Answer: Unreasonable insistence by the patient that others submit to exactly his of her way of doing things
Explanation:Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.
The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.
The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.
Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What are the defining characteristics of borderline personality disorder?
Your Answer: Affective instability
Correct Answer: Dissociative symptoms
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder often presents with stress-related dissociation as a prominent symptom. Dissociation refers to a disturbance of interruption in the typical functioning of various cognitive processes, including consciousness, perception, attention, memory, and identity. This can manifest as feelings of detachment from oneself (depersonalization) of the surroundings (derealization), which may seem surreal, hazy, of insignificant. Memory disturbances can range from difficulty recalling information to complete dissociative amnesia.
Personality Disorder (Borderline)
History and Terminology
The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.
Features
The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.
Abuse
Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.
comorbidity
Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.
Psychological Therapy
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.
NICE Guidelines
The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What factor is most likely to trigger a seizure in a patient with epilepsy?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Out of the given options, Amitriptyline (TCA) is classified as high risk while the others are categorized as either moderate of low risk.
Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is not a consistent predictor of a poor outcome in schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Comorbid depressive disorder
Explanation:Schizophrenia Prognosis: Factors Predicting Poor Outcome
Several factors have been identified that predict a poor outcome for individuals with schizophrenia. These include being male, having an early age of onset, experiencing a prolonged period of untreated illness, and having severe cognitive and negative symptoms. These symptoms can include difficulties with memory, attention, and decision-making, as well as a lack of motivation, emotional expression, and social functioning. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia to receive early and effective treatment to improve their chances of a better outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a fellow officer was killed in the line of duty. She describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 3 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment approach is cognitive-behavioral therapy that specifically targets trauma.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm?
Your Answer: Most people who self harm do not meet criteria for a psychiatric diagnosis at the time they are assessed
Correct Answer: All children who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and assessed the following day
Explanation:The NICE Guidelines from 2004 provide several recommendations regarding self-harm. It is advised that harm minimisation strategies should not be offered for those who have self-harmed by poisoning, as there are no safe limits for this type of self-harm. Children and young people who have self-harmed should be admitted overnight to a paediatric ward and fully assessed the following day before any further treatment of care is initiated. The admitting team should also obtain parental consent for mental health assessment of the child of young person. For individuals with borderline personality disorder who self-harm, dialectical behaviour therapy may be considered. It is important to note that most individuals who seek emergency department care following self-harm will meet criteria for one of more psychiatric diagnoses at the time of assessment, with depression being the most common diagnosis. However, within 12-16 months, two-thirds of those diagnosed with depression will no longer meet diagnostic criteria.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A man in his 30s was brought to the accident and emergency department in an acute psychotic state, 3 weeks after the European Union referendum results in the UK were declared.
His mental health had deteriorated rapidly following the announcement of the results, with significant concerns about Brexit. He presented as agitated, confused and thought disordered. He had auditory hallucinations, and paranoid, referential, misidentification and bizarre delusions.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient? He recovered completely within 2 weeks after a brief admission and treatment with olanzapine.Your Answer: Acute and transient psychotic disorder
Explanation:The sudden appearance of symptoms without a preceding prodrome indicates an acute and temporary psychotic disorder, rather than the milder experiences observed in schizotypal disorder.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A 40 year old man comes to you with a complaint of feeling down for the past 2 months, waking up early in the morning and having a decreased appetite. His wife mentions that he has stopped taking care of himself, but is still drinking enough fluids. She believes this is due to their child being diagnosed with cancer. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having strange beliefs and hearing things that aren't there.
What course of action would you suggest in this situation?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant with an antipsychotic
Explanation:The symptoms displayed by the man suggest that he may be suffering from psychotic depression. However, since he is still able to eat and drink, ECT should not be considered as a treatment option at this point. Instead, other approaches should be explored and if they prove ineffective, ECT may be considered later on.
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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You are asked to evaluate a patient who has just begun taking clozapine. The nurse is worried about his fever and tachycardia, which have persisted for a few hours. The patient reports experiencing some chest discomfort. What is your suspicion regarding his condition?
Your Answer: Myocarditis
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A young adult with schizophrenia, started on clozapine, shows only partial improvement and continues to experience symptoms. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Augment with olanzapine
Correct Answer: Augment with sodium valproate
Explanation:Out of the options provided, only sodium valproate is a recognized method for augmentation.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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What is a biological characteristic of depression?
Your Answer: Reduced appetite
Explanation:Depression (Biological Symptoms)
Depression can be classified into biological (physical) of psychological symptoms. The terms used to describe biological symptoms include somatic, vital, melancholic, and endogenomorphic. These terms are used interchangeably in exams, so it is important to be familiar with them.
Biological symptoms of depression include decreased appetite, weight loss, lack of emotional reactivity, anhedonia, early morning waking, depression worse in the mornings, psychomotor changes (retardation and agitation), fatigue, reduced libido, constipation, and insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Hypersensitivity to insults
Correct Answer: Unusual perceptual disturbances
Explanation:Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by atypical perceptual experiences.
Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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What structure has been linked to the development of post traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Explanation:Aetiology of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing of witnessing a traumatic event. The aetiology of PTSD is complex and involves various factors, including changes in cortisol levels and alterations in brain structures.
Studies have shown that individuals with PTSD have lower ambient cortisol levels than normal, which has been attributed to chronic adrenal exhaustion resulting from the inhibition of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis by persistent severe anxiety. This suggests that the stress response system in individuals with PTSD may be dysregulated, leading to abnormal cortisol levels.
Two brain structures, the amygdala and the hippocampus, have also been implicated in the aetiology of PTSD. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, particularly fear, and is hyperactive in individuals with PTSD. This hyperactivity may contribute to the intense fear and anxiety experienced by individuals with PTSD. The hippocampus, which is involved in memory processing, is also affected in individuals with PTSD. Studies have shown that the hippocampus is smaller in individuals with PTSD, which may contribute to the difficulty in recalling traumatic events and the intrusive memories associated with PTSD.
Overall, the aetiology of PTSD is multifactorial and involves changes in cortisol levels and alterations in brain structures, particularly the amygdala and hippocampus. Understanding these underlying mechanisms is crucial for developing effective treatments for individuals with PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which intervention would be most likely to decrease a patient's alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:Vigabatrin, an AED, is recognized for its ability to decrease AST and ALT levels, but it is also associated with the development of visual field impairments.
Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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What is a true statement about anorexia nervosa as defined by the ICD-11?
Your Answer: Laxative abuse is more common among females than in males
Explanation:Females are more likely to abuse laxatives, while males are more likely to engage in excessive exercise. Anorexia Nervosa typically develops earlier in females than in males. The prognosis for adolescents diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa is generally better than for adults. Anorexia Nervosa can involve both bingeing and purging, and the ICD-11 recognizes two patterns: the ‘restricting pattern’ and the ‘binge-purge pattern’. Indications of preoccupation with weight and shape may not always be explicitly reported, but can be inferred from behaviors such as frequent weighing, measuring body shape, monitoring calorie intake, of avoiding certain clothing of mirrors. Such indirect evidence can support a diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI below 13?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Explanation:According to the MARSIPAN guidelines, individuals with anorexia and a BMI below 13 should be placed on 24-hour bed rest and given careful consideration for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis. This recommendation is outlined in the October 2010 College Report CR 162, which was jointly produced by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and the Royal College of Physicians in London.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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Which medication is most likely to reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Mood stabilisers and contraception: Some anticonvulsants/mood stabilisers can interfere with contraception, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, and topiramate. However, others like valproate, lamotrigine, gabapentin, and lithium do not tend to cause this problem and are preferred for women using contraception. It is important to note that valproate should only be used in girls and women of childbearing potential if other treatments are ineffective of not tolerated, as judged by an experienced specialist. Additionally, valproate is contraindicated in girls and women of childbearing potential unless the conditions of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme (‘prevent’) are met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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Which medication is not recommended by NICE for individuals with panic disorder?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Prescribing benzodiazepines for individuals with panic disorder is not recommended as it is linked to a poorer long-term outcome.
Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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What is a correct statement about the epidemiological catchment area study?
Your Answer: The survey instrument used was the Diagnostic Interview Schedule
Explanation:The DIS was the survey instrument used in the Epidemiological Catchment Area Study, which was conducted in the United States.
Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey
The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.
However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.
The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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What factor increases the risk of liver damage after taking paracetamol?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Individuals suffering from anorexia may have depleted levels of glutathione, which are responsible for conjugating benzoquinoneimine, the primary hepatotoxic metabolite of paracetamol.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals with bipolar disorder and psychosis?
Your Answer: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions
Explanation:Bipolar disorder with psychosis typically displays noticeable mood symptoms, including heightened mood and restlessness, accompanied by delusions that align with the mood, such as grandiose delusions. In contrast, schizophrenia typically exhibits non-prominent mood symptoms and delusions that do not align with the mood, often being neutral of opposite to it.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is recommended by NICE guidelines to be provided to children diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Family therapy
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) suggests that family therapy with a focus on anorexia nervosa is a recommended treatment for children and adolescents who have been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What would be an appropriate treatment option for a patient with panic disorder who has been taking citalopram for four months without improvement and is interested in trying a different medication?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:After a 12 week trial of an SSRI with no improvement, NICE recommends switching to a different type of antidepressant such as imipramine of clomipramine.
Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the difference between rapid-cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder?
Your Answer: Rapid cycling tends to develop late in the course of the bipolar disorder
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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As a healthcare provider, you are discussing the possibility of ECT treatment with a middle-aged patient who has treatment-resistant depression. The patient is concerned about potential cognitive side effects of the treatment. Which cognitive side effect should you prioritize in your counseling with this patient?
Your Answer: The chance of anterograde amnesia during the treatment period
Correct Answer: The possibility of retrograde amnesia affecting all parts of long term memory
Explanation:ECT can result in permanent memory loss for at least one third of patients, with more recent events being more affected. Anterograde amnesia during ECT treatment is common, but unlikely to cause long term disability. Both implicit and explicit memory can be affected by ECT, although some patients may experience memory improvement if they respond well to the treatment. It is important for patients to be informed about the possibility of long term memory impairment as a significant side effect of ECT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Correct
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What is a true statement about the epidemiology of schizophrenia?
Your Answer: There is no direct evidence supporting stress as a causal agent in the development of schizophrenia
Explanation:While stress has been found to worsen schizophrenia and other mental illnesses, it is not considered a direct cause. It is important to note the distinction between exacerbating factors and causative factors. For more information on causality, refer to the Bradford Hill criteria.
Precipitating Factors of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can be triggered by various factors. Stress is one of the factors that can cause relapse in individuals who are genetically predisposed to developing schizophrenia. Stressful life events and expressed emotion can also contribute to the onset of the condition. Substance misuse is another factor that can precipitate schizophrenia in vulnerable individuals. However, there is no direct evidence to support its role as a causal factor in the disorder. Despite the increase in cannabis consumption over the last three decades, the rates of schizophrenia have not increased, indicating that it is not a significant causal factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is the approximate occurrence rate of bulimia nervosa among individuals in the general population?
Your Answer: 2-3%
Correct Answer: 0.5-1%
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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A young mother with a history of bipolar disorder is currently nursing her infant. She is experiencing symptoms of mania. What course of action would you recommend in this scenario?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 35
Correct
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A recent meta-analysis examining the effectiveness of medication in treating PTSD discovered which treatments to be supported by evidence?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:There is limited evidence suggesting that fluoxetine, paroxetine, and venlafaxine may be effective in treating PTSD, while SSRIs as a whole were found to be more effective than placebo. However, trials involving sertraline did not show any evidence of efficacy, and there is no evidence supporting the use of other drug treatments. Additionally, brofaromine is a type of reversible MAOi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
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As a healthcare AI language model, I cannot provide medical advice of recommendations. It is important to consult with a qualified healthcare professional who can assess the patient's individual needs and medical history to determine the best course of treatment.
Your Answer: Amisulpride
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:One of the notable side effects of olanzapine is its potential to induce diabetes.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 37
Correct
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What is true about the 2014 Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey?
Your Answer: People in prisons were not included in the sample
Explanation:The APMS has a significant drawback in that it solely relies on household data and does not incorporate data from institutions like prisons.
Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey
The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS), also known as the National Psychiatric Morbidity Survey, is conducted every 7 years to monitor the prevalence of mental illness and access to treatment in the general population of England. The survey obtains a stratified random sample representative of the population living in private households by using postcodes. The information is gathered through questionnaires and interviews to screen for a range of mental disorders and risk factors. However, the survey does not collect data on individuals under the age of 16. The study does not include people living in institutional settings such as prisons of care homes, of those who are homeless of living in temporary housing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Correct
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According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a child developing schizophrenia if they have an affected parent?
Your Answer: 13%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old marathon runner who is currently training for a regional race requests to meet with the team physician due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling a numbness below her knee. Upon examination, the physician observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. After conducting further investigations, which all come back normal, the physician concludes that the symptoms are not consistent with neurological disease. During a discussion with the patient's parents, the physician learns that the patient recently lost her sister in a tragic accident. Despite this, the patient appears strangely indifferent to her symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis at this point?
Your Answer: Malingering
Correct Answer: Dissociative neurological symptom disorder
Explanation:Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the classification of dysthymic disorder according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer: A duration of at least 1 year of symptoms is required for a diagnosis in adults
Correct Answer: Brief periods of normal mood may occur, but these cannot exceed two months to be consistent with a diagnosis
Explanation:Dysthymia is a type of mood disorder characterized by persistent low-grade depressive symptoms that last for at least two years. Although there may be brief periods without symptoms, there has never been a prolonged period of two months of more without symptoms since the onset of the disorder. While treatment for dysthymia can be effective, the results may be modest and short-lived, and the course of the disorder can be challenging. Dysthymia often begins in childhood of adolescence and is associated with a higher likelihood of substance misuse and co-occurring personality disorders, particularly when onset occurs before the age of 21. Co-occurring disorders are common in individuals with dysthymia.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the safest option to use during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about lamotrigine?
Your Answer: It cannot be used in people with hepatic impairment
Correct Answer: Valproate increases lamotrigine concentrations more than 2-fold
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
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Which atypical antipsychotic was excluded from phase I of the CATIE study?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:The study incorporated clozapine during its second phase.
CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment
The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.
Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.
The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.
Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.
The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A man in his 50s with breast cancer has developed moderate depression. He is on tamoxifen treatment. Which antidepressant should be avoided?
Your Answer: Moclobemide
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:The use of tamoxifen should not be combined with paroxetine and fluoxetine as it may decrease its effectiveness.
Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.
Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
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What is the impact of lithium on the white blood cell count?
Your Answer: It causes an acute reduction in the neutrophil count
Correct Answer: Neutrophil levels are increased
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, what term is used to describe a state of mania without depression?
Your Answer: Bipolar I
Correct Answer: Bipolar VI
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes
Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.
In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.
Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.
Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).
Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Correct
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What is the accurate diagnosis and classification of bipolar disorder as per the ICD-11?
Your Answer: A diagnosis of bipolar II cannot be applied if there has ever been a manic episode regardless of the current presentation
Explanation:To receive a diagnosis of bipolar II, it is necessary to never have experienced a manic episode. Rapid cycling can be present in both bipolar I and II. Most individuals who experience mania will have recurring mood episodes. A diagnosis of bipolar I only requires the presence of mania, not depression. Cyclothymia is characterized by mood instability lasting for at least two years.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 48
Correct
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A manic adolescent who has already had 3 manic episodes in the past 10 months is admitted to hospital for treatment. He is currently taking both lithium and valproate at maximum dose. Which of the following would be appropriate as an augmentation agent?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing mania, it is important to avoid administering antidepressants such as dosulepin, moclobemide, and tranylcypromine as they may exacerbate the condition. Instead, the Maudsley recommends the use of quetiapine and other appropriate medications.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the recommended treatment by NICE for an adult patient with bipolar disorder who does not respond to lithium monotherapy for prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Consider olanzapine plus valproate
Correct Answer: Consider lithium plus valproate
Explanation:Adding valproate should be carefully considered, especially for women who are capable of bearing children. The potential benefits of the medication should be weighed against the risks that may arise if the woman becomes pregnant.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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What is the estimated percentage of individuals in Great Britain who have a personality disorder?
Your Answer: 4.40%
Explanation:Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis
A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.
DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).
Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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