-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
An asymptomatic 63-year-old man is found to have an irregular pulse during a routine check-up. A 12-lead ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 106bpm. He is not taking any regular medications and his blood and urine tests are normal. The physician prescribes bisoprolol to manage his condition.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's atrial fibrillation?Your Answer: Offer a direct-acting oral anticoagulant
Correct Answer: Do not offer anticoagulation
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, anticoagulation should be considered for individuals with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1 or greater for men and 2 or greater for women to assess stroke risk in atrial fibrillation. As the patient’s score is 1, anticoagulation is not currently indicated. However, this will need to be reassessed if the patient reaches the age of 65 or develops other criteria such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, stroke/TIA, or vascular disease. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants are the first-line choice for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, unless contraindicated or not suitable. Low molecular weight heparin is not a suitable choice for anticoagulation in this case. Warfarin may be considered as a second-line option if anticoagulation is required but a direct oral anticoagulant is not suitable or tolerated.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a temperature of 38.2°C, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and a croupy cough. There is no intercostal recession.
What is the most appropriate treatment for him? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Croup: Choosing the Right Approach
Croup is a common respiratory illness in children that can cause coughing, difficulty breathing, and other symptoms. When it comes to treating croup, there are several options available, but not all of them are appropriate for every child. Here’s a breakdown of some common treatment options and when they might be used:
Oral Dexamethasone: For mild-to-moderate croup, a single oral dose of dexamethasone is often the best choice. This medication can help reduce inflammation in the airways and alleviate symptoms. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide may be used instead.
Nebulised Epinephrine: For children with moderate-to-severe distress, nebulised epinephrine can be effective in reducing swelling in the trachea. However, this treatment only lasts for a few hours, so close monitoring is necessary.
Inhaling Humidified Air: While inhaling humidified air may help reduce a child’s anxiety, there is little evidence to suggest that it provides any significant symptomatic relief.
IM Hydrocortisone: IM hydrocortisone is not typically used to treat croup. However, IM dexamethasone may be used as an alternative to oral dexamethasone.
Nebulised Salbutamol: Salbutamol is not an appropriate treatment for croup, as it is typically used to treat asthma.
In summary, the best treatment for croup will depend on the severity of the child’s symptoms and their overall health. If you suspect that your child has croup, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure that they receive the appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman patient of yours has epilepsy. Her epilepsy is under reasonable control but she still has occasional seizures - mainly during the night but occasionally during the day. You notice that she has driven herself to your surgery for an appointment.
What should be your first step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cancel the appointment and tell her to go home
Explanation:Explaining Driving Rules for Epilepsy
The first step in addressing a loved one’s epilepsy and driving is to explain the rules regarding driving and epilepsy. It is important to ensure that she is aware of the regulations and the potential risks involved. If she decides to continue driving despite being informed of the rules, it is necessary to take further action.
One option is to inform the DVLA of the situation. This will help to ensure that the appropriate measures are taken to protect both the driver and other road users. Additionally, it may be necessary to warn the individual that the police may need to be notified for her own safety and the safety of others. By taking these steps, you can help to ensure that your loved one is safe and that the rules regarding driving and epilepsy are being followed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you. She is on day 12 of her menstrual cycle and is currently relying on condoms for protection. Sophie assures you that there is no possibility of her being pregnant. She wants to know if she needs to use additional protection if she gets the copper coil inserted today, and if so, for how long?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No extra protection needed
Explanation:As the copper coil provides immediate effectiveness, there is no need for additional protection.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 71-year-old man presents with progressive gait disturbance and fluctuating confusion. His symptoms began about six months ago when he noticed a heaviness in his legs on walking to work. Since then, his handwriting has become more untidy. His wife reports that he has become increasingly forgetful at home, although he denies this. Over the last two months, he has become restless at night and has reported seeing unidentified objects moving on the walls and in the room. On examination, his Mini-Mental State Examination score is 24/30. He is symmetrically rigid and slow, with a mild, jerky tremor in the upper limbs. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. His gait is shuffling, with mildly impaired postural reflexes.
The accumulation of which protein causes the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-synuclein
Explanation:Neurodegenerative Disorders and Associated Proteins
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and sleep disturbances. It is caused by the accumulation of alpha-synuclein into Lewy bodies in vulnerable neurons.
Beta-amyloid plaques are insoluble and associated with Alzheimer’s disease. They can be detected in the brain before diagnosis and have subtle effects on cognition.
Prions are abnormal proteins that induce abnormal folding of other proteins. They are difficult to inactivate and can cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.
Tau proteins are microtubule-binding proteins associated with local neurodegeneration and cognitive impairment. They are seen in Alzheimer’s disease as flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles.
Overall, DLB is a good differential diagnosis for vascular dementia, but the clinical picture is more suggestive of DLB.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman is HIV positive and takes antiretroviral therapy. What should she be offered annually in primary care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options listed
Explanation:Managing HIV in Primary Care: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with HIV are at an increased risk of cardiovascular disease, and antiretroviral therapy can further increase the risk of diabetes and dyslipidaemia. Women with HIV are also more susceptible to human papillomavirus-related diseases and should undergo annual cervical screening. To ensure good sexual health and maintain protective sexual behavior, patients should have access to staff trained to carry out a sexual history and sexual health assessment, as well as counseling and support. Additionally, patients should be offered a full sexual health screen annually. Despite concerns about contraindications, the influenza vaccine is safe for patients with HIV as it is an inactivated virus. These guidelines aim to support primary care teams in managing the unique considerations and risks associated with HIV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a complaint of visual disturbance. Upon examination, the doctor observes a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman presents as an emergency appointment with recurrent attacks of chest tightness and palpitations. She was advised to seek immediate attention should a recurrence occur. She reports feeling unwell while out shopping, experiencing chest tightness, rapid palpitations, sweating, lightheadedness, and pins and needles in her fingers. She is unsure what triggers these episodes. Her past medical history includes treatment for asthma and anxiety following her divorce a few years ago. She appears pale and sweaty, with a rapid regular pulse of 122 beats per minute and blood pressure of 220/115 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and she has a slight fine tremor. Urine dipstick testing reveals glycosuria+++, nitrites and leucocytes are negative. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Diagnosing Chest Tightness and Palpitations in Primary Care
Symptoms of chest tightness and palpitations are common in primary care, but diagnosing the underlying cause can be challenging. Episodic symptoms often require catching the symptoms during an attack to make an accurate diagnosis. Patients may describe a previous attack, but positive examination findings are often lacking when they are asymptomatic. Therefore, history is crucial, and patients should seek review when experiencing symptoms.
In this case, the patient presented with high blood pressure, tachycardia, and glycosuria during an attack. The episodic nature of the symptoms suggested panic attacks, phaeochromocytoma, or a paroxysmal tachyarrhythmia such as Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, WPW typically causes paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and would not cause glycosuria. Panic attacks would not cause glycosuria, and the severity of the hypertension would go against this diagnosis. Phaeochromocytoma unifies the history and clinical features and is the underlying disorder.
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that produces catecholamines and causes episodes of hypertension, chest tightness, sweating, tremor, and flushing. Glycosuria occurs in approximately 30% of patients during an attack. Diagnosis is made by a 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines, and surgical removal is the treatment of choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis is incorrect for elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The risk of breast cancer may be reduced by Raloxifene.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
You come across a 27-year-old male patient who complains of a painful red right eye. He mentions that the eye has been watering and he feels that his vision has worsened in the right eye. The pain has been persistent for approximately 4 days now, and he recalls that it started with a rash around his eye. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He wears glasses and doesn't use contact lenses.
Upon examination, you observe that the acuity in the right eye has decreased and it appears diffusely red. The pupils are equal and reactive. You notice some crusted lesions along the lid margin. After staining the eye, you see a dendritic looking lesion which is enhanced by the staining.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex ophthalmicus
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a red, painful eye with discharge, decreased acuity, and a dendritic ulcer on staining is herpes simplex ophthalmicus. It is crucial to refer all suspected cases of ophthalmic herpes to an ophthalmology clinic for immediate evaluation.
Although a corneal abrasion could also cause staining, the presence of lesions on the eyelid makes a dendritic ulcer more likely to be caused by herpes infection.
Blepharitis, which causes eyelid inflammation, typically presents with burning and itching, and both eyelids sticking together. There would be no abnormality on staining the eye.
Episcleritis, characterized by segmental redness, normal vision, normal pupil reactions, and no abnormality on corneal staining, is another possible differential diagnosis.
Anterior uveitis, which causes inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, presents with a red, painful eye, reduced vision, flashes/floaters, and abnormal pupil shape or size. The presence of cells in the aqueous humour is a characteristic sign. The pain is not as severe as scleritis.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.
Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.
Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).
There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.
Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain
The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with an advanced brain tumour. You review his notes and see that he received radiotherapy and chemotherapy but these failed to have a significant impact. He is being treated palliatively.
He complains of persistent nausea and has vomited on a couple of occasions over the last few days. He also complains of bouts of vertigo.
Which of the following antiemetics is most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levomepromazine
Explanation:Antiemetics in Palliative Care
A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be identified to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For instance, a patient with cerebral disease and co-existent vertigo may benefit from an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine, which has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Nausea and vomiting due to drugs or toxins and metabolic causes, such as hypercalcemia, may respond best to haloperidol. Levomepromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic usually used as a second-line agent when other first-line antiemetics have not been effective. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic and can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist and acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. It is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.
In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for a patient in palliative care depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting an antiemetic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with breast cancer. Her oncologist has recommended starting anastrozole due to the cancer being oestrogen-receptor positive. You are asked to discuss bone health with the patient.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
As an out of hours GP, you are presented with a 75-year-old man named John who complains of worsening pain in his right eye over the past 12 hours. He reports slight blurriness in his vision that clears on blinking but denies any other symptoms. John has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and bilateral cataracts, and he underwent surgery for his right cataract 4 days ago. His left eye cataract surgery was uncomplicated and occurred 10 weeks ago. During the examination, you observe redness and purulent discharge. John mentions that his eye has been sticky and wonders if his recent visit to his 6-year-old granddaughter, who had conjunctivitis, could be the cause of his current condition.
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same day referral to ophthalmologist
Explanation:postoperative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication of cataract surgery that requires urgent treatment. It can have an infectious or non-infectious cause and should be considered in patients who experience acute pain, redness, visual loss, discharge, or photophobia after eye surgery. Due to the potential for vision loss, patients should be referred to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Prescribing prednisolone eye drops may worsen the condition if it is infectious, and chloramphenicol eye drops may delay specialist ophthalmology review and treatment. Referring the patient to be seen in two weeks is not appropriate due to the potential for visual morbidity. While optometrists can refer patients to ophthalmologists, referral to an ophthalmologist should be made without delay.
Understanding Cataracts
A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.
Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A survey is conducted to determine the satisfaction level of customers with the new online ordering system, rating it out of 10. The scores obtained are: 9, 5, 3, 8, 7, 6, 4, 9. What is the median score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6.5
Explanation:Understanding Descriptive Statistics
Descriptive statistics are a set of tools used to summarize and describe data. One of the most commonly used descriptive statistics is the mean, which is the average of a series of observed values. Another important statistic is the median, which is the middle value when a series of observed values are placed in order. The mode is the value that occurs most frequently within a dataset. Finally, the range is the difference between the largest and smallest observed value.
In summary, descriptive statistics provide a way to understand and communicate important information about a dataset. By calculating the mean, median, mode, and range, researchers can gain insights into the central tendency and variability of their data. These statistics can be used to identify patterns, trends, and outliers, and can help researchers make informed decisions based on their findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
What vaccinations would you suggest for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in the process of separating from his son's mother, and they have been married for twenty-five years.
What is the most appropriate action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seek consent from the son, and if he is competent, disclose only information that is not prejudicial to a third party with his consent
Explanation:Confidential Medical Records for Adolescents
When it comes to disclosing confidential medical records of a 15-year-old adolescent, it is important to consider their maturity level. If they are deemed ‘Gillick’ competent, then their decision to disclose or withhold their medical record should be respected. However, practitioners must carefully review any third-party information and any information that may cause harm to an individual’s physical or mental health. If necessary, this information can be withheld under the Data Protection Act 1998. It is crucial to handle confidential medical records with care to protect the privacy and well-being of adolescents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest HbA1c result. It has gone up to 66 mmol/mol since the last check. She is already taking metformin and gliclazide. You advise adding in a third blood glucose lowering drug, and agree on trying canagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. You counsel her that it will cause a slight increase in urine volume and risk of urinary and genital infections, including rare reports of Fournier's gangrene, but that it can have beneficial side effects of weight loss and possibly improves cardiovascular outcomes. You also mention that the MHRA have issued an alert about an uncommon but important possible hazard of treatment with SGLT2 inhibitors.
What specific aspect of routine diabetes care is crucial in preventing or detecting this potential side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foot check
Explanation:Patients taking canagliflozin should have their legs and feet closely monitored for ulcers or infection due to the possible increased risk of amputation. It is important for these patients to attend regular foot checks and practice good foot care. Eye screening, influenza vaccination, and shingles vaccination are not affected by SGLT2 inhibitors and should be attended as normal.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old Caucasian female presents with tiredness to her general practitioner. She has gained a little weight of late and during the last year has become increasingly tired. She has a history of asthma for which she takes inhaled salbutamol on an as required basis (usually no more than once a week) and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 172/98 mmHg, a body mass index of 29.7 kg/m2, and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. There are no other abnormalities of note. Her blood pressure recordings over the next month are 180/96, 176/90 and 178/100 mmHg.
Which of the following drugs would you recommend for the treatment of this patient's blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Hypertension Treatment in Type 2 Diabetes Patients
This patient with type 2 diabetes has sustained hypertension and requires treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.
However, bendroflumethiazide may provoke an attack of gout in patients with a history of gout. Beta-blockers should be avoided for the routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can also precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In situations where there is no suitable alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist. The patient should be monitored closely for adverse effects.
Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and individual needs when selecting a treatment plan for hypertension in type 2 diabetes patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has self-diagnosed an early pregnancy by self-testing. She immediately tells her General Practitioner (GP) she wants a termination of pregnancy. The GP has religious beliefs that lead to a moral objection to abortion.
What should the GP do in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explain that their beliefs prevent them, personally, from facilitating onward care for this specific issue
Explanation:Navigating Personal Beliefs in Medical Practice: Handling Conflicts with Duty of Care in Termination of Pregnancy
As healthcare professionals, doctors are bound by their duty of care to provide appropriate medical treatment to their patients. However, personal beliefs can sometimes come into conflict with this duty, particularly in cases of termination of pregnancy. The General Medical Council’s Good Medical Practice (2013) allows doctors to practice medicine in accordance with their beliefs, as long as they do not treat patients unfairly, deny them access to appropriate medical treatment or services, or cause them distress.
If a doctor’s personal beliefs prevent them from facilitating onward care for a patient seeking termination of pregnancy, there are several options available. The doctor can gently explain their conscientious objection to the procedure, but must not delay appropriate treatment or cause the patient distress. They can decline to continue with the consultation, but must still fully assess the patient’s needs and signpost them to another clinician for review if necessary. Alternatively, they can complete the consultation and refer the patient for termination of pregnancy, ensuring that the patient is treated fairly and respectfully and signposted to another clinician who can help.
Regardless of the chosen course of action, the doctor must not express disapproval of the patient’s choice or imply judgment of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to navigate personal beliefs in medical practice with sensitivity and respect for the patient’s autonomy and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A receptionist at your practice is asked to help out in clearing a storage room of old records to make way for a new treatment room. During the course of her duties, whilst lifting a heavy box, she hurts her back. The resulting incapacitation from this injury leads to time off sick from work.
According to Health & Safety law, for what length of time would she need to be incapacitated for you to REPORT the incident in your RIDDOR records?
If the receptionist was injured and incapacitated for how many days would you need to report the incident in your RIDDOR records?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Understanding RIDDOR Reporting Thresholds
Health and safety questions in AKT exams often catch candidates off guard, as they may not be familiar with the information being tested. One area that frequently causes confusion is the reporting threshold for incidents under RIDDOR, the law that requires employers and others in control of work premises to report and keep records of work-related accidents, certain serious injuries, diagnosed industrial diseases, and dangerous occurrences.
It’s important to note that we’re specifically asking about the threshold for reporting, not just recording, an incident. Reportable injuries are those that cause an employee or self-employed person to be away from work or unable to perform their normal duties for more than seven consecutive days, not counting the day of the accident.
To clarify, if an employee sustains a work-related injury and is incapacitated for three days, the incident should be recorded. However, if they are incapacitated for seven days or more, the incident must be reported. Understanding these thresholds is crucial for complying with RIDDOR and ensuring the safety of employees in the workplace.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 42-year-old woman who has a long history of fibromyalgia and chronic pain. She comes to see you to discuss medicinal cannabis. She has been reading online about the use of bedrocan in chronic pain and is keen to know if you are able to prescribe it for her.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise that this medication may only be prescribed by a specialist, and offer a referral
Explanation:According to current guidelines, doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register are the only ones allowed to prescribe unlicensed cannabis-based products. They should only prescribe these products for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines. Bedrocan is an unlicensed cannabis-based product that can be prescribed by specialists in line with current evidence and guidance. Therefore, it is recommended to refer the patient to a specialist for consideration, rather than prescribing it yourself. Nabilone, a synthetic cannabinoid, is licensed for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and is not suitable for this scenario. It is not safe to advise the patient to purchase an unlicensed medication online, and there is no reason to involve the police.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability. A diagnosis of mania is made. Select from the list the possibility that she may experience a similar episode later on in life.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Symptoms, Prognosis, and Long-Term Effects
Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that affects many individuals, typically first appearing in their third decade of life. The disorder is characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania, which can be followed by periods of depression. While recovery from an individual episode is possible, the long-term prognosis for those with bipolar disorder is often poorer than expected. Studies have shown that individuals with bipolar disorder can expect to experience an average of ten further episodes of mood disturbance over a 25-year period. As the number of episodes increases and individuals age, the time between episodes tends to shorten. It is important to understand that bipolar disorder is a chronic, lifelong illness that requires ongoing management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy presents with a temperature of 39oC. He attends a morning surgery. The mother reports improvement with paracetamol, but this has worn off and he is miserable again. He looks flushed, but there are no focal symptoms or signs. He is not dehydrated, and there are no other worrying features.
What is the most appropriate management option at this time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs and review at the evening surgery
Explanation:Antipyretic Drugs and Safety-Netting for Fever in Children: A Review at the Evening Surgery
Fever in children can be a cause for concern, and it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting to parents or carers. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that a temperature of 39°C or more in a child aged 3–6 months is an amber (intermediate) risk sign, and in a child aged 0–3 months, 38°C or more is red (high risk). If any ‘amber’ features are present and no diagnosis has been reached, it is important to provide a safety net or refer the child to specialist paediatric care for further assessment.
Reviewing the child later in the day is appropriate safety-netting and is preferred to immediate admission. The cause of the fever may be viral and self-limiting, and antipyretic drugs such as paracetamol and ibuprofen may be the only treatment needed. It is also important to provide advice on the most likely course of the illness and symptoms to look out for if the child’s condition worsens.
However, admitting the child to the hospital is only necessary if there is any suggestion of an immediately life-threatening illness or if the child had any ‘red flag’ features. Intramuscular penicillin and admission to the hospital are not indicated unless there are symptoms or signs to suggest meningococcal disease in the patient.
Prescribing amoxicillin is also not necessary unless a bacterial cause for the infection has been found on examination. Instead, it is important to provide appropriate safety-netting and review the child in a timely manner to ensure their well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.
Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.
To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.
Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old girl presents at the antenatal clinic.
She is approximately six weeks pregnant and the pregnancy was unplanned. She has a two year history of grand mal epilepsy for which she takes carbamazepine. She has had no fits for approximately six months. She wants to continue with her pregnancy if it is safe to do so.
She is worried about the anticonvulsant therapy and its effects on the baby. She asks how she should be managed.
Which of the following management plans is the most appropriate in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the patient and fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants may fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Prior to delivery, the mother should receive vitamin K. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea, and headache. She experiences these symptoms two to three times a month, and the pain is so severe that she has to lie down for hours. Paracetamol and ibuprofen do not provide relief. Upon examination, her neurological features and blood pressure are normal. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence treatment with sumatriptan
Explanation:Differentiating Treatment Options for Headaches: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
When it comes to treating headaches, it’s important to accurately diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide the most effective treatment. Here are some common scenarios and the appropriate course of action:
1. Commence treatment with sumatriptan: This is the recommended course of action for patients experiencing migraines, particularly if first-line treatments like paracetamol or NSAIDs have been ineffective. Prophylactic agents like propranolol may also be necessary for frequent migraines.
2. Commence treatment with high-dose steroids: This is the appropriate treatment for patients with giant-cell arteritis, which typically presents with a temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. GCA is rare in patients under 60.
3. Commence treatment with sodium valproate: This medication is not recommended for migraine prophylaxis, and should be avoided in women of childbearing age due to its teratogenicity. First-line agents for migraine prophylaxis include propranolol, topiramate, and amitriptyline.
4. Refer for a computed tomography (CT) head and lumbar puncture scan: This is indicated for patients suspected of having a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which typically presents with a sudden-onset, occipital, thunderclap headache.
5. Refer for an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan: This is necessary when there is progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function, which could indicate an underlying tumor. This is not indicated in patients with typical migraine symptoms.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients with headaches.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma treatment. She is currently using salbutamol inhaler as needed and Symbicort 100/6 (budesonide 100 micrograms/formoterol 6 micrograms) two puffs twice a day. She has been using these inhalers for the past six months. Before that, she was using salbutamol as needed and budesonide 200 micrograms twice a day. The Symbicort was added to her regimen to include a long-acting beta2 agonist as she was using her salbutamol once or twice a day. Despite the addition of the long-acting beta2 agonist, she still experiences occasional tightness in her chest and nighttime coughing. She uses her salbutamol inhaler an average of three to four times a week. Her parents confirm that she is compliant with her inhalers and her inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate management plan for her current asthma treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist to her current treatment
Explanation:Treatment Ladder for Asthma in a 9-Year-Old Child
Here we have a 9-year-old child with asthma who is currently on a regular inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + long acting beta2 agonist (LABA) combination inhaler and salbutamol as needed. Despite some improvement with the regular inhaled ICS+LABA, the child is still requiring salbutamol quite frequently.
To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the best recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step would be to trial a leukotriene receptor antagonist. If the addition of the LABA had not yielded any clinical benefit, then it should be stopped. However, since it has proved to be somewhat helpful, it should be continued.
In summary, the treatment ladder for asthma in a 9-year-old child involves gradually increasing the level of medication until symptoms are controlled. The addition of a leukotriene receptor antagonist may be the next step in this process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)