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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma

      Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.

      Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual review. He currently takes a combination of 5 mg ramipril and 5 mg amlodipine once a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Creatinine (Cr) 142 µmol/l 59–104 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 63 ml/min < 90 ml/min
      Urine albumin : creatine (ACR) ratio 80 mg/mmol < 3.0 mg/mmol
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: A BP treatment goal of < 130/80 mmHg is indicated for patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol)

      Explanation:

      For patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol), the goal for blood pressure treatment is to keep it below 130/80 mmHg. In cases of chronic kidney disease (CKD), where the patient has a high Cr level and ACR, the aim is to keep systolic BP below 140 mmHg and diastolic BP below 90 mmHg. However, for patients with CKD and diabetes, or an ACR of > 70 mg/mmol, the target is slightly lower, with systolic BP below 130 mmHg and diastolic BP below 80 mmHg.

      Contrary to popular belief, ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated for patients with only one kidney. In fact, patients with a single kidney are more prone to renal impairment and should be considered for ACE-inhibitor treatment.

      While it was previously recommended that patients with proteinuria consume a high-protein diet to replace urinary losses, recent studies have shown that a low-protein diet can reduce the death rate in those with CKD. However, a prescribed/modified protein intake of 0.75 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients with stage 4–5 CKD not on dialysis, and 1.2 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients treated with dialysis, is now suggested.

      It is important to note that the result measured by laboratories is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which assumes standard body surface area and race. Patients who have had amputations or other physical differences could receive inaccurate results. Additionally, an eGFR level of between 60 and 89 ml/min can signify kidney disease if proteinuria is also present, as is the case with this patient who has an ACR level of > 70 mg/mol. Therefore, it would be inappropriate to suggest that an eGFR level above 60 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 indicates the absence of renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l (60-120 μmol/l). He was known to have normal renal function two years previously. On examination, he has evidence of rigidity, resting tremor and postural instability. He appears to have bilateral small pupils. He has a postural BP drop from 160/72 mm/Hg when supine to 138/60 mmHg when standing. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and a full bladder.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of obstructive renal failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic bladder

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic Bladder and Other Causes of Obstructive Renal Failure in Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease is often associated with autonomic dysfunction, which can lead to bladder problems such as urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence. In some cases, these symptoms may be mistaken for benign prostatic hypertrophy, but it is important to consider the possibility of neurogenic bladder when risk factors are present. Multichannel urodynamic studies can help confirm the diagnosis and prevent complications such as post-prostatectomy incontinence. Other potential causes of obstructive renal failure in Parkinson’s disease include retroperitoneal fibrosis and renal papillary necrosis, which are rare but serious conditions that require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India visits his General Practitioner complaining of a painless penile ulcer that has been gradually increasing in size over the past year. Upon examination, the doctor observes a solitary ulcer on the glans and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but more common in Asia and Africa, particularly in India. The most common type of penile cancer is squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC), which typically presents as a non-healing ulcer in men in their sixth decade. Behçet’s disease is a multisystem disorder that presents with recurrent painful oral and genital ulcers, along with other symptoms such as malaise, myopathy, headaches, and fevers. Adenocarcinoma is a less common type of penile cancer that tends to appear flatter and scalier than SCC. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and syphilis are both sexually transmitted infections that can cause genital ulceration, but they present with different symptoms and require different treatments. HSV causes painful ulceration and tender lymphadenopathy, while syphilis presents with a painless chancre and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) because of incontinence. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) because of incontinence. He only rarely visits the GP. On examination, his bladder is palpable. During the conversation, he appears to have mild cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Overflow Incontinence: Causes and Risk Factors

      Overflow incontinence is a condition where the bladder is always full, causing frequent leakage of urine. This is commonly caused by bladder outlet obstruction, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostate cancer, or urethral stricture. However, it can also be caused by lesions affecting sacral segments or peripheral autonomic fibers, resulting in an atonic bladder with loss of sphincter coordination.

      Medications should also be considered as a possible cause of new-onset urinary incontinence, especially in elderly individuals who often take multiple medications. Drugs with anticholinergic effects, α adrenergic agonists, and calcium channel blockers can cause chronic retention, either alone or by exacerbating other causes.

      Severe cognitive impairment can increase the risk of urinary incontinence and worsen other causes. While mild cognitive impairment is unlikely to be the main cause, it should still be considered as a contributing factor.

      Understanding the causes and risk factors of overflow incontinence can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer: PSA testing is recommended to all men over the age of 60 as a screening tool for prostate cancer and so he should have a PSA performed

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for a scrotal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
      Select from the list the single most correct option.

      Your Answer: He has glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy presents with puffy eyes and oedematous legs. Dipstick testing reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with puffy eyes and oedematous legs. Dipstick testing reveals proteinuria and haematuria. After referral a diagnosis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is made.
      Select the single most likely outcome in this case.

      Your Answer: Lifelong relapses and remissions with eventual chronic renal failure

      Correct Answer: Complete recovery

      Explanation:

      Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: A Common Cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Children

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis is a pathological classification that accounts for 90% of cases of nephrotic syndrome in children and about 20% of cases in adults. It is characterized by normal renal function, normal blood pressure, and normal complement levels, but an increased risk of infections, especially urinary tract infections and pneumococcal infections. The condition usually presents in children aged between 2 and 4 years and is associated with atopy in children and underlying Hodgkin’s disease in adults.

      Light microscopy is normal in minimal change glomerulonephritis, but electron microscopy shows widespread fusion of the epithelial cell foot processes on the outside of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence is usually negative. The disease usually responds to a course of high-dose prednisolone, but relapse is frequent. Relapsing disease may go into remission following treatment with prednisolone and cyclophosphamide or ciclosporin. One-third of patients have one episode, one-third occasional relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood. However, minimal change glomerulonephritis doesn’t progress to chronic renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD

      Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate

      Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult

      Explanation:

      Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During the examination, his clinic blood pressure is found to be elevated. Further ambulatory monitoring reveals a daytime average measurement of 160/96 mmHg. His blood and urine tests show the following results:

      - Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Creatinine 136 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 56 ml/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (<42)
      - Urinary albumin: creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol (<3)

      The patient confirms that the urine sample was produced in the early morning, and his eGFR is unchanged from last year. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, regardless of age or ethnicity, to reduce the progression of kidney damage. In the case of a man with stage 2 hypertension and chronic kidney disease G3aA3, commencing ramipril is the correct choice. His blood pressure target should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Amlodipine is not recommended for patients with chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol. Dapagliflozin is not appropriate for this man as he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes. Referring him to a nephrologist is not necessary at this time as he doesn’t meet the criteria for specialist referral. While lifestyle modifications should be advised, pharmacological treatment is necessary for this man given the severity of his condition.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
      Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.

      In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.

      Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.

      Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.

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  • Question 18 - You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.

      You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side

      Explanation:

      It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

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  • Question 19 - A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.

      Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.

      Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.

      In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.

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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.

      The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.

      Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.

      It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with...

    Incorrect

    • Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen

      Explanation:

      The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.

      Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.

      PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.

      Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.

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  • Question 24 - You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to review a urine result of a 26-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks pregnant. The urine sample was collected during her recent appointment with her midwife and the result has returned showing the presence of Escherichia coli. You speak to the patient on the phone to discuss the results and learn that she is well with no history of urinary symptom, abdominal pain or temperature.

      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic prescription for 7 days

      Explanation:

      The immediate treatment of antibiotics is recommended for pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria. This condition is prevalent and poses a risk for pyelonephritis, premature delivery, and low birth weight, according to NICE guidelines. Treatment for seven days is currently advised. Escherichia coli, which can cause urinary tract infections and gastroenteritis, is a pathogenic organism.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 25 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation

      Explanation:

      To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling. The diagnosis was benign prostatic hyperplasia and he was prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LHRH antagonist

      Explanation:

      Finasteride: A 5-alpha-reductase Inhibitor

      Finasteride is a medication that inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). By blocking this conversion, finasteride opposes the effects of testosterone, leading to common side effects such as gynaecomastia and reduced libido.

      In addition to its use as a treatment for these side effects, finasteride is also prescribed orally as Propecia to treat male pattern hair loss. Despite its potential side effects, finasteride has been shown to be an effective treatment for hair loss in many men.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being prescribed colchicine for his first gout attack. He has fully recovered and has no lingering symptoms. He has no significant medical history except for a resolved AKI after experiencing diarrhea last year. He is not taking any regular medication.

      What is the best course of action for long-term urate-lowering therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer allopurinol today

      Explanation:

      The updated guidelines from the British Society for Rheumatology recommend that urate-lowering therapy should be initiated early after the first episode of gout. Therefore, it is suggested that all patients should be offered this therapy after their initial attack, rather than waiting for further episodes or ongoing symptoms. It is important to note that colchicine cannot be used as a long-term urate-lowering medication on its own. There is no need to wait for a month before starting allopurinol, as long as the acute attack has resolved. Although allopurinol can still be prescribed for patients with renal impairment, caution must be taken with the dosage. Febuxostat should only be considered as a second line medication if allopurinol is not suitable or has not been tolerated by the patient.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.

      Has anything been done incorrectly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recording of only the last name and role

      Explanation:

      It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.

      GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.

      Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.

      It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.

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  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood in his urine two days after receiving treatment for tonsillitis. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, it is positive for blood and protein. The doctor sends a sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity and receives the following results: Growth < 104 cfu/ml, Large numbers of red blood cells, < 10/mm3 of white blood cells, and red-cell casts in microscopy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview

      Haematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is glomerulonephritis, which is indicated by the presence of red-cell casts in the urine. In particular, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) may be suspected if the patient has a recent history of tonsillitis. PSGN typically resolves on its own, but symptom control and infection removal may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of haematuria is myoglobinuria, which is characterized by a positive urine dipstick but the absence of red-cell casts. Myoglobinuria is an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, which requires fluid resuscitation and further investigations into renal function and creatine kinase.

      Porphyria, on the other hand, may cause dark or reddish urine due to excessive excretion of haem precursors. However, red-cell casts are not present and a urine dipstick would not be positive for blood.

      Renal calculus, or kidney stones, is unlikely in a young patient and would typically be accompanied by severe pain. No casts would be present in this case.

      Finally, a urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause haematuria, but a diagnosis requires significant bacteriuria, which is defined as greater than 100,000 colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine. Counts between 10,000 and 100,000 are indeterminate, while counts below 10,000 are considered normal. Sensitivity testing may be necessary to determine the appropriate antibiotics for treatment.

      In summary, the presence of red-cell casts in the urine suggests glomerulonephritis, while a positive urine dipstick without casts may indicate myoglobinuria. Other possible causes of haematuria include porphyria, renal calculus, and UTI, but these require further investigation and testing for diagnosis.

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  • Question 30 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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