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Question 1
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman develops depression 2 months following a stroke. She has no psychiatric history and does not take any other medications. She is interested in trying an antidepressant. What is the appropriate medication to prescribe in this scenario?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:According to the Maudsley 14th Edition, the recommended medications for post CVA depression are SSRIs, mirtazapine, and nortriptyline, with fluoxetine having the strongest evidence base. Paroxetine may be considered as the preferred treatment option.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the most suitable course of action for managing a patient with Alzheimer's disease who exhibits signs of psychosis and poses a threat to others?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Risperidone has been approved as a viable treatment for behavioral issues associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the definition of syllogomania?
Your Answer: Abnormal belief that one is divinely inspired
Correct Answer: Excessive hoarding of rubbish
Explanation:The suffix -mania denotes an irresistible urge of obsession.
Compulsive inability to make decisions = aboulomania
Excessive inclination towards grandiosity = megalomania
Delusional conviction of divine inspiration = entheomania
Uncontrollable urge to steal = kleptomaniaConditions commonly seen in the elderly include Charles Bonnet syndrome, Diogenes syndrome, and delirium. Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterized by persistent of recurrent complex hallucinations, usually visual of auditory, occurring in clear consciousness against a background of visual impairment. Diogenes syndrome is a behavioral disorder characterized by extreme neglected physical state, social isolation, domestic squalor, and excessive hoarding. Delirium is an acute decline in both the level of consciousness and cognition, often involving perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep cycle impairment. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a fluctuating course and can have various causes ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. The clinical presentation of delirium can be classified into hypoactive, hyperactive, of mixed subtypes. Elderly patients with hypoactive delirium are often overlooked of misdiagnosed as having depression of a form of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is a true statement about depression after a stroke?
Your Answer: Antidepressants used in post-stroke depression may enhance motor recovery
Explanation:The use of mianserin for post-stroke depression has been found to be ineffective.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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What is a true statement about Charles Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer: Insight is typically preserved
Explanation:Preservation of insight and absence of delusional beliefs are common in CBS, with the focus of initial treatment being on supporting the visual system through addressing underlying conditions like cataracts of improving lighting. Behavioral interventions, such as reducing isolation and stress management, can also be beneficial, along with reassurance. While psychoactive drugs have shown some success in individual cases, they are generally not effective. It is important to conduct field testing if ocular examination is normal, as CBS can result from any damage to the visual pathway, including cerebral infarcts.
Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations
Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium?
Your Answer: Milton Erickson
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The only symptom that indicates hypoactive delirium is facial inexpression, while the rest of the symptoms suggest hyperactive delirium.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following has not been proven to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression?
Your Answer: Escitalopram
Correct Answer: Mianserin
Explanation:Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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What is accurate about the differential diagnosis of transient global amnesia?
Your Answer: During an attack a patient would be expected to be able to perform serial sevens of spell WORLD backwards
Explanation:Transient global amnesia (TGA) can be differentiated from other conditions such as acute confusional state (ACS), complex partial seizures (CPS), transient epileptic amnesia (TEA), psychogenic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA). ACS patients are unable to maintain a coherent stream of thought, while TGA patients can. Inattention is the key deficit in ACS, whereas TGA patients remain attentive. CPS patients exhibit automatisms and often blankly stare, unlike TGA patients who are alert, attentive, and question repetitively. TEA is a distinctive manifestation of temporal lobe epilepsy causing amnesia alone, and attacks tend to be more numerous than TGA. Psychogenic amnesia usually occurs in the younger population and is associated with memory loss for personal identification, indifference to memory loss, and retrograde rather than anterograde amnesia. TGA can be confused with TIAs, but if motor and sensory symptoms accompany any memory disturbance, then a diagnosis of TIA must be made.
Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is another name for a DaTscan?
Your Answer: FDG PET
Correct Answer: FP-CIT SPECT
Explanation:The purpose of a DaTscan is to aid in the identification of dementia with Lewy bodies in individuals who are suspected to have it.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 62 year old man is worried about the possibility of having Parkinson's disease. During a neurological examination, which of the following clinical observations would be most indicative of this condition?
Your Answer: Increased limb rigidity, usually more marked on one side
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a decrease of slowing of both voluntary and spontaneous blinking, whereas a cerebellar lesion typically presents with an intention tremor and a wide based gait. It is important to note that Parkinson’s is caused by an abnormality in the substantia nigra of the midbrain.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What are the essential components that should be considered in the initial assessment of dementia for all cases?
Your Answer: ECG
Correct Answer: Folate levels
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman is accompanied by her family who are worried about her memory and behavior in the last six months. An evaluation of her cognitive abilities is conducted, which appears to validate the family's concerns. To rule out any reversible causes, a set of blood tests are ordered, including a complete blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and bone profile. What other blood tests should be requested in this case?
Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, folate, HbA1c
Explanation:NICE advises against the routine testing for syphilis and HIV.
As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 72 year old woman who has been taking sertraline for a depressive illness along with CBT is now in remission. She is happy with her treatment and apart from an occasional dry mouth does not suffer any side effects from her medication. How long should she continue taking sertraline?
Your Answer: 2 years following remission
Explanation:Regardless of any psychological therapy being used, individuals over the age of 65 should maintain their antidepressant medication for a minimum of 2 years after achieving remission.
Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary
Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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You are seeing a 67-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease who is experiencing symptoms of depression. He had a heart attack six months ago.
Which antidepressant would be the safest and most appropriate choice for this patient?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment for chronic heart disease (CHD) is SSRIs, with sertraline being the preferred option for post-MI patients due to its safety. However, venlafaxine should be used cautiously in patients with established cardiac disease that may increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as Amitriptyline, should be avoided in CHD patients as they are considered cardiotoxic and contraindicated in those who have had a recent MI. While citalopram is generally used post-MI, its dose-dependent QT interval prolongation should be taken into consideration. Mirtazapine can be used as an alternative in CHD patients who cannot tolerate SSRIs, but it may not be the most appropriate treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old man who recently retired and lives in a residential home reports seeing ghosts. He has decreased vision in both eyes and a slit lamp exam shows cataracts in both eyes. There is no evidence of any secondary gain related to his complaints. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition where mentally healthy individuals experience vivid and recurring visual hallucinations, also known as fictive visual percepts. These hallucinations are typically small in size, known as lilliputian hallucinations. CBS is commonly found in individuals who have visual impairments due to old age of damage to the eyes of optic pathways. However, not all individuals with such deficits develop CBS. In some cases, CBS may be triggered by a combination of central vision loss due to conditions like macular degeneration and peripheral vision loss from glaucoma. In this context, bilateral lenticular opacities refer to cataracts. For more information on CBS, please refer to the Royal National Institute of Blind People (RNIB).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a history of forgetfulness, frequent stumbling, occasional disorientation, and seeing things that aren't there. During the physical examination, she exhibits slow movements and a tremor that resembles rolling a pill between her fingers. Which imaging technique would be the most suitable to confirm the probable diagnosis based on the given symptoms?
Your Answer: Single photon emission computerised tomography (SPECT)
Explanation:According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guideline for managing Dementia (CG42), if Lewy body dementia is suspected based on symptoms such as falls, fluctuating consciousness, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism, SPECT scanning should be used to detect dopaminergic deterioration. Additionally, CT/MRI should be used to distinguish between Alzheimer’s dementia and vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the options below is not considered a legal requirement for testamentary capacity?
Your Answer: Understands in practical terms how the property will be distributed
Correct Answer: Understands that the will can be revised
Explanation:Testamentary Capacity
Testamentary capacity is a crucial aspect of common law that pertains to a person’s legal and mental ability to create a will. To meet the requirements for testamentary capacity, there are four key factors that a testator must be aware of at the time of making the will. These include knowing the extent and value of their property, identifying the natural beneficiaries, understanding the disposition they are making, and having a plan for how the property will be distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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A 67 year old man attends clinic with his son. The son reports significant memory impairment and explains that his father keeps forgetting important appointments and repeating himself frequently. The patient complains about his own memory and says that he has trouble remembering recent events (such as his wedding anniversary) and has gotten lost while driving in familiar areas.
The patient admits to feeling down and says that he has lost interest in his hobbies. He also reports difficulty sleeping and occasional thoughts of self-harm. On examination he appears disheveled and scores 24/30 on the MMSE. A CT scan reveals mild atrophy.
Which of the following would be most helpful in differentiating between dementia and pseudodementia?Your Answer: Patients own concern about her memory loss
Explanation:Depression in the Elderly
Depression in the elderly is similar to depression in younger people, but there is a type of depression called vascular depression that has more cognitive impairment and apathy than depressive ideation. It can be difficult to distinguish between depression and dementia, but there are some key differences. Dementia has a rapid onset, while depression has symptoms of short duration. Mood and behavior fluctuate in dementia, while depression has consistently depressed mood. Patients with dementia often give don’t know answers, while those with depression give near miss answers. Patients with dementia try to conceal their forgetfulness, while those with depression highlight it. Cognitive impairment is relatively stable in dementia, while it fluctuates greatly in depression. Higher cortical dysfunction is evident in dementia, while it is absent in depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 75 year old man presents to the emergency department in a state of agitation and obvious distress. According to his son, he has been deteriorating over the past few days, displaying confusion and disorientation, and appears to be suffering from a chest infection. Despite being typically healthy, the man's condition has rapidly declined. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What medication would you recommend to alleviate the man's distress?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history, it appears that they are experiencing delirium. Therefore, the appropriate medication to use would be haloperidol. Lorazepam would only be considered if haloperidol is not a viable option due to contraindications.
Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent symptom observed in individuals with Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: Depressed mood
Correct Answer: Lack of initiative
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is more likely to cause a lack of initiative than a depressed mood.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
Her husband has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last six months and has also noticed that there are episodes of confusion. There is a history of repeated falls but no serious head injury.
She does not drink alcohol but has a tremor and is slow in her movements. Her elderly husband is perplexed as his wife states that she sees a bird in the living room, which he cannot see. She is also convinced that their daughter is stealing money from them.
What treatment option do you recommend?Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:The man is exhibiting typical symptoms of Lewy body dementia, such as cognitive decline, sporadic confusion, motor parkinsonian features, frequent falls, and early visual hallucinations. While memantine has demonstrated some efficacy, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are the preferred initial treatment for Lewy body dementia. There is limited high-quality evidence for treating this condition. Although donepezil may also be a suitable first-line therapy, it is not authorized in the UK for treating dementia in Parkinson’s disease, whereas rivastigmine is.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances has SPECT demonstrated a decrease in D2 receptor density?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:The neuroleptic sensitivity observed in Lewy body dementia could be attributed to the decreased density of dopamine receptors found in the condition.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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Which antipsychotic medication has the lowest likelihood of exacerbating movement difficulties in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:In Parkinson’s disease, only clozapine and quetiapine are appropriate antipsychotic medications, and if one is not well-tolerated, the other may be considered.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar dementias?
Your Answer: Compared to Alzheimer's recent memory is preserved better than remote memory
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the proportion of individuals with dementia who are younger than 65 years old?
Your Answer: 7%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:Epidemiological Findings on Dementia
Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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What is a distinguishing trait of the initial phase of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Apathy
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease initially presents with difficulties in short-term memory and alterations in personality, such as apathy. As the illness progresses, disorientation and confusion become more prominent. This information is according to Strock M.’s book Alzheimer’s Disease: Diagnosis, Cause & Treatment published in 1996.
Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics
Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:
– Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
– Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
– Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
– Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not useful in distinguishing between delirium and dementia?
Your Answer: Clouding of consciousness
Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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An aging patient is referred by their GP due to concerns about memory loss that has been worsening over the past three years. Upon examination, you diagnose the patient with Alzheimer's disease and administer an MMSE test resulting in a score of 9. A CT scan is ordered and reveals only generalized atrophy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Memantine
Explanation:The clinical assessment of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease guides the decision to initiate treatment. NICE guidelines suggest the use of memantine for individuals with advanced Alzheimer’s disease, as indicated by a score of 0-10 on the MMSE.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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NICE recommends the following for primary prevention of dementia.
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Dementia Prevention
The NICE Guidelines on Dementia, 2006 (amended March 2011) state that certain interventions should not be recommended as specific treatments for the primary prevention of dementia. These interventions include statins, hormone replacement therapy, vitamin E, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. It is important to note that while these interventions may have other health benefits, they should not be relied upon as a means of preventing dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the options below is not a typical trigger for transient global amnesia?
Your Answer: Loud noises
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 31
Correct
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A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is brought to the clinic by his wife. She reports marked variability in his presentation with episodic confusion where he will drift off and become vacant. She also reports that he has appeared to respond to unseen stimuli. On examination you note rigidity in his upper limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lewy Body dementia
Explanation:The presence of Lewy Body dementia could account for the observed symptoms of the patient, including the cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms.
Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics
Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:
– Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
– Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
– Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
– Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 32
Correct
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An infarct in which area has been demonstrated to result in a higher likelihood of depression in individuals?
Your Answer: Basal Ganglia
Explanation:Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 33
Correct
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Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?
Your Answer: Avoid regular visits from family
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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What PET scan result would strongly suggest the presence of Alzheimer's dementia?
Your Answer: Temporoparietal hypometabolism
Explanation:PET scans reveal the level of metabolic activity in different parts of the brain. In individuals with Alzheimer’s disease, the temporoparietal cortices exhibit decreased metabolic activity as a result of the atrophy in those regions.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the definition of a condition that involves a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, leading to interference with social and occupational function in an alert individual?
Your Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Dementia: An Overview
Dementia is a syndrome that results in a decline in memory and at least one other cognitive domain, such as language, visuospatial of executive functioning. This decline is significant enough to interfere with social and occupational function in an alert person. The diagnosis of dementia is based on evidence of neurocognitive impairment, which is demonstrated by standardized neuropsychological of cognitive testing. Behavioural changes may also be present, and the symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Epidemiology
The total population prevalence of dementia among over 65s is 7.1%, which equals 1.3% of the entire UK population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia in the UK, followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. These conditions may coexist. The proportions of dementia severity among people with late-onset dementia are as follows: 55.4% have mild dementia, 32.1% have moderate dementia, and 12.5% have severe dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 36
Correct
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What is a distinguishing characteristic of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Your Answer: Incontinence
Explanation:Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of communicating hydrocephalus that is chronic in nature. It occurs when there is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain due to impaired reabsorption by the arachnoid villi. Unlike other types of hydrocephalus, the CSF pressure in normal pressure hydrocephalus is typically high but still within the normal range. Therefore, patients do not experience symptoms of high intracranial pressure such as headache and nausea. Instead, they present with a classic triad of incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 37
Correct
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What is the relationship between depression and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: Sertraline has been shown to be safe for use in patients who have recently had a myocardial infarction
Explanation:According to a study, the combination of clopidogrel and an SSRI was found to be more effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events compared to dual antiplatelet therapy alone. However, the risk of bleeding was higher among patients taking clopidogrel and an SSRI, although the sample size was not sufficient to confirm this finding. The results were consistent regardless of the affinity of the SSRI. (Labos, 2011)
SSRI for Post-MI Depression
Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.
References:
– Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
– Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
– Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
– Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female is referred to you by her primary care physician. She recently experienced a traumatic event and has been crying frequently in response to minor triggers. On your assessment, you do not find any evidence of depression, anxiety, of suicidal ideation, but note that the patient started crying several times during the hour you spent with her. Which antidepressant medication would you consider prescribing in this situation?
Your Answer: Avoid prescribing medication
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:The patient has been diagnosed with post-stroke pathological crying, a condition characterized by episodes of crying triggered by minor stimuli without any accompanying changes in mood. This condition is associated with disrupted serotonergic neurotransmission. Treatment options include the use of antidepressants, with SSRIs being the preferred choice over venlafaxine and tricyclics due to their better tolerability and greater efficacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 39
Correct
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What is the most effective method for distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease and Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer: Dat scan
Explanation:It’s important to note that DaT-SCAN and SPECT are not the same thing. DaT-SCAN specifically refers to the radioactive isotope called Ioflupane, which is utilized in the creation of a SPECT image.
SPECT Imaging for Alzheimer’s Diagnosis
SPECT imaging has been found to be a useful tool in differentiating between patients with Alzheimer’s disease and healthy older individuals. Studies have shown that temporal and parietal hypoperfusion can be indicative of Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, SPECT imaging has been effective in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and Lewy body dementia. A SPECT scan of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease versus one with Lewy body dementia showed lower perfusion in medial temporal areas for Alzheimer’s disease and lower perfusion in occipital cortex for Lewy body dementia. These findings suggest that SPECT imaging can be a valuable diagnostic tool for Alzheimer’s disease and related dementias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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What intervention has been supported by placebo-controlled randomized controlled trials as effective in managing aggression among individuals with dementia?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 41
Correct
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A middle-aged man is experiencing fluctuations in his levels of cognition. His wife has also noticed that he appears to be 'seeing things' and has become unable to turn himself over when in bed. What do you suspect could be the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia, except in cases of psychosis of aggression. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the first line of treatment for psychosis with Lewy body dementia, and antipsychotics are the second line. Clozapine is the preferred antipsychotic for Lewy body dementia, but if it is not appropriate, quetiapine is a reasonable choice. The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and other symptoms such as delusions and non-visual hallucinations. Additional features that support the diagnosis include fluctuating cognition, repeated falls, syncope, and neuroleptic sensitivity. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 42
Correct
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A 87 year old man is brought to Accident and Emergency by his daughter in law. He has become increasingly confused over the past 5 days and is highly agitated. His past history includes that of angina and gout. He lives with his wife and is normally independent for most things around the house. He spends most of his time reading and watching television. He is noted to be dehydrated, has a GCS of 12/15 and an AMTS of 6/10. His QTc is normal. His urine has an offensive odour and contains blood, nitrates +++, and leukocytes. When the emergency doctors attempt to take a blood sample he becomes aggressive and hits a nurse. The team contacts you for advice. Which of the following would you recommend as acute management?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:The presentation is consistent with delirium, which involves sudden decline, confusion, and disorientation. NICE recommends the use of haloperidol in such cases.
Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium?
Your Answer: Fluctuating consciousness
Explanation:The primary distinction between delirium and dementia is the variability of consciousness levels.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
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What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
Your Answer: Behavioural variant is the most common subtype of frontotemporal lobar degeneration
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 45
Correct
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The population of middle-aged individuals (aged 40-59 years) in correctional facilities in the United Kingdom is on the rise. This group has unique healthcare requirements. What is the incidence of depression among this demographic?
Your Answer: 30%
Explanation:Elderly prisoners have a higher rate of depression, estimated at around 30%, compared to younger adult prisoners and community studies of the elderly in the UK. The risk of depression is even higher in prisoners with a history of psychiatric illness and those who report poor physical health. For more information, see the study by Fazel et al. (2001) titled Hidden psychiatric morbidity in elderly prisoners in the British Journal of Psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 46
Correct
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What is the truth about psychosis in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Neuroleptics can worsen movement disorders in Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which benzodiazepine is most likely to worsen cognitive impairment in a patient who has dementia?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines with a longer duration of action, such as diazepam, pose more difficulties than those with a shorter duration of action.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following is characterised by fluent, empty speech?
Your Answer: Chronic progressive aphasia
Correct Answer: Semantic dementia
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
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What is the accurate statement about the epidemiology of mental disorders among the elderly population?
Your Answer: There is a trend towards lower rates of personality disorder with increasing age
Explanation:Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Among the Elderly
Depression:
Contrary to popular belief, studies have shown that rates of depression among the elderly in the general population are lower than in younger adults. However, elderly individuals who seek medical attention have a higher prevalence of depressive symptoms, with one study in London reporting a point prevalence of around 30%. Suicide risk factors in the elderly include a history of attempts, depressive disorder, access to lethal means, physical illness of disability, chronic pain, recent losses, and social isolation. Physician education in recognizing and treating depression and restricting access to lethal means have been found to reduce suicide rates.Personality Disorder:
There is limited information on the prevalence of personality disorders in the general population, but rates tend to decrease with age.Psychosis:
Very late-onset schizophrenia, with onset after the age of 60, has a 1-year prevalence of 0.1 to 0.5%. It is more common in women and has been associated with sensory impairment. Genetic factors appear to be less important than in earlier onset schizophrenia.Alcohol Misuse:
Studies have shown that men have higher rates of alcohol misuse than women in the elderly population. However, precise figures and prevalence rates are unreliable, and standard assessment tools may not be valid in this group.Dementia:
Dementia incidence is similar across all continents and regions of the world, with Alzheimer’s accounting for 60-70% and vascular dementia accounting for 15-20% of all dementia cases. Age is the strongest risk factor for dementia, with approximately 48% of people aged 95 and over having dementia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What can be said about the epidemiology of dementia in the UK?
Your Answer: The prevalence of dementia doubles for every 10 increase in age
Correct Answer: Approximately 60% of people with dementia are thought to live in private households
Explanation:Epidemiological Findings on Dementia
Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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