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Question 1
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A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has no family history of bowel conditions, has not traveled recently, and has no sick contacts. During colonoscopy, seven polyps measuring <5 mm in diameter are found proximal to the sigmoid colon and removed for further analysis. Which of the following conditions linked to bowel polyps is considered non-hereditary?
Your Answer: Serrated polyposis syndrome
Explanation:Overview of Hereditary Colorectal Polyp Disorders
Hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. These disorders are caused by various genetic defects and are inherited in different patterns. Here are some of the most common hereditary colorectal polyp disorders:
1. Serrated Polyposis Syndrome: This condition is characterized by the presence of numerous serrated and/or hyperplastic polyps in the colon and rectum. It is not associated with any specific genetic defect and is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer.
2. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): FAP is an autosomal dominant condition that causes the development of hundreds or thousands of adenomatous polyps in the colon. These polyps have a high risk of malignant transformation, and patients with FAP are likely to develop colorectal cancer if left untreated.
3. Lynch Syndrome: Also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer and other malignancies, including breast, stomach, endometrial, and urinary tract cancers.
4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by the development of gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation. Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing colorectal, breast, liver, and lung cancers.
5. Gardner Syndrome: Gardner syndrome is a subtype of FAP that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the development of numerous colorectal polyps and extracolonic manifestations such as desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts. Prophylactic surgery is the mainstay of treatment for patients with Gardner syndrome.
In conclusion, hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Early detection and management are crucial in preventing the development of cancer in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
What is the most effective treatment option?Your Answer: Incision and drainage
Explanation:The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment
When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease undergoes a resection of her terminal ileum. What is her greatest risk?
Your Answer: Macrocytic normochromic anaemia
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Disorders and Associated Nutritional Deficiencies
The gastrointestinal tract plays a crucial role in the absorption of essential nutrients, and any disruption in this process can lead to various nutritional deficiencies. Here are some common gastrointestinal disorders and their associated nutritional deficiencies:
1. Macrocytic normochromic anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is absorbed in the terminal ileum. Without adequate B12, megaloblasts form in the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic normochromic anaemia. B12 supplements are necessary to prevent this condition.
2. Osteomalacia: Reduced vitamin D absorption can cause osteomalacia, a condition where bones become soft and weak. Vitamin D is absorbed in the jejunum, so an ileal resection would not affect absorption. Crohn’s disease may also cause osteomalacia, but it typically affects the terminal ileum and proximal colon.
3. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia: Iron deficiency is the most common cause of microcytic anaemia. Iron is absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum, so deficiency leading to microcytic normochromic anaemia is less likely. However, iron deficiency may occur secondary to internal bleeding or extensive small bowel disease.
4. Angular stomatitis: This condition is commonly caused by Candida or staphylococcal infection. Iron deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, or dermatitis may also be causes. Patients with B12 deficiency may develop angular stomatitis, but not all patients with B12 deficiency develop this condition.
5. Wernicke’s encephalopathy: Reduced thiamine (B1) absorption can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder. Thiamine is absorbed in the upper small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with Crohn's disease presents with severe abdominal pain. Upon investigation, a small intestinal obstruction is discovered, and during surgery, a large stricture is found in the terminal ileum. As a result, approximately 90 cm of the terminal ileum had to be resected. What is the most common complication in this scenario?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Complications of Terminal Ileum Resection
When the terminal ileum is lost due to resection, there can be various complications depending on the length of the resection. One such complication is D-lactic acidosis, which occurs after the intake of refined carbohydrates. Gallstones may also form due to interruption in the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. Patients with a short bowel are encouraged to eat more to replenish the different vitamins and minerals. They may also be at risk of developing calcium oxalate kidney stones. However, they are not at increased risk of uric acid stones unless they have coexisting conditions such as gout. It is important to note that iron deficiency may not be affected by ileal pathology, while vitamin K and D deficiencies are not common complications of terminal ileum resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history of worsening abdominal pain, accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting. The pain initially started in the middle of her abdomen but has now become focused on the right lower quadrant.
What is the most frequent surgical diagnosis in children of this age group?Your Answer: Appendicitis
Explanation:Common Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain in Children
Acute abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. Among the most common surgical diagnoses in children with acute abdominal pain is appendicitis, which typically presents with central colicky abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. However, over half of children with abdominal pain have no identifiable cause.
Intussusception is another common surgical diagnosis in children under two years of age, characterized by the telescoping of one portion of bowel over another. Symptoms include loud crying, drawing up of the knees, vomiting, and rectal bleeding that resembles redcurrant jelly.
Mesenteric adenitis is a self-limiting condition that can present similarly to appendicitis but is not a surgical diagnosis. Cholecystitis, a common cause of abdominal pain in adults, is rare in children. Ovarian torsion is also a rare cause of acute abdominal pain in children, accounting for less than 5% of cases.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for conditions like appendicitis and intussusception, as delays can increase the risk of complications. However, it is important to consider a range of potential causes for acute abdominal pain in children and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?
Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease
Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.
A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.
In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults
Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.
Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?Your Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels
Explanation:Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon
Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?Your Answer: Transmural inflammation
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.
Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.
Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.
Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.
In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
How should the surgical team proceed?Your Answer: Ask for gynaecological consult
Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway
Explanation:Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy
Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.
In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.
While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.
In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of left groin pain, associated with a lump that seems to come and go.
Following examination, the clinician deduces that the swelling is most likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia.
Indirect inguinal hernias can be controlled at:Your Answer: 1.3 cm above the mid-point of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:Understanding Inguinal Hernias: Key Landmarks and Assessment Techniques
Inguinal hernias are a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Understanding the key landmarks and assessment techniques can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
Deep Inguinal Ring: The location of the deep inguinal ring is 1.3 cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Indirect hernias originate from this area.
Pubic Tubercle: The pubic tubercle is a landmark that distinguishes between inguinal hernias and femoral hernias. Inguinal hernias emerge above and medial to the tubercle, while femoral hernias emerge below and lateral.
Hasselbach’s Triangle: This is the area where direct hernias protrude through the abdominal wall. The triangle consists of the inferior epigastric vessels superiorly and laterally, the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly.
Inferior Epigastric Vessels: Direct hernias are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while indirect hernias arise lateral to these vessels. However, this assessment can only be carried out during surgery when these vessels are visible.
Scrotum: If a lump is present within the scrotum and cannot be palpated above, it is most likely an indirect hernia.
By understanding these key landmarks and assessment techniques, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage inguinal hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System
The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Appendicitis
Explanation:Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions
Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:
Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.
Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.
Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.
Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.
Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment
Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.
Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.
Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.
It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.
In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 15
Correct
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You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?Your Answer: Anastomotic leak
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery
When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood is not mixed in with the stool and is noticed on the paper after defecation. She has been becoming more constipated over the last 6 months; however, she reports no weight loss or change in dietary habits. There is a past medical history of haemorrhoids 10 years ago, which were treated with creams. On examination, she appears well. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, without organomegaly. Rectal examination reveals two third-degree haemorrhoids. She is anxious because her father died 15 years ago from colorectal cancer.
What is the gold standard investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Investigations: Colonoscopy, CT Colonography, Barium Enema, Flexible Sigmoidoscopy, and Proctoscopy
When a patient has a first-degree relative with colorectal carcinoma or reports persistent and progressive changes in bowel habits, investigations are necessary to detect any malignancy. While haemorrhoids may be the cause of bleeding, the presence of a coexisting lesion cannot be excluded without further investigation.
Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, allowing for examination of the large bowel and removal of suspicious lesions. CT colonography is a second-line alternative for patients unable to undergo a full colonoscopy, while a barium enema may be considered for those unable to complete colonoscopy.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy views the rectum, sigmoid colon, and distal descending colon, but does not provide information about the more proximal colon. Proctoscopy allows views of the rectum but does not provide information about lesions found further along the bowel.
In summary, early detection of colorectal cancer is crucial, and these investigations play a vital role in identifying and treating the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain
Diverticular Disease:
Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.Splenic Infarct:
A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.Ureteric Colic:
Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on defecation, which has lasted over two months despite increasing fluid intake and stool softeners. He has had anal fissures in the past, as well as a previous perianal abscess. On examination, the anal area is inflamed, with evidence of a deep anal fissure with an associated large sentinel tag.
The doctor explains that this is a symptom of active perianal disease secondary to this patient’s chronic bowel condition.
With which of the following conditions is perianal disease most commonly associated?Your Answer: Diverticular disease
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Perianal Manifestations in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: A Comparison
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition that affects the digestive tract. Two main types of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Both conditions can cause perianal manifestations, but the prevalence and severity differ.
Crohn’s disease is commonly complicated by perianal abscesses, fistula-in-ano, anal fissures, and skin tags. Up to 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease may suffer from perianal disease, which can significantly impair their quality of life. In contrast, perianal disease is far less common in patients with ulcerative colitis.
Coeliac disease, another digestive disorder, is not associated with perianal disease. However, it is linked to an increased risk of other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.
Diverticular disease, which causes abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea, is also not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional disorder that causes symptoms such as bloating, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea. Unlike IBD, IBS is not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.
In summary, perianal manifestations are more commonly seen in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis or other digestive disorders. A multidisciplinary approach may be required to manage severe cases of perianal Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked to see Mrs Jones by the consultant. Mrs Jones is a 56-year-old lady who presents with trouble defecating, and although she still passes her motions normally, over the past month, she has noticed the uncomfortable feeling of still wanting to defecate after passing her motions. During the past 2 weeks, she has noticed she has been passing mucous and some blood but no change in colour. Examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following does the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance recommend as an initial investigation?Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) abdomen
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Investigation for Bowel Habit Changes: A Guide
When a patient experiences changes in bowel habit, it is important to choose the right investigation to determine the underlying cause. In this scenario, the patient is having difficulty defecating, feels incomplete emptying, and is passing mucous per rectum. The main differential diagnoses include colorectal cancer, colorectal polyps, and diverticular disease. Here are some options for investigations and their appropriateness:
Colonoscopy: NICE recommends colonoscopy as the initial investigation for those without major co-morbidities. If a lesion is visualized, it can be biopsied, allowing for a diagnosis of colon cancer. Flexible sigmoidoscopy, followed by barium enema, can be offered in those with major co-morbidities.
Barium enema: This may be considered in patients for whom colonoscopy is not suitable. However, it would not be the first investigation of choice in this patient without major co-morbidities.
Faecal occult blood testing: This is a screening test offered to men and women aged 60-74 in the general population. It would not be appropriate to request this test in the above scenario, as it is not specific and would not offer any extra information for diagnosis. Plus, the patient already has signs of bleeding.
Rigid sigmoidoscopy: This would be a valid option in the outpatient setting, as it allows quick visualization of the anorectal region. However, NICE guidance recommends colonoscopy as first line as it allows visualization of a much greater length of the bowel.
Computerized tomography (CT) abdomen: For patients who present as emergencies, this may be more appropriate. However, in this case, in the outpatient setting, this is unlikely to be the investigation of choice.
In summary, choosing the right investigation for bowel habit changes depends on the patient’s individual circumstances and the suspected underlying cause. Colonoscopy is often the first line investigation recommended by NICE, but other options may be appropriate in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old professional bodybuilder comes to the clinic with a lump in the left groin that appears on and off. The patient reports that the lump is influenced by posture and coughing but does not cause any pain. Upon examination, the doctor diagnoses the patient with a hernia.
What is a true statement regarding groin hernias?Your Answer: All groin hernias should be repaired because of the risk for strangulation
Correct Answer: A direct inguinal hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
Explanation:Understanding Groin Hernias: Types, Location, and Risks
Groin hernias are a common condition that occurs when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. There are different types of groin hernias, including direct inguinal hernias and femoral hernias.
A direct inguinal hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and the protrusion happens medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. On the other hand, a femoral hernia emerges lateral to the pubic tubercle.
Contrary to popular belief, femoral hernias are more common in women than in men. While direct inguinal hernias can become incarcerated, only a small percentage of them will become strangulated per year. Femoral hernias, however, are at a much higher risk of becoming strangulated.
While most groin hernias should be repaired, especially when they become symptomatic, patients who are unfit for surgery should be treated conservatively. This may include using a truss to support the hernia.
In conclusion, understanding the different types and locations of groin hernias, as well as their risks, can help patients make informed decisions about their treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?Your Answer: Skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat and peritoneum
Correct Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum
Explanation:Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers
Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:
1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.
2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.
Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 22
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with altered bowel habit undergoes surgery for a colorectal carcinoma. A pathologist’s report indicates it is a Dukes’ C colorectal malignancy.
Which of the following most accurately describes Dukes’ C tumours?Your Answer: Tumour extending to the muscle layer with lymph node involvement
Explanation:The Dukes’ Classification: A Simple Way to Classify Colorectal Carcinomas
The Dukes’ classification is a useful tool for classifying colorectal carcinomas and predicting prognosis. It is based on whether the tumour has breached the muscularis propria of the bowel wall and whether the disease has spread to the regional lymph nodes or more distally.
Tumours that extend through the bowel wall, without nodal involvement, are classified as Dukes’ B. Tumours extending through the bowel wall with lymph node involvement are classified as Dukes’ C tumours, which are further subclassified into C1 and C2 depending on whether the involved lymph nodes are local or distal, respectively.
Tumour confined to the mucosa is classified as a Dukes’ A tumour, while carcinoma of the colon associated with distant metastases are classified as Dukes’ D tumours. These are associated with poor survival rates.
The Dukes’ classification provides a simple way to classify colorectal carcinomas and gives useful information regarding prognosis. The survival rates for each stage are as follows: A (97% 5-year survival), B (80% 5-year survival), C1 (65% 5-year survival), C2 (35% 5-year survival), and D (<5% 5-year survival).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old dentist visits the GP with a complaint of severe pain during bowel movements, accompanied by fresh red blood on the tissue and in the toilet pan. The patient also experiences anal pain that lasts for a few hours after defecation. He has been constipated for a few weeks, which he attributes to a recent change in diet. There have been no other symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or weight loss, and there is no family history of gastrointestinal conditions. The doctor attempts a rectal examination but has to abandon it due to pain. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Crohn’s colitis
Correct Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:Understanding Anal Fissures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Anal fissures are a common condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort when passing stool. This occurs when hard stool tears the anal mucosa, resulting in bleeding and pain during bowel movements. Patients may also experience continued pain hours after passing stool, leading to further constipation and exacerbation of symptoms.
Diagnosis of anal fissures is based on a patient’s history, rectal examination, and visual inspection to confirm the fissure. Initial treatment includes prescribing stool softeners, encouraging fluid intake, and advising the use of sitz baths to help alleviate pain symptoms. Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) creams may also be recommended to promote healing.
Chronic or recurrent fissures may require surgical referral for management options, including local Botox injection and sphincterotomy. However, it is important to consider other conditions such as Crohn’s colitis, which may present with perianal symptoms like anal fissures.
It is unlikely that this patient has colorectal malignancy, as they are young and have no family history of bowel disease. A perianal abscess would present with a painful swelling adjacent to the anus, while a thrombosed haemorrhoid would result in a tender dark blue swelling on rectal examination.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options for anal fissures can help patients manage their condition and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?
Your Answer: Nephrolithiasis
Explanation:Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome
Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 25
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment
Explanation:Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.
Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.
Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man
Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.
A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain. He reports that the pain began 6 hours ago as a vague discomfort around his belly button, but has since become a sharp pain in the right iliac fossa, which worsens when he walks or coughs. He has lost his appetite and has vomited twice. The examining surgeon suspects that he may have appendicitis.
Which dermatome level in the spinal cord receives afferent signals from the periumbilical pain in this condition?Your Answer: T8
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:Sensory Levels and Pain Localization in Appendicitis
Appendicitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the appendix. The initial pain associated with this condition is vague and poorly localized, and it is felt in the periumbilical region. However, as the inflammation progresses and the parietal peritoneum adjacent to the appendix becomes inflamed, the pain becomes sharp and localizes to the right iliac fossa.
The sensory level for visceral afferents from the appendix is at the 10th thoracic segment, which is the same level as the somatic afferents from the anterior abdominal wall in the region of the umbilicus. This is why the initial pain is felt in the periumbilical region.
The hip girdle and groin area are innervated by the cutaneous dermatome representing L1 spinal cord. However, T6 to T12 affect abdominal and back muscles, and T8 and T12 are not the correct sensory levels for appendicitis pain localization. Understanding the sensory levels and pain localization in appendicitis can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?
Your Answer: Adhesions
Correct Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma
Explanation:Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis
Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:
1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.
2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.
3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.
4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.
5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.
In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?
Your Answer: Appendices epiploicae
Correct Answer: Taeniae coli
Explanation:Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery
The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 30
Correct
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A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:
1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.
2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.
3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.
4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.
5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.
In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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