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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a breast lump which...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a breast lump which he noticed 1 month ago. After a series of investigations, the lump is determined to be cancerous and he is successfully treated with a double mastectomy. As part of his follow-up care, it is decided to screen the patient for mutated oncogenes.

      What testing method would be used to screen this patient?

      Your Answer: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reaction is the appropriate method for detecting mutated oncogenes. This technique involves replicating DNA to screen for genes of interest.

      Chromosome analysis under electron microscopy is not suitable for determining the sequence of chromosomes and is rarely used as a diagnostic test.

      Eastern blot is not applicable for detecting mutated oncogenes as it is used to assess post-translational modifications of proteins.

      Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is not the appropriate method for detecting mutated oncogenes as it is primarily used to screen for specific antibodies in a patient’s serum.

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - You are interested in investigating the prevalence of side-effects associated with statins, as...

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    • You are interested in investigating the prevalence of side-effects associated with statins, as you suspect they are more widespread than commonly reported and often go unreported by patients. While conducting your research, you come across a study that examines the long-term effects of statin therapy, which was conducted post-market release. What kind of study design would this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4

      Explanation:

      When a study has more than three phases, the final phase is typically postmarketing surveillance. This phase is responsible for monitoring the long-term effects of treatment.

      Phase 4 clinical trials are conducted after a treatment has been proven effective and licensed for use. These trials provide more detailed information about the treatment’s side effects and long-term risks and benefits when used on a larger scale.

      Pilot studies are preliminary investigations that aim to determine the feasibility of crucial components of a main study, usually a randomized controlled trial (RCT).

      In a case-control study, subjects with an outcome of interest are matched with those who do not have the outcome of interest. The prevalence of exposure to a potential risk factor is then compared between cases and controls. If the prevalence of exposure is more common among cases than controls, the exposure may be a risk factor for the outcome under investigation.

      Phase 3 trials are designed to test a drug’s efficacy, effectiveness, and safety in a sufficiently large sample population. At this stage, the drug is presumed to have some effect.

      Most phase 3 trials, and some phase 2 trials, are randomized. Phase 4 trials are less likely to be randomized as they require a very large sample size.

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

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  • Question 3 - Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity...

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    • Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity of a research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Representativeness of the sample

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman has come in with symptoms of loin pain and dysuria...

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    • A 35-year-old woman has come in with symptoms of loin pain and dysuria and has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. She was treated with intravenous amoxicillin and gentamicin and has responded well. The consultant has decided to follow local guidelines and switch her to oral co-trimoxazole. What are the components of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sulfonamides and Their Adverse Effects

      Sulfonamides are a type of drug that work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase. This class of drugs includes antibiotic sulfonamides such as sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, and sulfisoxazole. Co-trimoxazole, a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, is commonly used in the management of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Non-antibiotic sulfonamides like sulfasalazine and sulfonylureas also exist.

      However, the use of co-trimoxazole may lead to adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, headache, and rash, including the potentially life-threatening Steven-Johnson Syndrome. It is important to understand the potential risks associated with sulfonamides and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication.

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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with chest pain in the center. Upon conducting an ECG, it is discovered that there is ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The cardiology team admits him and performs primary coronary intervention. He is prescribed 75mg of aspirin as part of his regular medication.

      What is the mechanism of action for this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and 2, suppressing the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes. ADP receptor antagonists like clopidogrel and prasugrel prevent platelet aggregation by blocking the P2Y12 receptors. Direct thrombin inhibitors such as dabigatran directly inhibit thrombin to prevent clotting. However, NOACs like dabigatran are not commonly used for ACS. Selective COX 2 inhibitors like celecoxib and rofecoxib target COX-2 to reduce inflammation and pain. It should be noted that aspirin’s COX enzyme inactivation cannot be reversed.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

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  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to you with complaints of excessive thirst and urination. He has a BMI of 31 kg/mÂČ and a random blood glucose level of 11.2 mmol/l, indicating diabetes mellitus. You plan to initiate treatment with metformin.

      What is the mode of action of metformin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 7 - A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical...

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    • A 9-year-old child is under investigation for short stature. While taking the medical history, you uncover that the child's parents are first cousins who share the same grandmother. What genetic disorders are more likely to occur in the offspring of consanguineous parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      To answer this question, one must have knowledge of consanguinity, which refers to blood relations. In families where both parents share a common ancestor, such as a grandmother, there is a higher likelihood that they both carry a disease allele that runs in their family lineage. This increases the chances of autosomal recessive conditions occurring.

      X-linked dominant, autosomal dominant, and X-linked recessive conditions are not impacted by consanguinity. However, if a family lineage is associated with a disease recessive allele, it is more likely that two carriers will mate if they are blood relatives. Drawing out a family tree can help illustrate the impact of consanguinity on the likelihood of certain genetic conditions.

      Consanguinity and Inherited Defects

      Consanguinity refers to the practice of marrying within the same family or bloodline. When couples who are related marry, the risk of inherited defects is approximately double that of a non-related couple. This is because the genetic material passed down from both parents is more likely to contain the same harmful mutations. However, when second cousins marry, the risk of inherited defects is reduced to that of a non-related couple. This is because second cousins share a smaller percentage of their genetic material compared to first cousins or closer relatives. It is important for couples who are considering marriage to be aware of the potential risks associated with consanguinity and to seek genetic counseling if necessary. By understanding the risks and taking appropriate measures, couples can make informed decisions about their future together.

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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of ibuprofen. On your first contact with him, you notice that he is very unwell.

      His observations are show below :

      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 36 breaths per minute
      Temperature 37.6Âș
      Oxygen saturations 97%

      Select the most appropriate option that correctly explains the abnormality detected on observation

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct stimulation of the medullary respiratory centres by aspirin resulting in hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      The option of a panic attack is unlikely as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with a panic attack and there are no signs of hypoxia mentioned in the stem. Therefore, this option is incorrect. While hospitalization can cause anxiety in patients, it is unlikely to be the correct answer as we already know the underlying cause of the patient’s anxiety. Similarly, while overdosing on drugs can lead to feelings of guilt and anxiety, we know the exact cause of the patient’s hyperventilation, making this answer incorrect.

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old female has a sub total thyroidectomy. After five days, the wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female has a sub total thyroidectomy. After five days, the wound starts discharging pus and becomes erythematous. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus was responsible for the majority of infections, as per the given situation. Infections caused by strep pyogenes and other organisms were infrequent.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, occurring when normal bacteria and other pathogens enter the body through a breach in tissue surfaces. These infections can cause significant morbidity and mortality, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. Patients undergoing surgery have at least a 5% chance of developing an SSI. In many cases, the bacteria causing the infection come from the patient’s own body. Certain measures can increase the risk of SSI, such as using a razor to shave the wound or using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape.

      To prevent SSI, certain steps can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Body hair should not be removed routinely, but if necessary, electrical clippers with a single-use head should be used instead of razors. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given for certain types of surgery, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier. During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, and the surgical site should be covered with a dressing. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for managing surgical wounds healing by secondary intention.

      The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not recommended in the NICE guidelines, as several randomized controlled trials have shown no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used. It has also been found that wound edge protectors do not provide any benefit in preventing SSI. A recent meta-analysis has shown that the administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection, contrary to previous individual RCTs. By following these preventative measures, the risk of SSI can be significantly reduced, leading to better outcomes for patients undergoing surgery.

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  • Question 10 - Which of the following could not be a value of a Pearson's correlation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could not be a value of a Pearson's correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: + 1.5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with leukaemia is admitted to the respiratory ward with a 4 week history of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a non-productive cough. A chest X-ray shows nodules and non-specific infiltrates throughout the lungs, findings which are confirmed through a high-resolution CT scan. The physicians suspect invasive pulmonary aspergillosis and commence the patient on amphotericin infusions.

      What is a frequently observed potential side effect of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 12 - A medication that has its own intrinsic effects but does not treat the...

    Incorrect

    • A medication that has its own intrinsic effects but does not treat the intended condition is known as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An active placebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected digoxin overdose. The individual has a medical history of hypertension, hyperthyroidism, atrial fibrillation, and eczema. The ECG reveals sinus bradycardia. The medical team administers IV digibind and implements measures to safeguard the heart against any electrolyte imbalances.

      What is the correct application of digoxin in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin overdose can cause hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be caused by an overdose of digoxin.

      Digoxin is known to inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for transporting sodium ions out of cells and promoting potassium influx. This inhibition leads to an accumulation of sodium inside the cell, which is then exchanged for calcium via the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger. In the heart, this increased intracellular calcium results in more calcium being released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C and increasing contractility (inotropy).

      However, an overdose of digoxin can cause widespread inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase, leading to reduced potassium influx into cells and resulting in hyperkalaemia. This is a common occurrence in cases of acute digoxin toxicity.

      In addition, digoxin has been found to increase vagal efferent activity to the heart, which has a parasympathomimetic effect and reduces the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, resulting in a decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropy).

      It is important to note that digoxin has a long half-life of 40 hours.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 14 - Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 15 - A team of researchers explore the activation mechanisms of the lectin complement pathway...

    Incorrect

    • A team of researchers explore the activation mechanisms of the lectin complement pathway by group A streptococci. Using CRISPR-Cas9 knockout, they genetically modify wild-type group A streptococci to create a new strain with modified cell surface antigens.

      In their investigation, the scientists find that the removal of a specific monosaccharide antigen impedes the activation of the lectin complement pathway in mice.

      Which pathogenic antigen triggers the activation of this complement pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mannose

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is mannose, as it is a hexose monosaccharide found on the surface of bacteria and is recognized as a PAMP by the human immune system. When mannose-binding lectin (MBL) binds to these carbohydrates, it triggers the lectin complement pathway. Fucose, galactose, and lactulose are not involved in this pathway and do not activate it.

      Overview of Complement Pathways

      Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.

      The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.

      Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.

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  • Question 16 - The progression of cancer involves genetic mutations in the cell cycle. Among the...

    Incorrect

    • The progression of cancer involves genetic mutations in the cell cycle. Among the different stages of the cell cycle, which one has the shortest duration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Anaphase is the shortest phase within the cell cycle, despite being a sub-phase of mitosis which consists of multiple stages.

      The Cell Cycle and its Regulation

      The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.

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  • Question 17 - A 76-year-old woman is being reviewed for her medications on the geriatrics ward....

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is being reviewed for her medications on the geriatrics ward. She has a medical history of left ventricular failure, atrial fibrillation, gout, left-sided hemianopia, hyperthyroidism, and renal colic. The medications she is taking include ramipril, atenolol, digoxin, allopurinol, warfarin, carbamazepine, and diclofenac. Can you identify which of her medications is classified as a narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin falls under the category of narrow therapeutic index drugs, which are medications that require precise dosing and blood concentration levels to avoid severe therapeutic failures or life-threatening adverse reactions. Other examples of narrow therapeutic index drugs include lithium, phenytoin, and certain antibiotics like gentamicin, vancomycin, and amikacin. In contrast, high therapeutic index drugs like NSAIDs, benzodiazepines, and beta-blockers have a wider margin of safety and are less likely to cause serious harm if dosing errors occur.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 18 - An academic clinician is conducting research into the 12-month effects of a new...

    Incorrect

    • An academic clinician is conducting research into the 12-month effects of a new medication on blood pressure levels in patients over the age of 60. As part of their data analysis, they want to determine if there is a significant difference between blood pressure levels at baseline and after 12 months of treatment with the new medication. However, the data is non-normally distributed.

      What would be the most appropriate method to assess for a significant difference between the two groups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 19 - A mother takes her 4-year-old son to the pediatrician. He is experiencing mouth...

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    • A mother takes her 4-year-old son to the pediatrician. He is experiencing mouth sores, a fever, and blisters on his hands and feet. The pediatrician identifies the illness as hand, foot and mouth disease. What is the causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus A16

      Explanation:

      Coxsackievirus A16 and enterovirus are the most common causes of hand, foot and mouth disease. This condition is frequently seen in children and is typically managed conservatively without the need for isolation from school.

      Cytomegalovirus is a virus that usually only causes illness in individuals with weakened immune systems. However, it can also lead to congenital infections that may result in long-term effects such as slowed growth, sensorineural deafness, encephalitis, and a distinctive blueberry muffin appearance.

      Human herpesvirus 6 is responsible for roseola infantum, a common rash that typically affects children under the age of two. This condition is self-limiting and can be managed conservatively.

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS, which can present in a variety of ways depending on the individual’s CD4 cell count, concurrent infections, and disease progression. While HIV may initially cause symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and rash, it does not typically lead to hand, foot and mouth disease.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

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  • Question 20 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide...

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    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ia agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man with a history of asthma visits his doctor due to...

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    • A 45-year-old man with a history of asthma visits his doctor due to persistent symptoms despite using his inhaler. The doctor decides to prescribe a medication called salmeterol, which has a prolonged effect and works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways.

      What specific receptor does salmeterol target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-2 receptors

      Explanation:

      Formoterol acts on beta-2 receptors to cause smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation, while aclidinium is a muscarinic receptors antagonist which results in bronchodilation. Alpha-1 receptors cause vasoconstriction, increased peripheral resistance, increased blood pressure, and mydriasis, while beta-1 receptors lead to cardiac muscle contraction and can increase heart rate. Alpha-2 receptors cause vasoconstriction of certain blood vessels, suppression of norepinephrine release, and decreased motility of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, ÎČ1, and ÎČ2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The ÎČ1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The ÎČ2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

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  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old girl is attending the paediatric outpatient department with symptoms of persistent...

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    • A 14-year-old girl is attending the paediatric outpatient department with symptoms of persistent polyuria, polydipsia and mild hyperglycaemia. Her blood results reveal a mutation in the glucokinase enzyme, leading to a diagnosis of maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY). What is the function of this enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylating glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate

      Explanation:

      Glucokinase is an enzyme primarily found in the liver that plays a crucial role in glucose homeostasis by phosphorylating glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate. This process is essential for the storage of glucose in the liver. A mutation in the glucokinase gene can lead to persistent hyperglycemia in affected individuals.

      Glycogenolysis is the process by which glycogen breaks down into glucose-1-phosphate and glucose. Glucose-6-phosphate is not released during this process.

      Glucokinase uses ATP to phosphorylate glucose, rather than releasing ATP during the process. Therefore, the statement ‘it dephosphorylates glucose to release ATP’ is incorrect.

      Glycogen synthesis involves the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate, which is a key intermediate in the process. Therefore, the statement ‘it oxidizes glucose to form glycogen’ is incorrect.

      When two molecules of glucose are joined together, they form maltose. Therefore, the statement ‘it combines two molecules of glucose to form glycogen’ is incorrect.

      Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism

      Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.

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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a concern of small red...

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    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a concern of small red bumps that are itchy on his abdomen and thighs for the past three days. He noticed yesterday that the rash has become tender. Additionally, he feels fatigued. He went to a water park with his friends five days ago, and no one he knows has had this rash recently.

      What is the most probable organism responsible for this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Hot tub folliculitis is primarily caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Diarrhoea, often seen in individuals who have been treated with antibiotics, can be caused by Clostridium difficile infection of the bowel.

      Granulomatous diseases are typically caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

      Boils are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.

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  • Question 24 - As a junior doctor on the infectious diseases ward, you come across a...

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    • As a junior doctor on the infectious diseases ward, you come across a 42-year-old man who has been experiencing shortness of breath, haemoptysis, weight loss, and cough for the past two months. He has lost 5kg in weight and has recently returned from India where he worked for 18 months. Blood tests show no abnormalities, but a chest x-ray reveals left upper zone consolidation surrounding a round, mass lesion. Further evaluation through high-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest shows left upper lobe consolidation surrounding a 1.7cm, smooth rimmed lesion with a degree of calcification, with no evidence of cavitation or other acute lung pathology. The diagnosis is primary tuberculosis with evidence of tuberculoma formation. Which cytokine is integral to the development of this man's CT findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon-gamma

      Explanation:

      Interferon-gamma is primarily produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells, and plays a key role in macrophage activation, leading to the formation of granulomas. It is also important in preventing tuberculosis by inhibiting intracellular phagolysosomal maturation, allowing for the destruction of infected cells. Interferon-alpha, produced by leukocytes and dendritic cells, has strong antiviral action and activates natural killer cells to form an antiviral and anti-tumor response. Interferon-beta, produced primarily by fibroblasts, also has strong antiviral action and is important in the formation of antiviral and anti-tumor responses. Interleukin-12 is important in tuberculosis infection by activating T helper cell differentiation and natural killer cell activation, and aiding in interferon-gamma release for further macrophage activation, but it does not lead to granuloma formation.

      Understanding Interferons

      Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.

      IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.

      IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

      IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.

      Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.

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  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old man arrived at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, sore...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrived at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, sore throat, non-productive cough, and myalgia that have been present for a day. He mentioned that some of his colleagues at work have also been experiencing similar symptoms. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and no available immunisation records.

      During the physical examination, there were no crepitations detected on auscultation, and his pharynx did not appear to be inflamed. His temperature was recorded at 37.8ÂșC, and the rest of his vital signs were normal.

      The nasopharyngeal swab test confirmed the presence of influenzae A, and no other organisms were detected. The patient was immediately prescribed an antiviral.

      What is the mechanism of action of the antiviral medication given to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for influenzae A is oseltamivir, which works by inhibiting neuraminidase. It is unlikely that the patient was given isoniazid, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Clarithromycin, an antibiotic that inhibits protein translation, is typically used for atypical pneumonia, but since the patient did not present with dyspnea and no bacteria were detected on the nasopharyngeal swab, it is not indicated. Acyclovir, an antiviral that inhibits viral DNA polymerase, is used for herpes infections and is not indicated for influenzae A. Beta-lactams, a class of antibiotics that prevent cell wall synthesis, are not indicated in this patient as no bacteria were detected on the nasopharyngeal swab.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man has been released from the hospital after receiving a liver...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been released from the hospital after receiving a liver transplant. As a preventive measure against graft-versus-host disease, he has been prescribed an immunosuppressant that forms a complex with FK506 binding protein (FKBP) and inhibits calcineurin phosphatase. What is the name of the medication that this patient is likely taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention

      Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.

      Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.

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  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians after confessing to taking three boxes of ibuprofen an hour ago.

      What is the appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated charcoal and N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      If a paracetamol overdose occurs, activated charcoal should be administered within 1 hour for it to be effective. However, if the time has passed, N-acetylcysteine would be the preferred treatment. It is important to note that activated charcoal should not be used as the sole treatment as it does not address the paracetamol that has already been absorbed.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the nomogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE should be consulted for situations outside of the normal parameters. Activated charcoal may be given to patients who present within 1 hour to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line, there is a staggered overdose, or patients present 8-24 hours after ingestion of an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol. Acetylcysteine should also be continued if the paracetamol concentration or ALT remains elevated while seeking specialist advice. The infusion time for acetylcysteine has been increased to 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion and restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 ”mol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

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  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old girl visits her doctor complaining of wheezing and difficulty breathing, particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl visits her doctor complaining of wheezing and difficulty breathing, particularly at night and only during the summer. The doctor suspects that the underlying condition involves mast cells, basophils, eosinophils, and a specific type of T cell that responds to extracellular antigens and plays a role in humoral immunity.

      What is the name of the T cell responsible for the girl's symptoms, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Th2 cells

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of worsening asthma during the night and only occurring during the summer suggest a diagnosis of allergic asthma, which is mediated by Th2 cells. These cells are a type of CD4+ effector T cell that play a role in initiating the humoral immune response by activating B cells to produce antibodies, including IgA, IgE, and certain subtypes of IgG. While CD4 cells also include Th1 cells, which promote cell-mediated immune responses against intracellular pathogens, CD8 cells are cytotoxic T cells that kill target cells by releasing cytotoxic granules.

      T-Helper Cells: Two Major Subsets and Their Functions

      T-Helper cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. There are two major subsets of T-Helper cells, each with their own specific functions. The first subset is Th1, which is involved in the cell-mediated response and delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity. Th1 cells secrete cytokines such as IFN-gamma, IL-2, and IL-3, which help activate other immune cells and promote inflammation.

      The second subset is Th2, which is involved in mediating humoral (antibody) immunity. Th2 cells are responsible for stimulating the production of antibodies, such as IgE in asthma. They secrete cytokines such as IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, and IL-13, which help activate B cells and promote the production of antibodies.

      Understanding the functions of these two subsets of T-Helper cells is important for developing treatments for various immune-related disorders. For example, drugs that target Th1 cells may be useful in treating autoimmune diseases, while drugs that target Th2 cells may be useful in treating allergies and asthma.

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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old male visits the clinic with concerns about his acne, which is...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male visits the clinic with concerns about his acne, which is causing him discomfort and affecting his emotional well-being. Despite using over-the-counter benzoyl peroxide, the lesions on his face, chest, and back persist. The GP decides to prescribe a combination of erythromycin and benzoyl peroxide as a topical treatment. What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin in treating acne?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Macrolides, such as erythromycin, hinder protein synthesis by targeting the 50S subunit of ribosomes in bacteria. This action prevents the creation of proteins, leading to the eventual death of the bacterial cells.

      Quinolone antibiotics, like ciprofloxacin, work by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, which is responsible for unwinding and duplicating bacterial DNA. By hindering this process, bacterial replication is impaired.

      Beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins and cephalosporins, damage the bacterial cell wall, ultimately leading to bacterial cell death.

      Trimethoprim works by inhibiting bacterial dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces the amount of purines available for DNA synthesis in bacteria. This reduction in DNA synthesis slows bacterial replication.

      Tetracyclines inhibit the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, which also reduces protein synthesis and leads to bacterial cell death.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 30 - It is 11:30am and you are halfway through your shift. A 42-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • It is 11:30am and you are halfway through your shift. A 42-year-old male patient has been kept NBM for an endoscopy scheduled for later in the day. He expresses his hunger and experiences a drop in blood pressure. You suddenly remember that you forgot to submit the booking form. What steps should you take now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apologise to the lady, explained what happened and book her in for tomorrow

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, it is essential to be transparent with patients in case of any mishap. In the event of a patient experiencing harm or distress under your care, it is necessary to take corrective measures (if possible), express regret, and provide a comprehensive and timely explanation of the situation, including the potential short-term and long-term consequences.

      Responding to Patient Complaints

      When a patient makes a complaint, it is important for healthcare professionals to respond appropriately and with an open mind. Complaints may come in various forms, such as verbal complaints, informal or formal written complaints addressed to the doctor, complaints addressed to a managing body like a hospital trust or GP practice, or even complaints to the General Medical Council (GMC). However, it is important to note that not all complaints may be warranted or have a basis, and doctors may need to provide a formal reply to give their account of what happened.

      To ensure that patients feel heard and their concerns are addressed, healthcare professionals must respond to complaints in a timely and respectful manner. This may involve acknowledging the complaint, investigating the issue, and providing a clear and concise response. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help to maintain trust and confidence in the healthcare system and improve patient satisfaction.

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  • Question 31 - A clinical trial was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of a new drug...

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    • A clinical trial was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of a new drug in preventing hip fractures in women over the age of 60. One group of 1,000 women received the new drug while another group of 1,400 women received a placebo. The incidence of hip fractures in the drug group was 2% compared to 4% in the placebo group. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one hip fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 32 - A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and difficulty breathing, despite trying various inhalers and oral medications. To alleviate bronchoconstriction, her consultant prescribes a drug that hinders the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid into hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs).

      Which enzyme does this medication inhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is lipoxygenase, which is responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs. This process is important in the formation of leukotrienes, which can cause bronchoconstriction in asthma. Zileuton is a medication that inhibits lipoxygenase and is used in the US for asthma treatment. In the UK, montelukast is used as an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist to block the action of leukotrienes in the lungs.

      Cyclo-oxygenase-1 and cyclo-oxygenase-2 are incorrect answers. These enzymes are responsible for converting arachidonic acid to prostaglandins and thromboxanes, not HPETEs and leukotrienes. NSAIDs are a group of medications that block cyclo-oxygenase enzymes and are commonly used for pain relief. However, they can cause gastric irritation and ulceration, which can be reduced by co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor. NSAIDs also reduce platelet aggregation and increase bleeding, so they should be avoided in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Hydrolase is also an incorrect answer. This enzyme is involved in the conversion of leukotriene A4 to leukotriene B4, which occurs later in the pathway than the conversion of arachidonic acid to HPETEs by lipoxygenase.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 33 - What is the characteristic finding on a blood film after a splenectomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the characteristic finding on a blood film after a splenectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      In cases of hyposplenism, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, poikilocytes (specifically target cells), erythrocytes containing siderotic granules, and Heinz bodies.

      Splenectomy and its Management

      Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenzae, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.

      Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.

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  • Question 34 - A 57-year-old woman attends her regular appointment at the diabetes outpatient clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman attends her regular appointment at the diabetes outpatient clinic. She has had diabetes for about 10 years and has been taking metformin regularly. She also has high blood pressure for which she takes lisinopril. Her latest HbA1c measurement was 7.9% and the physician recommends adding a second oral hypoglycemic to her treatment. The physician also invites the patient to participate in a trial for a new oral hypoglycemic being conducted by an internal medicine resident. The resident explains to the patient that they are testing a new class of oral hypoglycemic drugs and offers the patient the opportunity to enroll in the trial. After reviewing the information sheet provided by the resident, the patient agrees to participate in the trial. The resident then randomly assigns the patient to either the new drug or a placebo. The resident collects data from several patients, including this woman, and measures their fasting blood glucose every two weeks. After collecting all the data, the resident wants to determine if there is a difference in the average blood glucose level between the group of patients taking the new drug and the group taking the placebo. What is the most appropriate statistical test for the resident to use when analyzing the data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T-test

      Explanation:

      During his routine diabetes clinic visit, this individual was enrolled in a randomized controlled trial for a novel oral hypoglycemic medication. To compare the outcomes of two groups with distinct exposures, various methods can be employed. In the case of categorical data, such as determining whether the new drug had a specific impact or not, the variable would have only two potential values, and a suitable approach could be utilized.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 35 - A 55-year-old patient visits his doctor with concerns about enlarged breast tissue causing...

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    • A 55-year-old patient visits his doctor with concerns about enlarged breast tissue causing him embarrassment. He has a medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, bipolar disorder, and diabetes mellitus. He previously used cocaine and now takes methadone. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin for a chest infection. He has not gained weight and wonders if any of his medications could be responsible for his condition.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication that can cause gynecomastia as a side effect. It belongs to the group of cardiac glycoside drugs and is commonly used to treat heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and atrial flutter.

      Amoxicillin, on the other hand, is an antibiotic that is not known to cause gynecomastia.

      Atenolol is a beta-blocker that is used to manage hypertension, angina, and acute myocardial infarction. It is a selective beta-1-adrenergic antagonist and can cause side effects such as bronchospasm, bradycardia, diarrhea, confusion, headache, erectile dysfunction, and peripheral coldness. However, it is not associated with gynecomastia, except for galactorrhea.

      Methadone, a medication used to treat opioid addiction, has been shown to increase plasma prolactin levels after administration. This effect is reversible with dopamine agonist administration, as pituitary prolactin release is inhibited by dopamine secreted from hypothalamic neurons.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 36 - Which type of bias are cohort studies particularly prone to? ...

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    • Which type of bias are cohort studies particularly prone to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 37 - A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain, and leg swelling over the past 3 months. He has a history of sleep apnoea and pulmonary embolism. His partner reports that he has a 20-pack-year smoking history and regularly uses cocaine. The medical team conducted several tests, including an echocardiogram, CT chest, pulmonary function testing, and right cardiac catheterization, which confirmed a diagnosis of primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Which of the following drug management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette has a history of pulmonary hypertension, which involves the narrowing of blood vessels in the lungs. This makes it difficult for the heart to pump blood through the lungs. Vasoactive agents like prostacyclin (PGI-2) are the first-line treatment to promote vasodilation. Iloprost, a synthetic prostacyclin, is commonly used for this purpose. Adrenaline, ergometrine, and metaraminol are not appropriate for managing pulmonary hypertension as they are vasoconstrictors. Nebulised salbutamol is used for bronchoconstricting conditions and is not appropriate for pulmonary hypertension.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 38 - The paramedics are called to attend to a 20-year-old patient who is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • The paramedics are called to attend to a 20-year-old patient who is suspected to be experiencing anaphylaxis. The patient was at a picnic when they suddenly developed facial swelling and difficulty breathing. The patient has a history of anaphylaxis but forgot to bring their medications.

      What are the medications that may be required for immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of anaphylaxis, IM adrenaline holds the utmost significance while hydrocortisone/chlorphenamine are no more administered.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old man with severe asthma is participating in a clinical study. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with severe asthma is participating in a clinical study. The study is testing a new medication for severe asthma and has demonstrated a reduction in serum leukotriene levels in mouse models.

      The lead physician in the clinical trial explains that the investigational drug blocks the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs.

      Which enzyme is blocked by the experimental medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      Lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into HPETEs.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

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  • Question 40 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

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    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history of dizziness and headache. He has no significant past medical history and is on no medications. He is studying computer science at university and lives in poorly ventilated student accommodation with eight other people. He follows a vegetarian diet.

      His observations are heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 23/minute, oxygen saturation 96% on room air, blood pressure 98/66 mmHg and temperature 37.2ÂșC.

      On examination, he has an ataxic gait. Neurological, cardiovascular, abdominal, ENT and respiratory examinations are otherwise normal.

      Urinalysis is normal.

      An ECG demonstrated sinus tachycardia.

      A chest x-ray is unremarkable.

      Blood gas:

      pH 7.25 (7.35-7.45)
      PaO2 10.2 kPa (10-14)
      PaCO2 5.4kPa (4.5-6)
      HCO3 15 mmol/L (22-26)
      SaO2 87% (94-98%)
      Hb 112g/L (130-180)
      Lactate 3.1 mmol/L (<2)
      BE -3.5 (-2 - +2)
      Glucose 5.3 mmol/L (4-6)
      COHb 26% (<2%)
      MetHb 0.2% (< 2%)

      A CT head is normal.

      What is the likely diagnosis and what could explain the low oxygen saturation reading on the arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left shift of oxygen dissociation curve

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide poisoning results in a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, leading to a decrease in the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. This is due to the high affinity of carbon monoxide for haemoglobin, which competes with oxygen for binding. As a result, oxygen delivery to the tissues is impaired, causing hypoxia. The patient’s elevated carboxyhaemoglobin level, dissociation between peripheral and blood gas saturations, lactic acidosis, dizziness, headache, and ataxia all indicate carbon monoxide poisoning. The decreased partial pressure of environmental oxygen, alveolar destruction, and low haemoglobin are not the causes of his hypoxia.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.

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  • Question 41 - A 67-year-old man with Parkinson's disease is experiencing persistent dyskinesia symptoms despite receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with Parkinson's disease is experiencing persistent dyskinesia symptoms despite receiving optimal treatment with levodopa and a dopamine agonist. His physician prescribes amantadine, a drug that stimulates dopamine release from nerve endings. Originally developed as an antiviral medication, what is the most accurate description of its antiviral activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits uncoating of the Matrix-2 (M2) viral protein

      Explanation:

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

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  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old man comes to the genetics clinic seeking advice on the risk...

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    • A 30-year-old man comes to the genetics clinic seeking advice on the risk of passing on an inherited disease to his future children. He is currently planning a family with his partner who is healthy. The patient has a medical history of retinitis pigmentosa and has a pacemaker implanted. During the examination, you observe bilateral ptosis and reduced eye movements in all directions. The patient mentions that his mother and sister also exhibit similar symptoms.

      As a healthcare professional, what guidance would you provide to the patient regarding the likelihood of his offspring inheriting this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of his children will inherit the condition

      Explanation:

      A man with Kearns-Sayre syndrome, a mitochondrial disease, will not pass on the condition to any of his children. This disease is characterized by ptosis, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, cardiac conduction defects, and a proximal myopathy. Diagnosis is confirmed through muscle biopsy and polymerase chain reaction analysis of mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited through defects in DNA present in the mitochondria, which are only passed down through the maternal line. Other examples of mitochondrial diseases include MERRF, MELAS, and MIDD.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

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  • Question 43 - A 26-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency and prescribed oral iron...

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    • A 26-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency and prescribed oral iron supplements. As a first-time user, she is concerned about other substances that may hinder the absorption of iron. Can you suggest any substance that can enhance the absorption of the supplement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, can assist in the absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract by converting Fe3+ to Fe2+. This is due to the acidic nature of vitamin C, which lowers the pH of the stomach and aids in the reduction of iron from its ferric to ferrous form. The ferrous form is more easily absorbed by the mucosal cells of the duodenum. On the other hand, milk and tea can hinder iron absorption, while fish oil has no known interactions with iron. It is recommended to take iron supplements separately from other medications to avoid any potential interactions.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman (gravida 2 para 2) has just given birth and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman (gravida 2 para 2) has just given birth and is considering breastfeeding her newborn. She has heard that breast milk can provide immunoglobulins to protect her baby. What is the main type of immunoglobulin found in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      Breast milk contains the highest concentration of IgA, which is the primary immunoglobulin present. Additionally, IgA can be found in the secretions of various bodily systems such as the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

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  • Question 45 - A 47-year-old man is seen in the emergency department by an emergency doctor...

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    • A 47-year-old man is seen in the emergency department by an emergency doctor and a medical student. The patient is HIV positive. The doctor tells the patient that his chest x-ray and blood results show that he has aspergillosis. He prescribes a course of amphotericin

      The emergency doctor then asks you to explain the medication to the patient and answer any questions they may have.

      Which one of the following pieces of information must you tell the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphotericin is a nephrotoxic drug

      Explanation:

      Amphotericin is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which is an adverse effect. Additionally, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and flu-like symptoms are other potential adverse effects. It should be noted that among antifungal agents, azoles are known to be toxic to the liver, while amphotericin is specifically associated with nephrotoxicity.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

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  • Question 46 - During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides...

    Incorrect

    • During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides haemagglutinin, what is the other antigenic determinant of this illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      The major antigenic determinants of influenzae are haemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA). HA attaches to sialic acid residues on the cell surface, while NA catalyzes the cleavage of glycosidic linkages to sialic acid bonds, enabling new progeny viruses to exit the cell. Therefore, the correct answer is neuraminidase.

      Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions

      Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.

      Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.

      Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.

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  • Question 47 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall...

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    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall at home. He has a history of alcoholism and is currently being treated by the gastroenterology team.

      In the past few days, he has been feeling increasingly unsteady on his feet and has fallen once, but denies any head injury. His son made the appointment as he has noticed his father becoming more forgetful over the past week.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits reduced sensation in his lower legs and nystagmus when looking to the side.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis responsible for his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 48 - What is the virus being studied by the researchers that is fatal if...

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    • What is the virus being studied by the researchers that is fatal if contracted by pregnant women and affects erythrocyte progenitors and endothelial cells, leading to severe anaemia and potential heart failure, ultimately resulting in fetal loss or accumulation of fluid in the serous cavities of the fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is the correct answer for the virus described in the vignette. This virus is the smallest DNA virus and the only single-stranded DNA virus. Infections during pregnancy can be fatal for the baby, as the virus suppresses fetal erythropoiesis, leading to severe anaemia and heart failure, ultimately resulting in hydrops fetalis. In children, infections cause erythema infectiosum or fifth disease, which presents with a characteristic ‘slapped cheek’ appearance.

      Ancylostoma duodenale is not the correct answer, as it is a roundworm/nematode, not a virus. Although infections with this parasite can cause microcytic anaemia as the worm sucks blood from the intestinal wall.

      Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) is also not the correct answer, as it is an enveloped, double-stranded virus, unlike parvovirus. Infections with HSV-1 cause gingivostomatitis, herpetic whitlow, and temporal lobe encephalitis. The virus can also remain latent in the trigeminal ganglia.

      Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8) is also not the correct answer, as it is an enveloped, double-stranded virus, unlike parvovirus. Infections with HHV-8 are mainly seen in patients with HIV/AIDS or post-transplant patients, causing a neoplasm of endothelial cells known as Kaposi sarcoma.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

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  • Question 49 - Which drug is the least likely to trigger an episode of acute intermittent...

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    • Which drug is the least likely to trigger an episode of acute intermittent porphyria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Drugs to Avoid and Use in Acute Intermittent Porphyria

      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is a genetic disorder that affects the production of haem. It is characterized by abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms and is more common in females. AIP is caused by a defect in the porphobilinogen deaminase enzyme. Certain drugs can trigger an attack in individuals with AIP, including barbiturates, halothane, benzodiazepines, alcohol, oral contraceptive pills, and sulphonamides. Therefore, it is important to avoid these drugs in individuals with AIP. However, there are some drugs that are considered safe to use, such as paracetamol, aspirin, codeine, morphine, chlorpromazine, beta-blockers, penicillin, and metformin.

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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acute paronychia that progresses to sepsis. Why...

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    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acute paronychia that progresses to sepsis. Why does the tissue exudate have a higher protein content compared to normal tissue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capillary walls are more permeable

      Explanation:

      Plasma proteins are able to exude due to the heightened permeability.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

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  • Question 51 - A 44-year-old man from India is staying with relatives in the UK. He...

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    • A 44-year-old man from India is staying with relatives in the UK. He presents to the doctor with concerns about difficulty reading the newspaper in the morning. He is unsure if it is due to blurry vision or difficulty distinguishing colors. He has a medical history of tuberculosis and is currently undergoing quadruple therapy. Which medication in his regimen could be causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The standard quadruple therapy consists of ethambutol, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and rifampicin.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 52 - A 15-year-old boy complains of muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise, along...

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    • A 15-year-old boy complains of muscle pain and early fatigue during exercise, along with dark urine. He is diagnosed with McArdle's disease.

      What is the enzyme that limits the defective pathway in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for energy use and blood glucose maintenance. McArdle’s disease, a type V glycogen storage disease, is caused by a deficiency of myophosphorylase, which is involved in glycogenolysis in muscle. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle, while phosphofructokinase-1 limits the rate of glycolysis. Glycogen synthase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenesis.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

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  • Question 53 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of a 12-hour duration of high fever, fatigue,...

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    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of a 12-hour duration of high fever, fatigue, and a widespread erythematous rash. She recently started her menstrual cycle 5 days ago and suspects that she may have unintentionally left a tampon inside for the past 4 days.

      What organism is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is primarily caused by the superantigen toxin TSST-1 produced by Staphylococcus aureus. This patient’s symptoms, including fever, fatigue, and rash after prolonged tampon use, are consistent with this diagnosis. Other symptoms may include flu-like symptoms, diarrhoea, dizziness, and confusion. Treatment involves hospital admission, antibiotics, and fluids. Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes are not the primary cause of this syndrome.

      Understanding Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome

      Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is a severe reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, specifically the TSST-1 superantigen toxin. It gained attention in the 1980s due to cases related to infected tampons. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have established diagnostic criteria for this syndrome, which includes fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of the rash (especially on the palms and soles), and involvement of three or more organ systems. These organ systems may include the gastrointestinal system, mucous membranes, kidneys, liver, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.

      The management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome involves removing the source of infection, such as a retained tampon, and administering intravenous fluids and antibiotics. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of the symptoms of this syndrome are present.

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  • Question 54 - A 40-year-old woman with a history of Sjogren's syndrome visits her doctor complaining...

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    • A 40-year-old woman with a history of Sjogren's syndrome visits her doctor complaining of repeated episodes of oral and vaginal candidiasis. She has previously been treated with nystatin and clotrimazole pessaries, but now wants further investigations to determine the underlying cause of her recurrent infections.

      Upon conducting a full blood count, the results show lymphopenia, and flow cytometry reveals a specific deficiency of which type of lymphocyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Cytotoxic T cells, which express the CD8 antigen on their cell surface membrane. These cells are essential for the cell-mediated immune response and their deficiency can lead to recurrent candidal infections.

      B lymphocytes, B memory cells, and Helper T cells are incorrect answers. These cells do not express the CD8 antigen on their cell surface membranes. Instead, they express different antigens at different stages of development, such as CD20, CD21, CD19, and CD4, among others.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • Question 55 - A 78-year-old lady is brought to the emergency department from a care home....

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    • A 78-year-old lady is brought to the emergency department from a care home. She has been complaining of general malaise for several days and she now has photophobia and a painful neck. On examination, she is pyrexic and tachycardia. She is provisionally diagnosed with meningitis pending further investigations. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Individuals in the 60 years age group are susceptible to meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is the most prevalent bacterial source of meningitis in the elderly. Lyme disease, on the other hand, is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.

      Meningitis is a serious medical condition that can be caused by various types of bacteria. The causes of meningitis differ depending on the age of the patient and their immune system. In neonates (0-3 months), the most common cause of meningitis is Group B Streptococcus, followed by E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes. In children aged 3 months to 6 years, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes. For individuals aged 6 to 60 years, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the primary causes. In those over 60 years old, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes are the most common causes. For immunosuppressed individuals, Listeria monocytogenes is the primary cause of meningitis.

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  • Question 56 - A 43-year-old woman is advised by her surgeon before an elective living-donor liver...

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    • A 43-year-old woman is advised by her surgeon before an elective living-donor liver transplant. The potential risks of the surgery are discussed, and the patient is brought to the operating room.

      After the donor's liver is connected to the patient with minimal blood loss, the patient experiences hypotension and develops a fever of 38.8ÂșC in the following minutes. The liver is then removed, and the patient is stabilised.

      Which cell is accountable for this patient's complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cell

      Explanation:

      B cells are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection, which is characterized by fever and low blood pressure immediately after transplantation. The only treatment for hyperacute organ rejection is the surgical removal of the donated organ. Basophils, on the other hand, are not involved in hyperacute organ rejection but are responsible for anaphylactic reactions and histamine release. Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection, which occurs from 1 week and 1 year post-surgery, respectively.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

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  • Question 57 - A new test to screen for breast cancer in patients with a positive...

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    • A new test to screen for breast cancer in patients with a positive family history is tested on 920 patients. The test is positive in 18 of the 22 patients who are proven to have breast cancer. Of the remaining patients, only 12 have a positive test. What is the negative predictive value of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 890/894 = 99.6%

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value can be calculated using the formula TN / (TN + FN), where TN represents true negative and FN represents false negative. In the given data, a contingency table can be created with the categories of ovarian cancer and no ovarian cancer, and the results of the test being positive or negative. Using this table, the negative predictive value can be determined as 890 / (890 + 4) = 890/894.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 58 - A 26-year-old woman suddenly collapses following a wasp sting. Upon reaching her, you...

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    • A 26-year-old woman suddenly collapses following a wasp sting. Upon reaching her, you observe significant swelling in her face and a noticeable wheezing sound. Anaphylaxis is suspected. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is commonly linked to this type of reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ig E

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the mediator of type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, such as anaphylaxis, is IgE.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 59 - You are assessing a 68-year-old female patient in your general practice. She complains...

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    • You are assessing a 68-year-old female patient in your general practice. She complains of muscle pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for the past two weeks. Her creatine kinase levels are normal, but her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 60 mm/hr. You diagnose her with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and initiate a one-week trial of prednisolone 15mg once daily. Which receptor does this medication target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone decreases inflammation and leukocyte migration by acting on nuclear receptors, making it the correct answer.

      Lidocaine and amlodipine are examples of common medications that act on ion channels.

      Adenosine and oxymetazoline are examples of common medications that act on GPCR.

      Insulin and levothyroxine are examples of common medications that act on tyrosine kinase receptors.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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  • Question 60 - You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant...

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    • You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet exhibited any clinical manifestations of the disease.

      What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low penetrance

      Explanation:

      When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

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