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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding mitochondrial inheritance is true?

      Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia is caused by defects in mitochondrial DNA

      Correct Answer: Poor genotype:phenotype correlation

      Explanation:

      The human cell has two type of DNA: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA (MtDNA). A MtDNA copy is passed down entirely unchanged, through the maternal line. Males cannot pass their MtDNA to their offspring although they inherit a copy of it from their mother. There is poor genotype:phenotype correlation. Within a tissue or cell there can be different mitochondrial populations (this is known as heteroplasmy).
      Examples of mitochondrial diseases include:
      – Leber’s optic atrophy
      – MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes)
      – MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibres)
      – Kearns-Sayre syndrome (more severe syndromic variant of chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, onset in patients < 20 years old)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eosinophil count in the blood

      Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32 yr. old male who was on methadone has suddenly collapsed while...

    Correct

    • A 32 yr. old male who was on methadone has suddenly collapsed while running and was found dead. What is the most likely cause for his death?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT

      Explanation:

      Methadone and cocaine can cause QT prolongation through the direct effects on the resting membrane potential. Methadone can increase QT dispersion in addition to QT interval. Methadone inhibits the Human Ether-a-go-go Related Gene (hERG) and causes QTc prolongation and development of Torsades de point. Brugada-like syndrome is another condition found in methadone users which predisposes the users to life-threatening ventricular tachycardia and sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60 yr. old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe central chest pain associated with excessive sweating and nausea for the past 45 minutes. On examination he was found to have xanthelasma. His blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 104 bpm. His ECG showed ST elevation more than 2mm in leads II, III and aVF. His troponin T was 120 ng/ml. His FBC and renal functions were normal. He was given aspirin, clopidogrel, morphine and IV 5mg of atenolol. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Transfer to coronary care unit for closer monitoring

      Correct Answer: Immediate referral to cardiologist for primary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is acute inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction so the most appropriate management is primary angioplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Correct

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Treatment including with interferon, immunoglobulin and Ribavirin is effective

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus is an RNA virus transmitted by the Culex species of mosquitoes. It is mostly prevalent in South America, Africa and some parts of Europe. Clinically it presents with high grade fever, headache, abdominal pain, anorexia and a morbilliform rash over the body. It can also lead to meningitis, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis by affecting the anterior horn cells, a process suggesting similarity to poliomyelitis. It can be fatal if not treated abruptly. Studies suggest that it can be transferred from mother to offspring. New-borns may present with encephalitis, chorioretinitis and wide spread brain damage. Patients suffering from West Nile virus can be effectively treated with interferon, IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Emotional numbing

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old...

    Correct

    • A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      The dendritic ulceration seen on fluorescein staining of the eye is pathopneumonic for keratitis caused by HSV (herpes simplex virus). Presentation is that of blepharoconjunctivitis. Treatment is required, the treatment is typically topical acyclovir. Topical steroids can make the infection worse. The other answer choices would not have this dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, watering eye, complaining of a severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, watering eye, complaining of a severe left sided headache and vision distortion with coloured haloes. What would be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Measure Intraocular pressure

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma can manifests itself with severe headache, nausea or vomiting, very blurry or hazy vision, seeing rainbows or halos around lights and redness in the white part of the affected eye. It is caused by a rapid or sudden increase in pressure inside the eye – intraocular pressure (IOP). In order to establish the diagnosis and start treatment immediately, IOP should first be measured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm. Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?

      Your Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.
      They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.
      They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60 yr. old male smoker and a known hypertensive presented with central...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old male smoker and a known hypertensive presented with central chest pain radiating to the back. On examination he was tachycardic and hypotensive. His ECG showed inferior ST elevation and his transoesophageal echocardiogram showed a double lumen in the ascending aorta. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dissecting aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      The classic history in this high risk patient is suggestive of a dissecting aortic aneurysm. His transoesophageal echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis. ST elevation in ECG is probably due to the extension of the dissection of the aorta which results in compromised coronary blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?

      Your Answer: Bile acid sequestration

      Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha

      Explanation:

      The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-α, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-α activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up. The following results are obtained: Urine analysis: Protein+, HBA1c 86mmol/mol (10.0%). What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?

      Your Answer: There is no relation between HbA1c and average blood glucose

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8–12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
      Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals: Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180) Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45) Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4) White cell count 60 per ml (<5) Lymphocytes 90% Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
      The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
      Other treatment modalities include:
      • Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
      • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
      • PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
      • Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission. What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Secondary cancer

      Explanation:

      The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Is a risk factor for later conductive deafness

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA is converted to RNA

      Correct Answer: RNA is converted to DNA

      Explanation:

      Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right...

    Correct

    • A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      79.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on the beach. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Irrigate with cold water

      Correct Answer: Emollient cream

      Explanation:

      Sun burn reactions usually occur after individuals with a light skin tone have prolonged exposure to the sun. The usual symptoms are redness and itching of the skin. The best treatment plan would be further avoidance of sun exposure and the topical application of emollients. These are Ist degree burns and aggressive therapy is not required in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain. This started earlier on in the day and is getting progressively worse. The pain is located on his left flank and radiates down into his groin. He has no history of this pain or any other condition. Examination reveals a gentleman who is flushed and sweaty but is otherwise unremarkable. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer: Immediate abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s presentation with flank pain that radiates to the groin, we are suspecting renal colic. We should follow guidelines for acute renal management and prescribe IM diclofenac for immediate relief of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for 2 hours. Which of the following ECG findings is an indication for thrombolysis in this patient?

      Your Answer: 2 mm ST depression in all chest leads

      Correct Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads

      Explanation:

      Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Heliotrope rash around external auditory meatus

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
      Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
      Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
      Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
      Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
      Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 120mg

      Correct Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full. On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thoracic inlet syndrome

      Correct Answer: Median nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer: Hyporeninaemia

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.

      congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic.   Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      15.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (0/3) 0%
Rheumatology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (2/5) 40%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Passmed