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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is brought to his general practitioner by his daughter because of haematuria. While taking the history, it becomes apparent that he has had blood in his urine for the past two months and it has gotten progressively worse. Now he also has left flank pain. He has lost 8 lb in the past month without trying. He denies dysuria, fever, nausea and chills. His family history is significant only for ‘diabetes’ in both parents. He has a 40-pack-year history, drinks an occasional glass of wine and denies any history of illicit drug use.
On examination, he is afebrile and his vital signs are stable. On deep palpation of his left upper quadrant, there is a firm, non-mobile mass.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Haematuria, Flank Pain, and Palpable Mass
The patient in question presents with haematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass, which are indicative of renal cell carcinoma. This triad of symptoms is only seen in a small percentage of patients and is often referred to as the too late triad because it indicates a poor prognosis. Renal cell carcinoma arises from the epithelial lining of the proximal convoluted tubule and has a tendency to metastasize haematogenously.
Other potential diagnoses include chronic pyelonephritis with abscess formation, which is typically seen in patients with anatomical defects in the genitourinary tract. A partially obstructive renal calculus can also cause haematuria, but it is not associated with a palpable mass, and the history of insidious onset and unintentional weight loss are suggestive of malignancy.
Prostate cancer with retroperitoneal metastases is another potential diagnosis, but it does not typically cause haematuria. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is a possibility, given the patient’s smoking history and haematuria, but the flank pain and abdominal mass make renal cell carcinoma the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents with complaints of fever, back pain, and painful urination. Upon examination, suprapubic tenderness and tender prostate are noted. The diagnosis of acute prostatitis is suspected. What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Immediate antibiotic therapy should be initiated for men suspected of having prostatitis. While urine cultures and sexual health screening are important, treatment should not be delayed. According to NICE, quinolone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily should be administered for 28 days to treat acute prostatitis. If these antibiotics are not suitable, trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily for 28 days is recommended. Pain management through analgesia should also be provided, and patients should be reevaluated within 24 to 48 hours.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.
For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.
For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with bloody diarrhoea, vomiting and fever. Her siblings and parents have also had similar symptoms after attending a birthday party at a local park. Her stool sample is positive for E. Coli and the Paediatric Team are concerned that she has haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) secondary to this infection.
Which of the following results are most likely to be found if this patient is suffering from HUS?
Your Answer: Acute renal failure, low platelets, low haemoglobin
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition characterized by the simultaneous occurrence of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. This set of blood tests shows all three of these symptoms, indicating a possible diagnosis of HUS. HUS is most commonly found in children, with 90% of cases caused by Shiga toxin-producing E. coli. However, a patient with normal renal function and high platelet count is unlikely to have HUS, as low platelet count is a typical symptom. If a patient has ongoing diarrhoea or vomiting due to E. coli infection, they may require intravenous fluids to support their renal function. A raised haemoglobin level is not expected in HUS, as patients usually have reduced haemoglobin due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Additionally, HUS typically causes thrombocytopenia, not high platelet count. In some cases, children with HUS may require platelet transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
Your Answer: Sodium reabsorption
Explanation:Functions of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule in the Nephron
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is a crucial part of the nephron, responsible for several important functions. One of its primary roles is the reabsorption of sodium, which occurs through active transport facilitated by the numerous mitochondria in the epithelial cells. This creates a concentration gradient that allows for the passive reabsorption of water. Glucose is also reabsorbed in the PCT through secondary active transport, driven by the sodium gradient. The PCT also regulates the pH of the filtrate by exchanging hydrogen ions for bicarbonate ions. Additionally, the PCT is the primary site for ammoniagenesis, which involves the breakdown of glutamine to α-ketoglutarate. Finally, the regulation of urine concentration occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct under the influence of vasopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Check CA125
Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks
Explanation:Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.
Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during a routine check-up. The results show a decline in her renal function. Upon further examination, she reports experiencing ankle swelling and increased fatigue. The renal team suspects she may have amyloidosis. What diagnostic test could be used to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Renal Amyloidosis
Renal amyloidosis is a condition that can be challenging to diagnose. It is caused by the accumulation of proteinaceous material in tissues, which can be identified through a biopsy. Congo-red staining extracellular fibrillar material is a characteristic feature of amyloid protein in the kidney. While a urine dip may show proteinuria, a renal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis as proteinuria can be caused by other conditions. A bone marrow biopsy can confirm amyloidosis if there is suspicion of bone marrow infiltration. CT scans of the abdomen may reveal abnormalities in the kidneys or lymph nodes, but a renal biopsy is still required for a definitive diagnosis. As amyloidosis can affect other organs, a lung biopsy may not be the most targeted approach for diagnosing renal amyloidosis. Overall, a renal biopsy is the most reliable method for diagnosing renal amyloidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently on metformin 1g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His BMI is 29 kg/m². Blood tests are taken.
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Potassium 4.0mmol/L
Urea 5.8mmol/L
Creatinine 135 umol/L
eGFR 44 ml/min/1.73m²
HbA1c 7.5% (58 mmol/mol)
What modification to his current treatment plan is recommended based on the provided information?Your Answer: Add thiazolidinedione
Correct Answer: No change to medication
Explanation:Metformin is typically the first choice for diabetes treatment due to its positive impact on weight. Sulphonylureas are usually the second option, unless they cause hypoglycaemia or are not well-tolerated. If sulphonylureas are not an option, alternatives like DPP4 inhibitors or thiazolidinediones may be considered. Insulin is the next line of treatment after metformin and sulphonylureas, but DPP4 inhibitors may be preferred if insulin is not suitable or if the patient wants to avoid injections or weight gain. However, DPP4 inhibitors should only be continued if they are effective, as they can be expensive.
When it comes to metformin and renal function, it is recommended to stop using it if creatinine levels exceed 150mmol/L or eGFR is below 30ml/min/1.73m². Caution is advised when eGFR is between 30-45ml/min/1.73m², taking into account the rate of deterioration in renal function. For example, if eGFR has remained stable at 33ml/min/1.73m² for six months, it may be reasonable to continue using metformin. However, if eGFR has decreased from 50 to 38ml/min/1.73m², it is likely that metformin should be discontinued due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. In evaluating his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which of the following variables is not necessary for the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?
Your Answer: Age
Correct Answer: Serum urea
Explanation:The eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate) is determined by several variables, including CAGE, which stands for Creatinine, Age, Gender, and Ethnicity.
Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease: eGFR and Classification
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to filter waste products from the blood. Serum creatinine, a commonly used measure of kidney function, may not provide an accurate estimate due to differences in muscle mass. To address this, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation were developed to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account variables such as serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity.
It is important to note that certain factors may affect the accuracy of eGFR results, such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent consumption of red meat. CKD can be classified based on eGFR, with stage 1 indicating a GFR greater than 90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage on other tests. Stage 2 indicates a GFR of 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage, while stage 3a and 3b indicate a moderate reduction in kidney function with GFR ranges of 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively. Stage 4 indicates a severe reduction in kidney function with a GFR range of 15-29 ml/min, while stage 5 indicates established kidney failure with a GFR less than 15 ml/min, which may require dialysis or a kidney transplant. It is important to note that if all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is seen in the diabetes clinic. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 116 µmol/l
eGFR 47 ml/min
She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and protect her kidneys. The medication was titrated up to the treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 123 µmol/l
eGFR 44 ml/min
What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?Your Answer: Stop lisinopril and arrange investigations to exclude renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.
Hypertension Management in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are particularly effective in proteinuric renal disease such as diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs may cause a small decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and a rise in creatinine. According to NICE guidelines, a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes such as NSAIDs. A rise greater than this may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful antihypertensive drug in CKD patients, especially when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient becomes dehydrated due to conditions such as gastroenteritis, the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min. Overall, hypertension management in CKD patients requires careful monitoring and individualized treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presented to his GP with two instances of painless visible haematuria. He was subsequently referred to urology for biopsy and flexible cystoscopy, which revealed a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits her GP at 12 weeks gestation complaining of dysuria. Apart from this, she is healthy and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Upon urine dip, leucocytes, nitrates, blood, and protein are detected. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Although UTI in pregnancy may not show any symptoms, it still needs to be treated promptly to prevent the development of pyelonephritis. The common medications used to treat UTIs are nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided at term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy. Penicillins and cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy, but sulfonamides (such as sulfasalazine) and quinolones (such as ciprofloxacin) should be avoided.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria, left flank pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals a mass in the left flank. Blood tests show hypochromic anaemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Common Kidney Disorders and Their Symptoms
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC), renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), renal amyloidosis, and reflux nephropathy are some of the common kidney disorders. RCC is the most prevalent type of kidney cancer in adults, and it may remain asymptomatic for most of its course. Renal tract calculi cause sudden onset of severe pain in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. ADPKD is a multisystemic disorder characterised by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Renal amyloidosis is caused by extracellular and/or intracellular deposition of insoluble abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Reflux nephropathy is characterised by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman complains of urine leakage issues for the past six months. She reports frequent urination and difficulty reaching the toilet in time. She denies experiencing urine loss during coughing or sneezing. What is the best initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:The initial treatment for urinary incontinence differs depending on the type. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining is the recommended first-line approach. On the other hand, for stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training is the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of dysuria. She denies any cough, shortness of breath, nausea or vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. She has a medical history of breast cancer and is currently undergoing treatment with doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide.
Upon examination, her temperature is 38.1ºC, her heart rate is 93 bpm, her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg, and her oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations reveal no abnormalities. There are no visible skin changes and she does not appear to be visibly ill.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Immediate full blood count and white cell differentials
Correct Answer: Immediately prescribe IV piperacillin/tazobactam
Explanation:In cases where neutropenic sepsis is suspected, immediate administration of IV antibiotics, such as piperacillin/tazobactam, is crucial, even if the diagnosis has not been confirmed yet. This is because patients with neutropenic sepsis may not exhibit obvious signs or symptoms of infection due to their weakened immune response, and delaying treatment can be potentially fatal. Therefore, waiting for the results of a full blood count or blood cultures is not recommended before starting treatment. While blood cultures should be taken as soon as possible, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be given first to provide urgent cover. Nitrofurantoin may be used for a urinary tract infection, but it is not appropriate for immediate treatment of neutropenic sepsis.
Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.
To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.
According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.
If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross haematuria. She reports that her sister recently underwent a kidney transplant and that her mother passed away due to renal failure. During physical examination, a significant mass is palpated in the left lumbar region, and a smaller mass is felt in the right flank. Elevated levels of blood urea and serum creatinine are observed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Adult polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Common Kidney Disorders and their Clinical Presentations
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
ADPKD is a progressive disorder characterized by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Patients may experience pain in the abdomen, flank or back, and hypertension is a common early manifestation. Palpable, bilateral flank masses are present in advanced ADPKD.Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. It may remain clinically occult for most of its course, with only 10% of patients presenting with the classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and unilateral palpable flank mass. RCC presents with hypercalcaemia manifestations in 5% of cases and with varicocele in 2% of men.Renal Calculi
Renal calculi, or nephrolithiasis, classically present with sudden onset of severe pain originating in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. On examination, there is dramatic costovertebral angle tenderness.Prostatic Carcinoma
Most cases of prostate cancer are identified by screening in asymptomatic men. Symptoms include urinary complaints or retention, back pain, and haematuria. Findings in patients with advanced disease include bony tenderness, lower-extremity oedema or deep venous thrombosis, and an overdistended bladder due to outlet obstruction.Renal Amyloidosis
Patients with renal amyloidosis typically present with proteinuria and/or hypertension, followed by progressive renal failure. Haematuria is not a feature.Clinical Presentations of Common Kidney Disorders
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you encounter a patient who is fifty-five years old and has a past medical history of prostatitis. He is interested in getting a prostate specific antigen test done due to his family's history of prostate cancer. What would be an appropriate time to conduct the test?
Your Answer: Perform a digital rectal exam instead
Correct Answer: One month after his prostatitis diagnosis
Explanation:To prevent false results, it is recommended to refrain from conducting a prostate specific antigen test within a month of prostatitis. This is because prostatitis can cause an increase in PSA levels. It is important to note that a digital rectal examination cannot replace a PSA test. Additionally, if a patient is not experiencing any symptoms, conducting the test may lead to unnecessary investigations. It is also important to keep in mind that a normal PSA level does not necessarily rule out the possibility of prostate cancer.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the early pregnancy unit drop-in clinic complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past 2 days. The results of her urine dipstick test are as follows: Leucocytes +++, Nitrites +, Protein -, pH 5.0, Blood +, Ketones -, Glucose -. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?
Your Answer: 7-day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for lower UTI in pregnant women who are not at term is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. However, nitrofurantoin should be avoided in women who are close to term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. It is important to promptly and appropriately treat UTI in pregnancy as it is associated with pre-term delivery and low-birthweight. Amoxicillin and cefalexin are second-line options, but local guidelines may vary. It is important to note that a 3-day course of nitrofurantoin is not recommended according to NICE guidelines.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
Which class of CKD does he belong to?Your Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:
– CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in for a routine check-up. Upon examination, he appears healthy with no abnormal findings except for his blood pressure, which is measured at 160/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 16 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 163 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What additional factor would indicate that the cause of this presentation is chronic rather than acute?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Hypocalcaemia is a sign that the patient’s kidney disease is chronic rather than acute. This is because chronic renal failure can result in a lack of conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, which is necessary for intestinal calcium absorption. As a result, hypocalcaemia is a marker that suggests the kidney disease is chronic and not acute. Anuria, haematuria, and normal parathyroid hormone levels are not indicative of chronic kidney disease. Most patients with chronic kidney disease are asymptomatic until very late-stage renal disease occurs, at which point they may experience other symptoms such as oedema, anaemia, and pruritus. Oliguria is more suggestive of an acute kidney injury in this scenario.
Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.
In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with diabetes undergoes routine blood work and evaluation. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is reported as 52 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2). How would you classify her kidney function?
Your Answer: CKD stage 2
Correct Answer: CKD stage 3a
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys gradually lose their function over time. To help diagnose and manage CKD, doctors use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.
There are five stages of CKD, each with a different GFR range and level of kidney function.
– Stage 1: GFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (normal or high)
– Stage 2: GFR 60–89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
– Stage 3a: GFR 45–59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
– Stage 3b: GFR 30–44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
– Stage 4: GFR 15–29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
– Stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) The 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b, and adding the suffix ‘P’ to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the stage of CKD can help doctors determine the appropriate treatment and management plan for their patients. It’s important for individuals with CKD to work closely with their healthcare team to monitor their kidney function and manage any related health issues. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A patient in their 50s is prescribed finasteride for the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What duration of treatment should the patient be informed of for the medication to take effect?
Your Answer: Up to 6 months
Explanation:It may take up to 6 months of Finasteride treatment for results to become noticeable in BPH.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.
IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.
Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.
Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.
Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.
In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and incontinence presents to you with a complaint of increased urinary incontinence when coughing or sneezing after starting a new medication. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Relaxation of the bladder outlet and urethra caused by doxazosin can exacerbate stress incontinence symptoms. This medication, classified as an alpha blocker, is commonly prescribed for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia-related urinary retention. Therefore, doxazosin is the appropriate response.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease for the last 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality in this patient population?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to gradually lose their ability to function properly. There are several common causes of this condition, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease.
Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys. Chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition in which the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys, become inflamed and damaged over time. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can cause scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also damage the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition in which cysts form in the kidneys, causing them to enlarge and lose function.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage the condition and prevent further damage to the kidneys. Treatment may involve medications, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, dialysis or kidney transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with facial and ankle swelling that has been gradually developing over the past week. He reports passing 'frothy' urine during the review of systems. A urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is confirmed after a 24-hour urine sample. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
Which medication should this patient be started on?
Your Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation:Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis
Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is observed in the right groin. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair
Explanation:Patient has an asymptomatic inguinal hernia and surgical repair is recommended as conservative management may not be effective.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with a family history of adult polycystic kidney disease approaches his GP for screening. What would be the most suitable screening test?
Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen
Explanation:The recommended screening test for adult polycystic kidney disease is ultrasound, while genetic testing is not yet routinely advised for screening relatives.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.
To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.
Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
Sodium 130 mmol/l (135-145)
Potassium 7.3mmol/l (3.5-5.0)
Urea 9.1mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
Creatinine 167 mmol/l (60-110)
To begin with, she is administered IV calcium gluconate.
What effect does this medication have on the electrolyte levels?Your Answer: No change
Explanation:To stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, IV calcium gluconate is administered. This is done to prevent further increase in potassium levels. The removal of potassium from the extracellular space to the intracellular space is achieved through a combination of insulin and dextrose or nebulized salbutamol. Calcium resonium is then used to excrete potassium from the body.
Managing Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia, if left untreated, can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to address any precipitating factors, such as acute kidney injury, and stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. The management of hyperkalaemia can be categorised by the aims of treatment, which include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body.
The severity of hyperkalaemia can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, with the latter being defined as a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L or higher. It is important to note that the presence of ECG changes is crucial in determining the appropriate management. ECG changes associated with hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia involve stabilising the cardiac membrane with IV calcium gluconate, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments with a combined insulin/dextrose infusion or nebulised salbutamol, and removing potassium from the body with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis. In practical treatment, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment with IV calcium gluconate, insulin/dextrose infusion, and other temporary measures to lower serum potassium levels. Further management involves stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying cause, and lowering total body potassium with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and a presumptive diagnosis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is made. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:A renal biopsy should only be considered if the response to steroids is inadequate.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension. Now this is not adequately controlling his blood pressure, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment is planned. On routine baseline blood tests, prior to commencing treatment, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 49 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer: Recheck blood tests in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Examine the patient, and perform urinalysis
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Suspected Chronic Kidney Disease
When a patient presents with suspected chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to perform a thorough examination and urinalysis to confirm the diagnosis. While patients with CKD stages 1-3 may not exhibit symptoms, those in stages 4-5 may experience endocrine/metabolic derangements or disturbances in water or electrolyte balance. Anaemia is often one of the first signs of CKD, but the lack of physical findings on examination does not exclude kidney disease. Initial screening for proteinuria can be done with a standard urine dipstick, and further testing may be necessary if the test is positive. Referral to a nephrology outpatient may be necessary, depending on the severity of the CKD. ACE inhibitors should only be started once the patient’s baseline renal function has been established, and blood tests should be rechecked in 2 weeks. Immediate admission is only necessary for patients with CKD stage 5 who present with acute indications for dialytic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents with features of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the most likely cause for his condition?Your Answer: Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: d-Penicillamine
Explanation:Pharmacologic Treatments and Complications: A Review
Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, malignancy, and exposure to certain drugs such as captopril, gold, lithium, or penicillamine. Treatment with chelating agents like D-penicillamine is the mainstay of treatment for Wilson’s disease, but it can cause proteinuria in up to 30% of patients. Hydroxychloroquine is used for active rheumatoid arthritis but can cause ocular toxicity. Methotrexate is used for severe Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis but can cause bone marrow suppression. Topical NSAIDs are unlikely to cause systemic side-effects, while sulfasalazine can cause rare but serious side-effects in patients with G6PD deficiency. It is important to monitor patients closely for complications when using these pharmacologic treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the GP with a swelling in his scrotum. He is feeling well otherwise. Upon examination, there is a soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum that is painless and illuminates brightly with a pen torch. The swelling is localized to the scrotum, and the rest of the scrotum can be palpated above the mass. The testicle is palpable with no apparent mass. The patient is particularly concerned about the possibility of having testicular cancer.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Scrotal swelling caused by an accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis is known as a hydrocele. This condition can be identified by its ability to transilluminate brightly with a pen torch and is confined to the scrotum. While epididymo-orchitis can also cause unilateral swelling, it is typically tender and accompanied by systemic symptoms. Testicular cancer may lead to a hydrocele, but if the testis is palpable and normal, it is less likely to be the cause of the swelling. In cases where the testis is not palpable, patients should be referred for a testicular ultrasound.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with vomiting and diarrhoea. Blood tests reveal an AKI with the following results, which were normal during her last check-up with her GP 3 weeks ago. She is given intravenous fluids and a renal ultrasound scan is scheduled.
Creatinine 180 umol/l
Urea 10 mmol/l
eGFR 25 ml/min
Which medication should be discontinued until her renal function returns to normal?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:This woman is experiencing an acute kidney injury, most likely caused by dehydration leading to pre-renal failure. The function of the kidneys is determined by the glomerulus’ ability to filter blood, which is dependent on the perfusion pressure of the glomerulus. This pressure is influenced by two factors: the overall blood flow to the kidney (which is reduced in cases of dehydration and hypovolemia) and the auto-regulation of the afferent and efferent arterioles, which fine-tunes the pressure.
Prostaglandin E2 mediates the dilation of the afferent arteriole to increase blood flow, while angiotensin II mediates the constriction of the efferent arteriole to increase pressure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can disrupt this auto-regulation by blocking prostaglandin E2, contributing to acute kidney injury. However, oral aspirin is an exception and does not harm the kidneys. Drugs that block angiotensin II, such as ACE inhibitors like Ramipril and angiotensin receptor blockers, should be avoided during an AKI as they also disrupt auto-regulation.
In contrast, ACE inhibitors and ARBs are beneficial in chronic kidney disease due to their antihypertensive and anti-inflammatory effects. In CKD, glomerular perfusion pressures are elevated, and reducing this pressure can help prevent glomerular damage and a decline in GFR.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old G1P0 woman attends her routine antenatal appointment at 12 weeks gestation and reports experiencing burning retrosternal pain. Omeprazole is prescribed, and a urine sample is taken. The urinalysis shows trace protein with no haematuria, nitrates, or white cells, and the patient denies any urinary symptoms. During the appointment, her blood pressure is measured at 135/88 mmHg. Upon further testing, the urine sample is found to have scant growth of Escherichia coli. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure and advise the woman to reattend for antibiotics if she develops urinary symptoms
Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should be treated promptly with antibiotics. The recommended treatment is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. This is important to prevent the development of symptomatic urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin is safe to use in the first and second trimester, but should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. The patient’s blood pressure is within normal range and does not require treatment. The trace of protein in her urine is likely related to her asymptomatic bacteriuria and should be monitored with subsequent urine dips. Antihypertensive treatment is not necessary based on the trace of protein alone. Prescribing a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended as it is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy due to the increased risk of neural-tube defects. Prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is not necessary as the patient does not meet the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension. Similarly, prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended for the same reasons.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.
IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.
Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.
White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.
In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents. They are concerned that he has been experiencing excessive thirst and needing to go to the bathroom to urinate frequently. There is suspicion that this may be a case of diabetes insipidus. Upon investigation, it is found that his symptoms are unresponsive to a desmopressin (ADH analogue).
What is the most suitable medication for managing this child's condition?Your Answer: Chlorothiazide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, resulting in excessive urination and thirst. Thiazide diuretics are paradoxically used to treat this condition by blocking the NaCl transporter in the distal tubule, leading to increased uptake of sodium and water in the proximal collecting duct. This results in less water loss through urination and improved symptoms. Desmopressin is not effective in treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus as it works by increasing ADH levels. Loop diuretics like bumetanide are not used to treat this condition. Insulin has no use in diabetes insipidus. Terlipressin is only effective in cranial diabetes insipidus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is found to be 170/100 mmHg (and high blood pressure is confirmed during home blood pressure readings.) He is investigated for secondary causes, none are found, and a diagnosis of primary hypertension is made. His GP starts him on 5mg lisinopril. Two weeks later, his kidney function results show:
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the improvement in his renal function?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis can lead to significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor. This condition is commonly caused by atherosclerosis, but young females may also develop it due to fibromuscular dysplasia. As it often lacks symptoms, it can go unnoticed. While ACE inhibitors may cause a slight rise in serum creatinine, they usually only mildly affect renal function. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function two weeks after initiating ramipril and other ACE inhibitors. Glomerulonephritis, which refers to inflammation of the glomeruli, has multiple causes and typically results in gradual renal function decline, not rapid worsening after ACE inhibitor initiation. Although renal calculi and renal artery thrombosis can cause acute kidney injury, the patient in this question lacks pain and thrombosis risk factors. Chronic, untreated hypertension can also affect renal function, but it progresses slowly over years, and the patient’s renal function was normal before starting ramipril.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of lower abdominal pain. She describes the pain as all over the lower abdomen. On further questioning, she reports having noticed a small amount of odorous vaginal discharge, urinary frequency and pain on urination. Her basic observations include heart rate 98 beats/minute, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, blood pressure 110/65 mmHg, temperature 38.5 °C. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness of the suprapubic region, right iliac fossa and bilateral lower back.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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