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  • Question 1 - A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday....

    Correct

    • A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.

      During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ºC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Monitor symptoms

      Explanation:

      This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      77.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has been diagnosed with dementia. He visits you seeking guidance on financial benefits available to him, having heard about 'carer's credit' in the media.

      What is the accurate definition of 'carer's credit'?

      Your Answer: Help with transport costs for the carer

      Correct Answer: National insurance credits towards the state pension for a carer

      Explanation:

      Carer’s Credit: A National Insurance Record Boost for Carers

      Carer’s credit is a program that provides credits to carers who may have gaps in their national insurance record due to caring for their loved ones. This program ensures that carers will not be affected in claiming their state pension later in life. To be eligible for the carer’s credit, the carer must be at least 16 years old, under the State Pension age, and must be looking after one or more people for at least 20 hours a week. The person being cared for must receive one of the following: Disability Living Allowance care component at the middle or highest rate, Attendance Allowance, Constant Attendance Allowance, Personal Independence Payment – daily living component, at the standard or enhanced rate, or Armed Forces Independence Payment. The carer’s credit program is a helpful way to support carers who dedicate their time and effort to care for their loved ones.

      Reference:
      Carer’s Credit – https://www.gov.uk/carers-credit/overview. Department of Work and Pensions
      Carer’s Credit – http://www.macmillan.org.uk/information-and-support/organising/benefits-and-financial-support/looking-after-someone-with-cancer/carers-credit.html. Macmillan Cancer Support

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old female presents with a four day history of fever, sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a four day history of fever, sore throat and rash on the front of her left leg. On examination she has tonsillar enlargement with cervical lymphadenopathy and has erythema nodosum on her left shin.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Beta-haemolytic streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Strep. pyogenes and its Characteristics

      This girl exhibits features that are consistent with Strep. pyogenes, a beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The bacterium is known to cause pharyngitis, and erythema nodosum is also commonly associated with the infection. Additionally, it is responsible for acute rheumatic fever, which is described by the Jones criteria. The treatment of choice for this infection is Penicillin V.

      While Epstein-Barr may be a consideration, it is not typically associated with erythema nodosum. It is important to identify the causative agent in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      94.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you clerk her in she admits to you that she has not felt herself for the past few weeks with polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.

      Blood tests show:

      Estimated glomerular filtration rate >60 ml/min
      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l)
      Parathyroid hormone 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, the PTH level may appear normal despite the presence of high serum calcium and low phosphate levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by chronic hypocalcemia, resulting in high PTH levels and either low or normal serum calcium levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is a result of autonomous parathyroid production, is commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease who previously had secondary hyperparathyroidism. While hypercalcemia can also be caused by sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis, these conditions are relatively rare.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      68.4
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  • Question 5 - You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 24 year old female with irritable bowel syndrome who expresses frustration with the lack of relief from loperamide and antispasmodic medication. After re-evaluating her history and conducting a thorough examination, you find no new developments or concerning symptoms. What course of action do you suggest for further treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines on the diagnosis and management of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) in primary care, tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should be considered as a second-line treatment for individuals with IBS if laxatives, antispasmodics, or loperamide have not been effective. The decision to prescribe medication should be based on the severity and nature of symptoms, and the choice of medication or combination of medications should be determined by the predominant symptom(s). Antispasmodic agents should be considered for individuals with IBS, along with dietary and lifestyle advice. Laxatives may be used for constipation, but lactulose should be avoided. Linaclotide may be considered for individuals with constipation who have not responded to other laxatives, and loperamide is the first choice for diarrhea. Individuals with IBS should be advised on how to adjust their medication doses to achieve a soft, well-formed stool. TCAs may be considered if other medications have not been effective, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered if TCAs are not effective. Healthcare professionals should monitor individuals taking TCAs or SSRIs for side effects and adjust the dosage as necessary.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass pollen allergy) has just started. Despite starting her nasal steroid, nasal antihistamine, and oral antihistamine 2 weeks ago, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. She is getting married in a few days and is looking for a quick solution to improve her nasal itching and watery discharge.

      What would you recommend as a possible option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer short course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When standard treatment fails to control allergic rhinitis, it may be necessary to use short courses of steroids to manage important life events. However, it is important to note that oral steroids should only be used for a brief period if the symptoms are severe and significantly impacting the person’s quality of life. There is no evidence to suggest that switching to a different steroid nasal spray would be more effective. Chlorphenamine, a sedating antihistamine, would not be suitable in this situation. Intramuscular steroids are not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis from repeated doses. While immunotherapy may be an option in the long term, it will not provide immediate relief in time for a significant event such as a wedding.

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od

      Explanation:

      If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - For which conditions have randomised controlled trials demonstrated that long term oxygen therapy...

    Incorrect

    • For which conditions have randomised controlled trials demonstrated that long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) decreases mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      LTOT Prolongs Survival in COPD

      Adequate evidence supporting the use of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) to prolong survival is only available for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is commonly assumed that this therapy can also be beneficial for other chronic hypoxaemic lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
      Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis

      Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.

      Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.

      Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism

      Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.

      In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.

      Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her father, who is concerned as she has trouble sleeping. Her weight, length, and head circumference are all below the 5th centile. She has a flat nasal bridge, microcephaly, and retrognathia.
      What additional feature would support the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speech and language delay

      Explanation:

      The presence of speech and language delay, along with growth failure and craniofacial abnormalities, is indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). FAS is caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy and can also result in low IQ, hyperactivity, feeding difficulties, and problems with memory, coordination, problem-solving, and judgement. However, not all heavy drinking during pregnancy leads to FAS, as other factors such as the mother’s health, age, stress levels, and nutritional status may also play a role. Recurrent regurgitation after feeding is a common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which can cause feeding difficulties and failure to thrive, but is not associated with the physical abnormalities seen in FAS. Preterm delivery and small for gestational age babies with microcephaly are typical of infants born to mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy, but this is less common than FAS. Rocker bottom feet are a distinguishing feature of Edward’s syndrome (Trisomy 18), which also presents with low birth weight, micrognathia, microphthalmia, microstomia, low set ears, cleft palate, a short sternum, and thumb aplasia, but not with a flat philtrum or posteriorly rotated ears. Sensorineural deafness is associated with congenital rubella infection, which is the most common cause of congenital deafness in the developed world. Congenital rubella infection can also cause intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, microphthalmia, jaundice, learning disability, congenital heart disease, congenital cataracts, and congenital glaucoma, but is not associated with a flat philtrum, retrognathia, or posterior rotation of the ears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 13 - A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:

      – Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
      – Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
      – Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
      – Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
      – Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.

      In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during a fall while on vacation in Italy. The fracture clinic diagnosed her with a fragility fracture and advised her to see her GP in the UK for bone protection. She has no family history of hip fracture or osteoporosis, is a non-smoker, and doesn't drink alcohol. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she has no other significant medical issues.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      As per the current NICE CKS guidance, individuals who are above 50 years of age and have a previous fragility fracture should be referred for a DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density (BMD). It is not necessary to calculate their QFracture risk or FRAX score before arranging the scan. Even if their QFracture risk is low, they are still at risk due to their history of fragility fracture. For patients over 75 years of age who have had a fragility fracture, treatment (oral bisphosphonates as first line) should be initiated immediately without the need for a DEXA scan. However, it is important to note that this differs from the NOGG guidelines 2014, which recommend treatment for all women over 50 years who have had a fragility fracture.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marked pruritus

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis

      Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.

      On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.

      In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without any identifiable physical, psychological, or environmental triggers. Despite attempts at behavioral interventions, there has been no improvement. Recently, she attacked one of her caregivers, causing concern for their safety. The caregivers are considering medication as a possible solution. Which medication would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic and Melatonin Medications for People with Learning Disabilities and Autism

      Concerns about the overuse of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications in people with learning disabilities and/or autism have been raised. Instead, a full assessment of physical, psychological, and environmental factors should be conducted when a person presents with challenging behavior. Psychological and behavioral interventions should be considered first.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that antipsychotic medication should only be used if other interventions do not produce change within an agreed time, treatment for coexisting mental or physical health problems has not led to a reduction in behavior, or the risk to the person or others is severe. Olanzapine is the only antipsychotic medication offered in the option list, but other antipsychotic drugs may also be appropriate. Antipsychotic medication should only be offered in combination with psychological or other interventions and initiated by a specialist.

      Melatonin, a pineal hormone that affects sleep patterns, may be of value for treating sleep-onset insomnia and delayed sleep phase syndrome in children with conditions such as visual impairment, cerebral palsy, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, autism, and learning difficulties if behavioral measures fail. Clinical experience supports this use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.

      He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.

      Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.

      In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.

      In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.

      Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypermetropia

      Explanation:

      Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle closure glaucoma, while myopia is linked to primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.

      Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.

      The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a history of well-managed asthma presents with a 10-hour history of a pruritic rash. He mentions having recently recuperated from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. The patient has a diffuse urticarial rash on his trunk and limbs. There are no signs of mucosal swelling, he is stable hemodynamically, and his chest is clear upon auscultation.

      What is the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral non-sedating antihistamine

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for acute urticaria is oral non-sedating antihistamines. These include cetirizine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. Urticarial rash is caused by inflammatory mediators released during mast cell activation, with histamine being the principal mediator. H1 receptor antagonists inhibit this process. Non-sedating antihistamines are preferred over sedating antihistamines as they do not cause significant drowsiness, as they do not cross the blood-brain barrier. Intramuscular adrenaline is not indicated for acute urticaria, as it is only used in suspected anaphylaxis. Oral steroids may be prescribed in addition to a non-sedative oral antihistamine if the symptoms are severe. Topical antihistamines are not recommended by NICE for the management of acute urticaria.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding retirement contracts is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PMS practices may take part in the QOF scheme

      Explanation:

      Comparison of GP Contracts

      The General Medical Services (GMS), Personal Medical Services (PMS), and Alternative Provider Medical Services (APMS) contracts differ in several ways. The GMS contract is nationally negotiated and allows GPs or qualifying health professionals to provide essential services, with optional additional services and enhanced services. The PMS contract is locally negotiated with mandatory terms and includes core and additional services similar to GMS. The APMS contract has no restriction on providers and the scope of services depends on the individual contract.

      The payment structure also varies between the contracts. GMS has a global sum with a Minimum Practice Income Guarantee (MPIG), Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF), enhanced services, premises, and IT. PMS has a baseline set nationally and QOF, while APMS is locally negotiated.

      The type of contract also differs. GMS is open-ended and cannot be terminated unless fault is proven. PMS is usually for five years, and the contract may be terminated. APMS is usually for three years, and the contract may also be terminated.

      It is worth noting that the majority of practices are under the GMS contract, while GPs in PMS tend to have higher incomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis comes in for evaluation. Her hands are...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis comes in for evaluation. Her hands are severely affected by the disease and she needs assistance with bathing and getting dressed. Which benefit form should be filled out?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attendance Allowance

      Explanation:

      As the individual is over 65 years of age, they qualify for Attendance Allowance instead of Personal Independence Payment (which is the updated term for Disability Living Allowance).

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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  • Question 23 - A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.

      Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent

      Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.

      The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 24 - A 21-year-old female with no significant medical or family history presents to surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female with no significant medical or family history presents to surgery requesting to start an oral contraceptive pill. If a combined pill is selected, which of the following options would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethinylestradiol 30 mcg with levonorgestrel 150 mcg

      Explanation:

      For individuals using the combined oral contraceptive pill for the first time, the faculty suggests a pill containing 30 mcg of estrogen.

      Choice of Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) comes in different variations based on the amount of oestrogen and progestogen and the presentation. For first-time users, it is recommended to use a pill containing 30 mcg ethinyloestradiol with levonorgestrel/norethisterone. However, two new COCPs have been developed in recent years, namely Qlaira and Yaz, which work differently from traditional pills.

      Qlaira is a combination of estradiol valerate and dienogest with a quadriphasic dosage regimen designed to provide optimal cycle control. The pill is taken every day for a 28-day cycle, with 26 pills containing estradiol +/- dienogest and two pills being inactive. The dose of estradiol is gradually reduced, and that of dienogest is increased during the cycle to give women a more natural cycle with constant oestrogen levels. However, Qlaira is more expensive than standard COCPs, and there is limited safety data to date.

      On the other hand, Yaz combines 20mcg ethinylestradiol with 3mg drospirenone and has a 24/4 regime, unlike the normal 21/7 cycle. This shorter pill-free interval is better for patients with troublesome premenstrual symptoms and is more effective at preventing ovulation. Studies have shown that Yaz causes less premenstrual syndrome, and blood loss is reduced by 50-60%.

      In conclusion, the choice of COCP depends on various factors such as cost, safety data, and missed pill rules. It is essential to consult a healthcare provider to determine the most suitable COCP based on individual needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 25 - A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in the local memory clinic. He wants more information on whether he can continue to drive his car to the nearby shops.

      According to DVLA guidance, which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate advice about continuing to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should inform the DVLA of his new diagnosis for further potential assessment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Informing DVLA about Mild Dementia

      Although the patient’s dementia is classified as mild, it is crucial for him to inform the DVLA to determine if he can still drive safely.

      It is important to note that individuals with mild cognitive impairment, not mild dementia, may still be able to drive without any impairment and do not need to notify the DVLA.

      However, in this case, the patient should liaise with the DVLA to determine the next appropriate steps, which may include driving restrictions or cessation.

      It is essential to prioritize safety on the road, and informing the DVLA is a crucial step in ensuring this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis

      Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undergo malignant change in 1 in 200 cases

      Explanation:

      Most pathologists hold the view that uterine leiomyosarcomas, which may appear as ‘fibroids’ at first, are most likely new growths rather than a conversion of pre-existing fibroids.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.

      Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 28 - You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic dermatitis and eczema, which have been well controlled for a few years. However, over the past two months, she has experienced a flare-up, particularly around her mouth. She attempted to alleviate the symptoms with an over-the-counter steroid cream, but it only made the condition worse.

      During the examination, you observed clustered erythematous papules around her mouth, but the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border was unaffected. Her cheeks and forehead were also unaffected.

      Based on the most probable diagnosis, which of the following management options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline tablets

      Explanation:

      Peri-oral dermatitis cannot be treated with potent steroids as they are not effective. Emollients are also not recommended for improving the condition. Patients are advised to stop using all face care products until the flare-up of peri-oral dermatitis has subsided. The British Association of Dermatology (BAD) provides a useful leaflet on this condition that should be consulted.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which began to resolve. He presents now with jaundice on returning from a holiday in Spain. As part of a group of 20 he had visited hillside forests and went fishing in mountain streams. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is a bacterial infection that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, including rodents, skunks, foxes, cattle, and dogs. Rat urine and faeces are common sources of transmission. Due to its varied symptoms, leptospirosis can be easily missed, making thorough history taking essential for diagnosis.

      Symptoms of leptospirosis include fever, headache, myalgia, oliguria, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. In some cases, patients may also experience haemorrhagic tendencies with purpura or petechiae. It is important to note that not all infected individuals will exhibit all of these symptoms.

      Weil’s disease is a particular concern for those who participate in water sports, as the bacteria can survive in fresh and saltwater. In the UK, there are approximately 40 cases of leptospirosis reported each year, with the majority of cases occurring between June and October. Awareness of the potential for leptospirosis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and a raised temperature. She had an IUCD inserted two weeks ago. On examination, a pregnancy test is negative, she has a small amount of vaginal discharge, and there are white blood cells present on dipstick test of her urine. What is the probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of PID Following IUCD Insertion

      The most probable diagnosis in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is following the insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). To support the diagnosis, swabs should be taken, although negative results do not necessarily rule out PID if there are clinical indications.

      Expert opinions differ on whether to remove the IUCD at the time of presentation. However, if symptoms persist after 72 hours, the IUCD should be removed. Proper diagnosis and management of PID following IUCD insertion are crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient’s well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
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