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Question 1
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia
Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.
Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.
Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.
Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.
Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a history of treatment resistant schizophrenia presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and general malaise over the past few days. He appears uncomfortable and sweaty while lying on the bed. Which medication is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Schizophrenia that is resistant to treatment can be very challenging to manage. Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is one of the most effective drugs for this condition. However, it should only be used as a second or third line medication after trying at least two other antipsychotics for 6-8 weeks, with one of them being from the atypical class. Although clozapine is highly effective, it can cause serious side effects such as weight gain, excessive salivation, agranulocytosis, neutropenia, myocarditis, and arrhythmias. In this patient’s case, there is concern that he may be experiencing myocarditis due to his underlying psychiatric condition and potential use of clozapine.
Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic schizophrenia complains of nausea and vomiting. He is given metoclopramide to alleviate his symptoms. However, after twenty minutes, he becomes restless and experiences severe oculogyric crises and oromandibular dystonia. What medication should be prescribed in this situation?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Procyclidine is the usual treatment for acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics. This patient’s acute dystonic reaction can be reversed with procyclidine, which is an anticholinergic medication that blocks acetylcholine. This medication can alleviate muscle stiffness, sweating, and excessive saliva production, and can also improve walking ability in individuals with Parkinson’s disease. The patient most likely developed this reaction due to long-term use of antipsychotics and subsequent administration of metoclopramide. While midazolam and lorazepam can relieve anxiety, they are not effective in treating dystonia.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 9-year-old patient is brought to General Practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Behavioral Disorders in Children and Adults
Conduct Disorder:
Conduct disorder is a behavioral disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others, including bullying and torture of animals.Major Depression:
Major depression is a mood disorder that is diagnosed when an individual experiences depressed mood along with at least five of the following symptoms: changes in sleep patterns, loss of interest in activities, feelings of guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts.Antisocial Disorder:
Individuals who exhibit signs of conduct disorder and are 18 years or older are diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.Manic Episode:
Mania is a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood lasting for at least 7 days. Symptoms include increased energy, decreased need for sleep, risky sexual behavior, feelings of invincibility, distractibility, flight of ideas, agitation, and pressured speech.Oppositional Defiant Disorder:
Oppositional defiant disorder is a behavioral disorder characterized by oppositional behavior towards authority figures. However, there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who reports experiencing auditory hallucinations that have been occurring more frequently, now happening every day. Based on his history, which of the following factors is the most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders?
Your Answer: Having a parent with schizophrenia
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for psychotic disorders is a person’s family history.
Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder that affects a significant portion of the population. The strongest risk factor for developing this condition is having a family history of the disorder. Individuals with a parent who has schizophrenia have a relative risk of 7.5. Additionally, monozygotic twins have a 50% chance of developing schizophrenia, while siblings have a 10% chance. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% chance of developing the disorder.
Aside from family history, other factors can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia. Black Caribbean ethnicity has a relative risk of 5.4, while migration and living in an urban environment have relative risks of 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use also increases the risk of developing schizophrenia, with a relative risk of 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who may be at risk of developing the disorder. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and support to prevent or manage the onset of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?
Your Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history of restricting food intake weight loss and excessive exercise. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?Your Answer: Serum prolactin
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation:Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: Which Ones Are Necessary?
When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, certain medical investigations may be necessary to evaluate their overall health and identify any potential complications. However, not all investigations are routinely required. Here is a breakdown of some common investigations and when they may be necessary:
Electrocardiogram (ECG): A baseline ECG is important to assess for any cardiovascular instability, including heart rate and QT interval. Electrolyte abnormalities from eating disorders can impact cardiac stability.
24-hour Holter monitor: This investigation may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.
Chest X-ray (CXR): A CXR is not routinely required unless there is clinical concern of other respiratory symptoms.
Serum prolactin: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
Transthoracic echocardiography: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a clinical history or examination findings to suggest imaging of the heart is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?
Your Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation
Explanation:To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A woman contacts the local psychiatry crisis team, worried about her daughter - who has previously been diagnosed with schizophrenia - becoming more isolated and paranoid about her surroundings. She reports that her daughter is increasingly concerned about her neighbors eavesdropping on her conversations. Her symptoms were previously well managed on daily risperidone. When the woman visited her daughter, she discovered unopened boxes of her medication on the counter.
What would be a suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Consider admission
Correct Answer: Depot risperidone injections
Explanation:Considering the patient’s increasing symptoms of psychosis, it is possible that non-compliance with their risperidone medication is an issue. In such cases, it is recommended to consider once monthly IM antipsychotic depot injections for patients with poor oral compliance. However, the patient’s risperidone dose would need to be re-titrated to their previous level.
Clozapine is typically used for treatment-resistant psychosis after trying two other antipsychotics. However, there is no evidence of the patient having tried multiple antipsychotics, and it appears that risperidone was effectively controlling their symptoms. If risperidone is not effective, quetiapine could be tried before considering Clozapine, provided there are no contraindications.
While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can be helpful in reducing symptoms of psychosis, it is less likely to be effective than monthly depot injections.
Based on the patient’s history, there is no indication that they pose a risk to themselves or others that would warrant admission. Therefore, efforts should be made to manage the patient in the community.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old man from West Africa presents to his GP in January with symptoms of depression. He has no significant medical history but is a regular cannabis smoker. He has experienced similar episodes during the past two winters. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder
Explanation:Understanding Seasonal Affective Disorder
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that typically occurs during the winter months. It is important to treat SAD in the same way as depression, following the guidelines set out by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). This involves starting with psychological therapies and monitoring the patient’s progress after two weeks to ensure that their symptoms have not worsened. If necessary, an SSRI can be prescribed.
It is important to note that sleeping tablets should not be given to patients with SAD, as this can exacerbate their symptoms. While light therapy is often suggested as a treatment option, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited. As a result, it is not routinely recommended.
In summary, SAD is a form of depression that requires careful management and treatment. By following the appropriate guidelines and avoiding certain medications, patients can receive the support they need to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old man arrives at the hospital accompanied by his spouse. He appears restless, agitated, sweaty, and tremulous. According to his wife, the patient has been consuming at least half a bottle of vodka daily for several months. However, he has significantly reduced his alcohol intake in the past few days due to a lack of funds. His last drink was approximately eight hours ago. What medication would be the best option for treating this man's symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:In the management of alcohol withdrawal, decreasing doses of long-acting benzodiazepines are commonly used. This is because long-term alcohol use can cause an imbalance in the brain’s excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to symptoms of an overactive sympathetic nervous system when alcohol is suddenly stopped. These symptoms can include restlessness, sweating, tremors, and agitation, and can even progress to seizures and delirium tremens. Long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, potentiate the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and can help mitigate the risk of seizures and other withdrawal symptoms. Carbamazepine, an anticonvulsant, may also be used as a second-line medication if benzodiazepines are not appropriate. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is not typically used in alcohol withdrawal as it does not reduce the risk of seizures. Lorazepam, a short-acting benzodiazepine, is also not typically used in this context as long-acting benzodiazepines are preferred for their longer half-life.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is experiencing insomnia and is prescribed temazepam. What is the mechanism of action of temazepam?
Your Answer: Inhibits the effect of glutamate
Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation:The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, GABA, is amplified by benzodiazepines.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss (her BMI is now 18.5 kg/m2, down from 21 kg/m2 one year ago). You are familiar with the patient and have ruled out any physical causes for her weight loss. When you inquire about purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, she appears hesitant to answer, but you notice that her tooth enamel is eroded. She expresses feeling extremely overweight and has been experiencing low mood for several months, finding little pleasure in anything except for when she indulges in too much chocolate and bread. However, afterwards, she feels even more disgusted with herself.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her condition?Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that is characterized by binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, laxative abuse, excessive exercise, and drug use. Individuals with bulimia often experience feelings of loss of control and intense guilt during binge episodes. Pitting of tooth enamel caused by stomach acid is a common sign of regular vomiting. Unlike anorexia nervosa, bulimia is not usually associated with severe weight loss. The condition is ten times more common in women. It is important to recognize the symptoms of bulimia and seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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Sarah, a 26 year old female with treatment resistant schizophrenia, was started on clozapine 2 weeks ago. Prior to this she was prescribed risperidone, which was reduced down prior to commencement of clozapine. She also takes fluoxetine for depression. Her psychiatric symptoms have improved since starting clozapine, however she is now feeling unwell, reporting a sore throat, and on examination is found to have a temperature of 38.5 degrees. Which of the following blood tests would be the most beneficial in this scenario?
Your Answer: FBC
Explanation:Monitoring is crucial for detecting the life-threatening side effect of clozapine, which is agranulocytosis/neutropenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?
Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?Your Answer: Section 2
Correct Answer: Section 4
Explanation:In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
Explanation:Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.
Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.
Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.
Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests as part of her health check-up. Her blood test results are as follows:
Na+ 125 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 µmol/l
She is currently taking sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, and aspirin. Which medication is most likely responsible for her hyponatremia?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 70-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with a persistent conviction that his daughter has been replaced by a stranger for the past 8 months. The patient has a history of dementia due to Alzheimer's disease.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Capgras syndrome
Explanation:Capgras syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that their friend or partner has been replaced by an imposter who looks identical to them. Othello syndrome is characterized by an unfounded suspicion that one’s partner is cheating on them. De Clerambault syndrome is a delusional belief that someone of higher social or professional status is in love with the individual. Cotard syndrome is a condition where an individual has a delusional belief that they are dead.
Understanding Capgras Syndrome
Capgras syndrome is a condition characterized by a false belief that a loved one has been replaced by an imposter who looks identical to them. This delusion can be distressing for both the person experiencing it and their loved ones. The syndrome is often associated with neurological or psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia, dementia, or traumatic brain injury.
Individuals with Capgras syndrome may recognize the physical features of their loved ones but believe that they are not the same person they once knew. They may also feel that the imposter is trying to harm them or their loved one. This can lead to feelings of paranoia and fear.
Treatment for Capgras syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy. Antipsychotic medication may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms of psychosis, while cognitive-behavioral therapy can help individuals challenge their delusions and develop coping strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack. She complains of feeling down, having difficulty concentrating, and loss of appetite since the incident. She attempted online cognitive behavioural therapy but it did not help. She feels that life has lost its meaning and that she is a burden to her family. You decide to initiate treatment with an SSRI. Which medication would be the most suitable to begin with?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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For what has the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended the use of varenicline?
Your Answer: Smoking cessation (cigarettes)
Explanation:The Use of Varenicline in Smoking Cessation and Other Substance Withdrawals
Varenicline, marketed as Champix®, is a medication used in combination with motivational support to aid smoking cessation. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends offering varenicline or nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) to all smokers, along with advice and encouragement to quit. The choice of therapy depends on factors such as the smoker’s compliance, availability of counseling and support, previous experience with cessation aids, contraindications, and personal preference. However, varenicline use has been associated with changes in behavior and thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, depression, and suicidal ideation, so monitoring is advised.
While varenicline is not currently indicated for cannabis cessation, some studies suggest that it may reduce the enjoyment reported from using cannabis, which could lead to further investigation in this area. However, varenicline has no role in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal, and the FDA has warned that people taking varenicline should reduce their alcohol intake due to the potential for unusual behavior, including aggression. The use of varenicline for opioid withdrawal in patients with chronic pain is also under investigation but is not currently recommended. Finally, varenicline is not indicated for cocaine cessation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?
Your Answer: Buccal pigmentation
Correct Answer: Increased excessive physical activity
Explanation:Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:
Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.
Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.
Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.
Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.
Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.
Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.
Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.
What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?Your Answer: Incoherence
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania. However, the patient has remained on topic and has not derailed. Their response is coherent, and there is no evidence of pressured speech in this text-based interaction. Incoherence would be demonstrated by nonsensical statements, which is not the case here.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy?
Your Answer: Abnormal liver function
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Side-Effects of Lithium Maintenance Therapy
Lithium maintenance therapy is a common treatment for bipolar disorder, but it can also cause a range of side-effects. One of the most common is hypothyroidism, which affects up to 5% of patients on lithium and requires regular thyroid function tests. Weight gain, acne, tremors, and polydipsia are also common, as well as ankle edema and a metallic taste in the mouth. Lithium can also cause renal toxicity, so regular urea and electrolyte tests are necessary. However, lithium does not cause abnormal liver function or fever, and actually causes leukocytosis rather than leucopenia. Cystitis is also not a typical side-effect of lithium. Overall, understanding the potential side-effects of lithium maintenance therapy is crucial for managing bipolar disorder effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities
When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.
In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits his doctor's office with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he avoids social situations due to a fear of being judged, and experienced a panic attack with rapid heart rate and shortness of breath while at a movie theater a few weeks ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Social Phobia from Other Anxiety Disorders
Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by intense fear and anxiety in social situations, particularly when being scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and affects both men and women equally. Some individuals may have a specific fear of certain situations, while others may experience anxiety in most social situations outside of close family and friends. Low self-esteem is often associated with social phobia, and avoidance of feared situations is common. Treatment typically involves psychological interventions such as cognitive-behavioral therapy.
It is important to differentiate social phobia from other anxiety disorders. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and without an objective danger. Agoraphobia involves a fear of situations where escape to a safe place is difficult or impossible. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety, often accompanied by autonomic and motor overactivity. Depression may also be associated with anxiety, but typically involves early morning waking rather than difficulty falling asleep.
By understanding the specific features of social phobia and how it differs from other anxiety disorders, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate diagnosis and treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Flupentixol
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the man’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention is recommended for this level of depression, with an SSRI being the first choice antidepressant. Therefore, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment in this case. Referral to psychiatry is not necessary at this time. Venlafaxine would be considered as a later option if other antidepressants were ineffective. While fluoxetine is a good first-line antidepressant, it should be combined with a psychological intervention for severe depression. CBT alone is suitable for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, an antidepressant in combination with psychological intervention is recommended.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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A 67-year-old male with a history of ischaemic heart disease is experiencing depression after a recent heart attack. Which antidepressant would be the most suitable to initiate?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. What is the most significant indicator of an ongoing high risk of suicide?
Your Answer: Made efforts to avoid herself being found by friends and family
Explanation:Although deliberate self-harm is more prevalent among females, completed suicide is more prevalent among males.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in a community mental health team, you are attending to a 35-year-old woman who is suffering from moderate-severe depression. She often voices out intense suicidal ideations and has a history of intentional overdose. Which category of antidepressants is currently less utilized due to their high toxicity in overdose?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Explanation:Tricyclic antidepressants are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their high risk of causing dangerous overdose. Therefore, when selecting an antidepressant for a patient who is at high risk of overdose, it is important to choose a class of antidepressants that are less toxic if taken in excess. TCAs have a narrow therapeutic index, which means that even moderate doses can lead to severe cardiovascular and CNS toxicity. Complications of TCA overdose include prolonged hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, and seizures, which can ultimately result in death due to cardiovascular collapse.
Diagnosis of TCA overdose is typically made based on clinical presentation, and classic ECG changes may be observed, such as sinus tachycardia progressing to wide complex tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias as the severity of intoxication increases. Treatment involves correcting acidosis, hypoxia, and electrolyte imbalances, as well as administering hypertonic sodium bicarbonate to improve conduction abnormalities and hypotension. Anti-arrhythmic drugs should generally be avoided, and benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for seizures.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss of motor function in his left leg. He denies any specific injuries and has an important game next week that he's been anxious about. He enters the room using crutches. During the examination, it is found that he has 0/5 power in his left knee, ankle, and toes. The rest of the neurological and musculoskeletal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a lumbar MRI come back normal, making an organic cause for his symptoms unlikely. He is eager to know the reason behind his condition so that he can resume his training.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:It is probable that the patient is experiencing conversion disorder, which is often triggered by stress and involves the loss of motor or sensory function. The potential grand final rugby game may have been the stressor in this case.
Somatisation disorder is unlikely as it requires the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, whereas this patient has only one acute onset symptom. Dissociative disorder is also improbable as there are no evident psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, stupor, or fugue. The patient remembers clearly that he has a football game and has not sustained any recent injuries.
However, factitious disorder cannot be ruled out entirely. It is possible that the patient is feigning the symptom to avoid playing the game, but further investigation is necessary. The patient claims to be eager to return to playing, which does not support the notion of factitious disorder.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.
What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?Your Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property
Explanation:If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his neck may be due to Hodgkin's disease. A routine work-up is completely negative, but he continues to worry about it.
Which of the following is the most likely condition here?
Your Answer: Factitious disorder
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Differentiating Hypochondriasis from Other Disorders
Hypochondriasis is a condition characterized by persistent preoccupation with having a serious physical illness. However, it is important to differentiate it from other disorders with similar symptoms.
Conversion disorder is a neurological condition that presents with loss of function without an organic cause. Delusional disorder-somatic type involves delusional thoughts about having a particular illness or physical problem. In somatisation disorder, patients present with medically unexplained symptoms and seek medical attention to find an explanation for them. Factitious disorder involves deliberately producing symptoms for attention as a patient.
It is important to note that in hypochondriasis, the patient’s beliefs are not as fixed as they would be in delusional disorder-somatic type, and worry dominates the picture. In somatisation disorder, the emphasis is on the symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis, while in hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of a specific illness. Factitious disorder involves deliberate production of symptoms, which is not present in hypochondriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 36
Correct
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A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?Your Answer: He should be treated for at least six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression
It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.
Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 37
Correct
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You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team
Explanation:This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.
The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is more prevalent with atypical rather than conventional antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Akathisia
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of atypical antipsychotics.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 39
Correct
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In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely statement indicating an increased risk of suicide?
Your Answer: A direct statement of intent to attempt suicide
Explanation:Understanding Suicide Risk Factors
Suicide is a complex issue with various risk factors that can contribute to its occurrence. One of the most obvious warning signs is a direct statement of intent to attempt suicide. It is important to take these statements seriously and seek help immediately.
Physical illness, especially if it is prolonged and associated with pain and/or a poor prognosis, is also a well-recognized risk factor for suicide. Additionally, caring for a dying friend or relative can increase the risk, albeit to a lesser extent.
Unemployment is another risk factor, as it can lead to feelings of hopelessness and financial strain. Living alone, particularly after a bereavement, can also indicate a higher risk, especially if the person was dependent on the deceased.
While paranoid delusions can occur in depressive illness, they do not have any special significance in assessing suicide risk. However, approximately one in twenty people with schizophrenia attempt suicide, with a higher risk at the onset of the illness and if there is associated depressive illness.
It is important to understand these risk factors and seek help if you or someone you know is struggling with suicidal thoughts. Remember, there is always hope and help available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). During her previous visit, she was provided with information about GAD and referred for individual guided self-help. However, she continues to experience persistent worry throughout the day and has difficulty relaxing. Her family has also noticed that she is more irritable. The patient expresses interest in trying medication for her anxiety. What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe for her?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline is the recommended first-line medication for treating generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This patient exhibits typical symptoms of GAD and has already undergone step 1 and step 2 of treatment without improvement. Therefore, she requires step 3, which involves either high-intensity psychological intervention or drug treatment. As the patient prefers drug treatment, sertraline is the appropriate choice as it is the most cost-effective SSRI for GAD according to NICE guidelines. Citalopram and fluoxetine are also SSRIs that may be used as second-line treatments if sertraline is not effective or tolerated. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended for GAD due to the risk of dependence, except in short-term crisis situations.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 41
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports a six-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He withdrew from college soon after starting his course, and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his mother of trying to poison him. During the interview, he appears suspicious and hesitant to speak with you.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in this vignette is schizophrenia. Early symptoms of schizophrenia can include social withdrawal and behavioral changes, which may go unnoticed before the onset of delusions and hallucinations. The patient’s belief that his mother is trying to poison him needs to be explored to confirm whether it is an actual delusion. While illicit drug use can cause psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia, the gradual onset and progression of symptoms in this case suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than amphetamine misuse. Depression can also cause delusions, but depressive delusions are usually congruent with the mood and tend to have themes of guilt or hopelessness. The combination of symptoms presented in this vignette cannot be safely explained by normal teenage behavior. While schizotypal disorder can resemble schizophrenia, it does not have the characteristic symptoms seen in this vignette.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Accidental poisoning
Correct Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study
This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.
Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.
Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
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As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office in a distressed state. Her 4-year-old daughter passed away a few weeks ago due to a car accident. During the consultation, she reveals that she is having trouble sleeping, cannot function normally, and experiences severe stomach cramps. She admits to having thoughts of wishing she had died instead of her daughter, but denies any current suicidal thoughts. She also mentions seeing her daughter sitting on the couch at home, but acknowledges that it is not real. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?
Your Answer: Severe depression
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Experiencing a grief reaction is common after a significant loss, and it can manifest with physical and psychological symptoms that can last up to six months. It can be challenging to differentiate between depression and a typical grief reaction since they share similar symptoms. However, a regular grief reaction typically lasts less than six months, while depression can persist for a more extended period. Although she has brief visual hallucinations, psychosis is an incorrect diagnosis since she does not exhibit any other indications.
Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 45
Correct
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine and having no symptoms, which of the following medications could be responsible for her hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia, a condition where there is low sodium levels in the blood, can be caused by various drugs that either increase the production or enhance the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Among these drugs, diuretics (especially thiazides), SSRIs, antipsychotics like haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine are the most commonly implicated. SSRIs, in particular, can trigger the release of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia within the first few weeks of treatment. However, this condition usually resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of developing hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics concomitantly with SSRIs.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 46
Correct
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You are a foundation year two doctor on a placement in older adult mental health. You have been caring for an 81-year-old gentleman with bipolar disorder who is being held under the mental health act. He develops fever, cough productive of green sputum and tachycardia and is admitted to the local hospital where he dies of pneumonia. Your consultant, trained in psychiatry with no recent experience in general medicine, asks what the next step will be with regards to the death certificate. What is the appropriate next step for completing the death certificate - who would complete it and what would be the cause of death?
Your Answer: The case will be referred to the coroner
Explanation:If a person passes away while under the mental health act, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner, regardless of the cause. Therefore, neither the individual nor the acute hospital doctors who complete the certificate should be the first to report the case. Although reporting to the coroner is necessary, a post mortem examination is unlikely to take place. It is not permissible to list old age as the cause of death on the certificate if the patient is under the age of 80.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
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An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or others can be detained in hospital for 72 hours for further evaluation under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA)?
Your Answer: Section 4
Correct Answer: Section 5 (2)
Explanation:The Mental Health Act (MHA) has several sections that allow for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. Section 5(2) can only be used for inpatients and is implemented by the Responsible Clinician or their designated deputy. It lasts for 72 hours and should be followed by a formal Mental Health Act assessment for consideration of detention under Section 2 or 3. Section 2 allows for compulsory admission and assessment of individuals who cannot be safely assessed in the community and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 28 days and can be appealed within 14 days of admission. Section 136 allows the police to remove individuals from public places and take them to a place of safety, such as a Mental Health Unit or Accident and Emergency. Section 3 allows for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals who pose risks to self or others and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an AMHP and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 6 months and can be appealed within the first 6 months and then once a year. Section 4 is an emergency section that allows for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours and requires an application from an AMHP or the patient’s nearest relative and one medical recommendation. It can be converted to Section 2 if a second medical recommendation is obtained within 72 hours and should only be used in urgent cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 48
Correct
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A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague was killed in the line of duty. She reports experiencing recurrent nightmares and flashbacks for the past 4 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy
Explanation:Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR are both effective methods for managing PTSD.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
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You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which was initially prescribed as a sleep aid. She expresses a desire to overcome her addiction to temazepam and seeks assistance. Her current dosage is 20 mg per day. What would be the most suitable approach?
Your Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after being arrested in a local bar for odd and aggressive behaviour. Whilst taking a history she tells you that she can't understand why she has been arrested as she was just celebrating the fact that she has recently figured out how to solve world hunger and she wants to share this with everyone. You struggle to keep up with her pace of speech and throughout the consultation, she is aggressive and at times sexually inappropriate. An initial drug screen is clear and her bloods are unremarkable.
What is the most likely cause of her behaviour?Your Answer: Manic episode
Explanation:The woman is exhibiting clear indications of a manic episode, including rapid speech, uninhibited behavior, and grandiose delusions. Tests for drugs and alcohol have ruled out intoxication or drug-induced psychosis. Schizophrenia is unlikely as a first-time diagnosis, and the symptoms suggest mania or bipolar disorder. However, a diagnosis of bipolar disorder cannot be made without evidence of depressive symptoms. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is an isolated manic episode of unknown origin.
Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 51
Correct
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and an unusual posture. During the examination, it is observed that her neck is fixed in a backward and lateral position, and her eyes are deviated upwards. She is unable to control her gaze. The patient has a history of paranoid schizophrenia and is currently taking olanzapine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction
Explanation:Antipsychotics have the potential to cause acute dystonic reactions, including oculogyric crises. Symptoms may also include jaw spasms and tongue protrusion. Treatment typically involves administering IV procyclidine and discontinuing the medication responsible for the reaction. Akathisia is another potential side effect, characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect that can develop after years of antipsychotic use, resulting in involuntary facial movements such as grimacing, tongue protrusion, and lip smacking. Parkinsonism is a term used to describe antipsychotic side effects that mimic Parkinson’s disease, such as bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity, and a shuffling gait.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia for individuals?
Your Answer: Thought echo
Correct Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 53
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week, she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Blues: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Postpartum blues, also known as baby blues, is a common condition that affects many new mothers. It typically occurs within the first week after delivery and is characterized by short-lived episodes of irritability, crying, emotional lability, and mildly low mood. Unlike postpartum psychosis or major depression, postpartum blues does not involve confusion, delusional beliefs, or frank major depressive symptoms.
While anxiety is a common feature of many affective disorders, it is not sufficient to warrant a diagnosis of a specific anxiety disorder in the case of postpartum blues. However, it is important to consider depression as a possible diagnosis when a patient presents with low mood, anxiety, and irritability.
It is essential to follow up with patients experiencing postpartum blues to ensure that their symptoms resolve within a few days. If symptoms persist or worsen, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out other conditions such as postpartum depression. By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of postpartum blues, healthcare providers can provide appropriate reassurance and support to new mothers during this challenging time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
Which symptom is he reporting?Your Answer: Compulsions
Correct Answer: Obsessions
Explanation:Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference
Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:
Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.
Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.
Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.
Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.
Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent low mood. Despite undergoing CBT in the past, he has not experienced any improvement and wishes to try medication. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking amlodipine and warfarin.
Which antidepressant should be steered clear of in this patient?Your Answer: Amitryptyline
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Patients who are taking warfarin or heparin should avoid taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) due to their antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, citalopram is the appropriate choice. It is important to note that some tricyclic antidepressants and mirtazapine can also increase the INR, so caution is necessary when prescribing these medications. According to the Nice CKS guidelines on warfarin administration, trazodone may be the preferred antidepressant for these patients.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 56
Incorrect
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John is a 35-year-old male who has been detained by the police under a section of the Mental Health Act. He was seen running in and out of traffic in a public area, openly responding to unseen stimuli and avoiding social interaction.
Regarding the section he has likely been placed under, which of the following is true?Your Answer: A hospital is the only designated safe place that police can take those placed under section 136
Correct Answer: It lasts up to 24 hours
Explanation:The police can utilize Section 136 to transport individuals who may be exhibiting indications of mental illness and pose a danger to themselves or others to a secure location. This section is only valid for a maximum of 24 hours, during which time a Mental Health Act Assessment can be scheduled. In rare cases, it may be extended by an additional 12 hours. It is only applicable to individuals in public areas, not in their own or someone else’s residence – Section 135 is required for this. It does not authorize involuntary treatment. A secure location can be a hospital, the individual’s home or a friend’s home, or, if no other option is available, a police station.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 57
Correct
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A 52-year-old man is on a flupentixol depot for schizophrenia. The patient presents to his General Practitioner with severe restlessness.
Which of the following side-effects of antipsychotic medication is present?Your Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Extrapyramidal Side-Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
One common extrapyramidal side-effect of antipsychotic medications is akathisia, which is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness and an inability to sit still. This is often seen in the legs and can be caused by first-generation typical antipsychotics like flupentixol. Treatment involves reducing or switching the medication dose.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another potential side-effect that occurs within days of starting antipsychotic medication. It presents with symptoms such as pyrexia, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and confusion. Rapid diagnosis and treatment with fluids, cooling, benzodiazepines, and dantrolene are necessary.
Acute dystonic reactions, such as torticollis, oculogyric crises, and trismus, can occur within hours to days of taking antipsychotic medications. These extrapyramidal side-effects are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics due to their increased anti-dopaminergic activity. Treatment may involve anticholinergic drugs like procyclidine.
Parkinsonism refers to features associated with antipsychotic medication that are essentially the same as iatrogenic Parkinsonism, including joint rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. These symptoms are more common in first-generation typical antipsychotics.
Finally, tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotics. It presents with involuntary movements such as lip-smacking and grimacing. While this patient may have been on flupentixol for a long time, they do not present with these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 58
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:
Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.
Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.
In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?
Your Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire-9
Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left leg weakness that started 2 hours ago. She reports no weakness in her face or upper limbs, and her speech is normal. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, the emergency physician suspects a non-organic cause. The patient is placed in a supine position and asked to raise her right leg against resistance while keeping it straight. The physician places his hand under the left heel and feels pressure under his hand.
What is the name of this clinical sign or test?Your Answer: Brudziński's sign
Correct Answer: Hoover's sign
Explanation:Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool that can quickly differentiate between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when the unaffected leg is lifted against pressure. This is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.
Based on this scenario, the likely diagnosis is a conversion disorder, which is characterized by the loss of motor function in the leg without any organic cause. The positive result of Hoover’s sign supports this diagnosis.
Babinski’s sign is a reflex that involves dorsiflexion of the big toe upon plantar stimulation. It is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion of the corticospinal tract.
Brudziński’s sign is a reflex that involves the flexion of the hips with forced flexion of the neck. It is typically associated with meningitis but can also be present in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and encephalitis.
The glabellar tap sign, also known as Myerson’s sign, involves tapping the area above the nose and between the eyebrows (glabella) repeatedly. Healthy patients usually blink in response to the first 2-3 taps, but if a patient is unable to resist blinking beyond this, it can be indicative of early Parkinson’s disease.
The straight leg raise test, also known as Lasègue’s sign, involves raising the straight leg to reproduce radiating leg pain. A positive result indicates a likely lumbar disc herniation.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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