-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?
Your Answer: The pupils are constricted (accommodation response)
Correct Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed
Explanation:Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 41 year old librarian undergoes a gastric bypass surgery and she returns to the clinic complaining that she develops vertigo and crampy abdominal pain after eating. Which of the following is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Dumping syndrome
Explanation:Dumping syndrome is the effect of altered gastric reservoir function, abnormal postoperative gastric motor function, and/or pyloric emptying mechanism. Clinically significant dumping syndrome occurs in approximately 10% of patients after any type of gastric surgery and in up to 50% of patients after laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Dumping syndrome has characteristic alimentary and systemic manifestations. It is a frequent complication observed after a variety of gastric surgical procedures, such as vagotomy, pyloroplasty, gastrojejunostomy, and laparoscopic Nissan fundoplication. Dumping syndrome can be separated into early and late forms, depending on the occurrence of symptoms in relation to the time elapsed after a meal.
Postprandially, the function of the body of the stomach is to store food and to allow the initial chemical digestion by acid and proteases before transferring food to the gastric antrum. In the antrum, high-amplitude contractions triturate the solids, reducing the particle size to 1-2 mm. Once solids have been reduced to this desired size, they are able to pass through the pylorus. An intact pylorus prevents the passage of larger particles into the duodenum. Gastric emptying is controlled by the fundic tone, antropyloric mechanisms, and duodenal feedback. Gastric surgery alters each of these mechanisms in several ways.The late dumping syndrome is suspected in the person who has symptoms of hypoglycaemia in the setting of previous gastric surgery, and this late dumping can be proven with an oral glucose tolerance test (hyperinsulinemic hypoglycaemia), as well as gastric emptying scintigraphy, which shows the abnormal pattern of initially delayed and then accelerated gastric emptying.
The clinical presentation of dumping syndrome can be divided into GI symptoms and vasomotor symptoms. GI symptoms include early satiety, crampy abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and explosive diarrhoea. Vasomotor symptoms include diaphoresis, flushing, dizziness, palpitations, and an intense desire to lie down.
The expression of these symptoms varies in different individuals. Most patients with early dumping have both GI and vasomotor symptoms, while patients with late dumping have mostly vasomotor symptoms. Patients with severe dumping often limit their food intake to avoid symptoms. This leads to weight loss and, over time, malnutrition.
Early dumping syndrome generally occurs within 15 minutes of ingesting a meal and is attributable to the rapid transit of food into the small intestine, whereas late dumping syndrome occurs later and may be attributed to hypoglycaemia with tremors, cold sweats, difficulty in concentrating, and loss of consciousness.
Early dumping systemic symptoms are as follows:
Desire to lie down
Palpitations
Fatigue
Faintness
Syncope
Diaphoresis
Headache
FlushingEarly dumping abdominal symptoms are as follows:
Epigastric fullness
Diarrhoea
Nausea
Abdominal cramps
BorborygmiLate dumping symptoms are as follows:
Perspiration
Shakiness
Difficulty to concentrate
Decreased consciousness
Hunger -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?
Your Answer: The suprascapular nerve is a branch of the lower trunk
Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve
Explanation:The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.
The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.
The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.
The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.
The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 39 year old woman was taken to the surgical clinic for symptoms related to varicose veins. She has noticed that these first developed when she was pregnant. A truncal varicosity of the medial leg was seen on examination but there are no ulcers or skin changes. A hand held Doppler examination demonstrates sapheno-popliteal junction reflux. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a duplex scan
Explanation:Saphenopopliteal (SPJ) reflux may be present in 20–25% of patients with primary varicose veins. Pre-operative colour duplex marking increases the accuracy of localisation of the SPJ at operation and is considered to be the gold standard for this purpose. A prospective study of 50 consecutive primary SSV ligations was undertaken and it showed that duplex was highly accurate in correctly locating the SPJ to within an accuracy of 20 mm in 98% of cases. The comparative figure for short saphenous vein (SSV) palpation was 48%. Palpation alone therefore cannot be recommended as a means of determining the site of SPJ and duplex continues to remain the gold standard for the preoperative localisation of the SPJ.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature. This process is best described as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Organisation of the haematoma
Explanation:Formation of granulation tissue at the periphery of the hematoma is a normal process leading to resolution. This granulation tissue is composed of new capillaries, fibroblasts and collagen. Lysis of a blood clot can occur, but the actual process of this response is known as organization, wherein the scar tissue will become part of the vessels. This is followed by recanalization and embolization which can lead to eventual complications. Proliferation of a clot will occur due to an imbalance in the clotting and lysing systems. Thrombosis has nothing to do with the process described above.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial expression
Explanation:The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
– Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
– Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
– Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 31 year old banker with known multiple gastric ulcers visits the surgical clinic for a review. She has not improved despite taking proton pump inhibitors for two months. Tests show that she now has a gastrinoma. Which statement is false in relation to her diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most commonly found in the pancreas
Explanation:A gastrinoma is a gastrin-secreting tumour that can occur in the pancreas, although it is most commonly found in the duodenum. Duodenal wall gastrinomas have been identified in 40-50% of patients. These duodenal wall tumours are frequently small and multiple. Sporadic tumours occurring in the pancreas tend to be solitary and have a greater malignant potential as compared to duodenal gastrinomas.
Primary tumours also occur in a variety of ectopic sites, including the body of the stomach, jejunum, peripancreatic lymph nodes, splenic hilum, omentum, liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, and the ovary. Over 50% of gastrinomas are malignant and can metastasize to the regional lymph nodes and the liver. One fourth of gastrinomas are related to multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I and are associated with hyperparathyroidism and pituitary adenomas.
The symptoms in 90-95% of patients with gastrinomas are similar to the symptoms of common peptic ulcer disease. Usually, persistent abdominal pain exists that is less responsive to medical treatment.
Sometimes, symptoms may relate to a complication of peptic ulcer disease, such as bleeding (e.g., melena, hematemesis), gastric outlet obstruction (e.g., vomiting), and perforation (e.g., peritoneal irritation).
Other symptoms include gastroesophageal reflux, diarrhoea, steatorrhea, and weight loss, all of which are secondary to acid hypersecretion. Vitamin B-12 malabsorption, which is not correctable by oral intrinsic factor, may also be observed.Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (SRS) is very useful to identify the primary lesions preoperatively. SRS is the most sensitive non-invasive method for localizing the primary tumours and metastases. It also is helpful for detecting the presence of liver or bone metastasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A significantly elevated white cell count of 50 x 109/l with 5% blasts and raised leucocyte alkaline phosphatase is seen in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukaemoid reaction
Explanation:Non-neoplastic proliferation of leucocytes causes an increase in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP). This is referred to as ‘leukemoid reaction’ because of the similarity to leukaemia with an increased white cell count (>50 × 109/l) with immature forms. Causes of leukemoid reaction includes haemorrhage, drugs (glucocorticoids, all-trans retinoic acid etc), infections such as tuberculosis and pertussis, and as a paraneoplastic phenomenon. Leukemoid reaction can also be seen in infancy as a feature of trisomy 21. This is usually a benign condition, but can be a response to a disease state. Differential diagnosis include chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Leakage from a silicone breast implant can lead to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain and contracture
Explanation:Breast implants are mainly: saline-filled and silicone gel-filled. Complications include haematoma, fluid collections, infection at the surgical site, pain, wrinkling, asymmetric appearance, wound dehiscence and thinning of the breast tissue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pronator teres
Explanation:The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman trips over a step, injuring her right ankle. Examination reveals tenderness over the lateral malleolus and X-ray demonstrates an undisplaced fracture distal to the syndesmosis. What should be the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Application of ankle boot
Explanation:The patient has a Weber type A fracture, based on the Danis-Weber classification system for lateral malleolar fractures. It is a stable ankle injury and can, therefore, be managed conservatively. Whilst this patient could also be treated in a below-knee plaster, most clinicians, nowadays, treat this injury in an ankle boot. Patients are also advised to mobilise with the ankle boot as pain allows and can wean themselves off as the symptoms improve.
The Danis-Weber classification system is based on the level of the fibula fracture in relation to the syndesmosis (the connection between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula). The more proximal, the greater the risk of syndesmotic injury and, therefore, fracture instability.
1. Weber type A: fracture below the level of the syndesmosis
2. Weber type B: fracture at the level of the syndesmosis/level of the tibial plafond
3. Weber type C: fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. This includes Maisonneuve fracture (proximal fibula fracture) which can be associated with ankle instability.Ankle fractures are common. They affect men and women in equal numbers, but men have a higher rate as young adults (sports and contact injuries), and women have a higher rate post-menopausal (fragility-type fractures). Patients present, following a traumatic event, with a painful, swollen ankle, and reluctance/inability to bear weight.
Radiographs of clearly deformed or dislocated joints are not necessary, and removing the pressure on the surrounding soft tissues from the underlying bony deformity is the priority. If the fracture pattern is not clinically obvious, then plain radiographs are appropriate. Antero-posterior, lateral, and mortise views are essential to evaluate fracture displacement and syndesmotic injury. Decreased tibiofibular overlap, medial joint clear space, and lateral talar shift all indicate a syndesmotic injury.
When deciding upon treatment for an ankle fracture, one must consider both the fracture and the patient. Diabetic patients and smokers are at greater risk of post-operative complication, especially wound problems and infection. Likewise, the long term outcome of post-traumatic arthritis from a malunited ankle fracture is extremely important for a young patient, but not as relevant in the elderly. Unimalleolar Weber type A fractures, by definition, are stable and therefore, can be mobilised fully in an ankle boot.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 39 year old woman returns from a holiday trip in Nepal and presents to her doctor with painless jaundice. On examination there is no organomegaly and she is not deeply jaundiced. What is most likely cause of her illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection
Explanation:Hepatitis A is a viral liver disease that can cause mild to severe illness. The hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water or through direct contact with an infectious person.
The risk of hepatitis A infection is associated with a lack of safe water, and poor sanitation and hygiene (such as dirty hands). Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease and is rarely fatal, but it can cause debilitating symptoms and fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal.
Prodrome
In the prodrome, patients may have mild flulike symptoms of anorexia, nausea and vomiting, fatigue, malaise, low-grade fever (usually < 39.5°C), myalgia, and mild headache. Smokers often lose their taste for tobacco, like persons presenting with appendicitis. Icteric phase
In the icteric phase, dark urine appears first (bilirubinuria). Pale stool soon follows, although this is not universal. Jaundice occurs in most (70%-85%) adults with acute HAV infection; it is less likely in children and is uncommon in infants. The degree of icterus also increases with age. Abdominal pain occurs in approximately 40% of patients. Itching (pruritus), although less common than jaundice, is generally accompanied by jaundice.Arthralgias and skin rash, although also associated with acute HAV infection, are less frequent than the above symptoms. Rash more often occurs on the lower limbs and may have a vasculitic appearance.
Relapsing hepatitis A
Relapsing hepatitis A is an uncommon sequela of acute infection, is more common in elderly persons, and is characterized by a protracted course of symptoms of the disease and a relapse of symptoms and signs following apparent resolution. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves
Explanation:It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischial tuberosities
Explanation:The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Bile salts are formed out of cholesterol in the liver cells. Occasionally, precipitation of cholesterol occurs resulting into cholesterol stones developing in the gall bladder.
These cholesterol gallstones are the most common type and account for 80% of all gallstones. Another type, accounting for 20% gallstones is pigment stones which are composed of bilirubin and calcium salts. Occasionally, stones of mixed origin are also seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Anthrax is an infection caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores have been used as a biological warfare weapon. What is the drug of choice in treating anthrax infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Early antibiotic treatment of anthrax is essential. A delay may significantly lessen the chances for survival of the patient. Treatment for anthrax infection include large doses of intravenous and oral antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin), doxycycline, erythromycin, vancomycin, or penicillin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.
Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.
Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 34 year old woman from the Indian origin presents to the clinic with a diffuse swelling of the left breast. She has a baby boy, four months old. On examination, she has jaundice and her left breast shows erythema. Which of the following options is the most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory carcinoma
Explanation:Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare form of advanced, invasive carcinoma, characterized by dermal lymphatic invasion of tumour cells. Most commonly a ductal carcinoma.
Clinical features include erythematous and oedematous (peau d’orange) skin plaques over a rapidly growing breast mass. Tenderness, burning sensation, blood-tinged nipple discharge. Axillary lymphadenopathy is usually present. 25% of patients have metastatic disease at the time of presentation.
Differential diagnosis includes mastitis, breast abscess, Paget disease of the breast
Treatment is usually done with chemotherapy + radiotherapy + radical mastectomy. This type of cancer is usually associated with a poor prognosis. 5-year survival with treatment: ∼ 50% (without treatment: < 5%) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation
Explanation:Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)