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Question 1
Correct
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During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which ligament is most commonly torn?
Your Answer: Medial collateral
Explanation:Common Knee Injuries and Diagnostic Tests
Knee injuries are common among young athletes participating in sports that involve aggressive knee flexion. Of all knee injuries, those to the medial side are the most frequent. Symptoms include pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the knee joint, instability with side-to-side movement, and tenderness along the course of the medial collateral ligament. Medial collateral ligament injuries often occur in association with cruciate and meniscal injuries, which should be excluded.
The valgus stress test is a diagnostic test used to measure the amount of joint-line opening of the medial compartment of the knee when a valgus stress is applied at the ankle. A proficient tester may be able to quantify the amount of joint-line opening to determine the severity of the tear of the medial collateral complex of ligaments.
Other knee injuries include anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, patellar, and posterior cruciate injuries. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, non-contact deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Lateral collateral ligament injuries may be due to a direct blow to the medial aspect of the knee or a varus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures are relatively infrequent and often the result of chronic tendon degeneration or sudden contraction of the quadriceps. Posterior cruciate injuries are most often due to hyperflexion, such as from a fall on a flexed knee or a car accident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has a medical history of vertebral fractures caused by osteoporosis. However, she cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, so her doctor has initiated raloxifene. What condition would make it inappropriate to prescribe raloxifene?
Your Answer: A history of venous thromboembolism
Explanation:The use of Raloxifene is associated with an elevated risk of venous thromboembolism.
Therapeutic Management of Osteoporosis According to NICE Guidelines
Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and increases the risk of fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines on the therapeutic management of osteoporosis. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is oral alendronate, taken once weekly at a dose of 70mg. If oral alendronate is not tolerated, NICE recommends the use of risk tables to determine whether it is worth trying another treatment. The tables display a minimum T score based on a patient’s age and number of clinical risk factors. If another treatment is indicated, alternative oral bisphosphonates such as risedronate or etidronate are recommended as the second-line treatment.
If bisphosphonates are not tolerated, NICE recommends reviewing risk tables again to see if further treatment is indicated. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene are recommended as alternative treatments. Strontium ranelate is a ‘dual action bone agent’ that increases the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts. However, concerns regarding its safety profile have been raised recently, and it should only be prescribed by a specialist in secondary care. Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of vertebral fractures. It may worsen menopausal symptoms and increase the risk of thromboembolic events.
In summary, NICE guidelines recommend oral alendronate as the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, followed by alternative oral bisphosphonates if necessary. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be considered if bisphosphonates are not tolerated, but their use should be carefully monitored due to safety concerns. Clinical judgement may be required when determining the best course of action for individual patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with painful, red skin on the inside of her thigh. This has developed over the past 4-5 days and has not happened before. She is normally fit and well and no past medical history of note other than depression.
On examination she has erythematous, tender skin on the medial aspect of her right thigh consistent with the long saphenous vein. The vein is palpable and cord-like. There is no associated swelling of the right calf and no history of chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her heart rate is 84/min and her temperature is 37.0ºC. What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Refer for an ultrasound scan
Explanation:An ultrasound scan should be conducted on patients with superficial thrombophlebitis of the long saphenous vein to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT.
Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of patients will have an underlying deep vein thrombosis at presentation and 3-4% will progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. The use of low-molecular weight heparin has been shown to reduce extension and transformation to DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT and can be considered for prophylactic doses of LMWH for up to 30 days. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Correct
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You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You observe that she has been on alendronate for the past 4 years following a FRAX score that indicated a risk of fracture. She has not experienced any fractures before. Her other medications consist of ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. She reports no adverse effects from her medications.
What is the best course of action concerning her bisphosphonate treatment?Your Answer: Arrange a repeat DEXA scan and reassess need to continue alendronate
Explanation:According to the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group and NICE guidelines, individuals with osteoporosis who are undergoing treatment with alendronate should have their 10 year fracture risk evaluated again after 5 years. After this point, it may be appropriate to discontinue treatment, although this decision should be made on a case-by-case basis. Patients who are over 75, have a history of hip or vertebral fracture, have experienced any low trauma fracture while on treatment, or are still taking steroid therapy should continue with their treatment.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You see a 25-year-old woman who is complaining of aches and pains in the joints of her hands.
Her mother has just been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and she wants to know if she has it as well.
In what age range would you expect to diagnose polymyalgia rheumatica?Your Answer: 40 to 50 years
Correct Answer: Over 50 years
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition Common in the Elderly
Polymyalgia rheumatica is a condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those over 70 years old. One of the core features of PMR is age greater than 50. The most common symptoms of PMR include bilateral shoulder and/or pelvic girdle aching that lasts for more than two weeks, morning stiffness lasting for more than 45 minutes, and raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP). It is important to note that these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, so a proper diagnosis is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Correct
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You refer a 26-year-old female to rheumatology with occasional pain and swelling of the metacarpal phalangeal joints over the last 4 months. An x-ray reveals soft-tissue swelling and loss of joint space. Rheumatoid factor is positive, and the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is confirmed. What is the probable initial treatment that she will receive to slow down the progression of the disease?
Your Answer: Methotrexate + short-course of prednisolone
Explanation:The rheumatoid arthritis guidelines were updated by NICE in 2018, with a new recommendation for the initial treatment approach. Instead of dual DMARD therapy, they now suggest DMARD monotherapy with a brief course of bridging prednisolone.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.
In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).
Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.
Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year old man comes to your clinic complaining of not being able to achieve an erection for the past 6 months. He has a medical history of obesity and ischemic heart disease and is currently taking ramipril and amlodipine without any known drug allergies. After taking his history and conducting a physical examination, you decide to order some blood tests. What is the essential test that should be performed for every man who presents with erectile dysfunction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum lipids, fasting plasma glucose and serum testosterone
Explanation:According to NICE clinical knowledge summaries, it is recommended to measure lipids and fasting glucose in all men to determine their 10-year cardiovascular risk. Additionally, free testosterone levels should be measured between 9 and 11am. If the results show low or borderline levels of free testosterone, the test should be repeated and follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin should also be measured. Any abnormalities found should prompt referral to an endocrinologist.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced three instances of a swollen left big toe in the past year. As a delivery driver, each episode prevents him from working for at least 5 days. He typically takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, but was given colchicine during his last attack which greatly improved his symptoms. He is not currently taking any other medications. A colleague ordered a blood test 4 weeks after his most recent episode, which revealed a serum urate level of 450µmol/L. He is curious if there are any preventative measures he can take to avoid future attacks. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start allopurinol now
Explanation:Gout Treatment Guidelines
Gout is a condition that requires proper management to prevent acute attacks and complications. When initiating prophylactic medication for gout, it is important to be aware of the criteria for starting allopurinol. This medication can be started after two or more attacks of gout within a year or after the first attack in people at higher risk. However, allopurinol should not be initiated during an acute attack and should be started 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled. The dose should be titrated every few weeks until the serum uric acid level is below 300µmol/L.
When starting allopurinol, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablet or colchicine should be co-prescribed and advised if an acute attack is precipitated. It is important to note that colchicine is only used for acute attacks and should not be used lifelong or for prophylaxis. Fenbuxostat is second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or is contraindicated.
A rheumatology referral is not indicated at present and should only be instigated if the diagnosis is uncertain or the patient is having acute attacks despite maximum doses of prophylactic medication or if complications are present. For more information on gout treatment guidelines, please refer to the CKS website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.
Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.
Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and the proximal inter-phalangeal joints of both hands. She reports that the symptoms are worse in the morning and her hands are very stiff. The symptoms have been present for eight weeks. Her rheumatoid factor is reported as weakly positive.
What is the most suitable course of action for a general practitioner? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
If a patient presents with persistent synovitis of unknown cause, it is important to consider the possibility of rheumatoid arthritis. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary if the small joints of the hands or feet are affected, more than one joint is affected, or symptoms have been present for three months or longer before presentation. This referral should be made even if the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal and they are negative for rheumatoid factor and anticyclic citrullinated peptide.
While a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may be prescribed by a general practitioner for pain control, the urgent referral to a rheumatologist is the most appropriate option. In secondary care, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine should be started as soon as possible, ideally within three months of the onset of persistent symptoms. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may also be considered when starting the DMARD.
In summary, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for suspected rheumatoid arthritis, even if certain diagnostic markers are negative. Prompt treatment with a DMARD is crucial for managing the disease and preventing long-term joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right knee. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.0 °C and has had chills. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw her doctor six days ago who told her she had an ear infection and prescribed antibiotics. Her right knee is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
Which of the following is the single most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Common Causal Organisms and Symptoms
Septic arthritis is a condition resulting from joint infection with pyogenic organisms. The most common causal organism is Staphylococcus aureus, which enters the joint through the bloodstream from known sites of infection. Patients typically experience pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in a single joint, most commonly the knee. Aspiration and fluid culture are diagnostic, and immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction. Joint immobilization is also recommended. Patients with prior joint damage or prosthetic joints are at higher risk.
Other causal organisms include Neisseria meningitides, which can cause polyarthropathy, fever, and skin changes; Haemophilus influenza, which is common in children under three years old; and Streptococcus pyogenes, a common organism in ear, nose, and throat infections. Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, are rare causes of septic arthritis. It is important to differentiate septic arthritis from other similar conditions, such as transient synovitis, especially in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic with complaints of arm pain, stiffness, and balance issues. After undergoing tests, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy. However, he misses his next appointment due to hospitalization for acute coronary syndrome. Two months later, he visits his GP and reports ongoing neurological symptoms. What is the most crucial next step in his treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery or neurosurgery
Explanation:Patients with cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. The main treatment for this condition is decompressive surgery, which is necessary to prevent further deterioration in cases of progressive or severe disease. Close observation may be an option for mild and stable disease, but surgery is required to stop disease progression.
It is important to note that pre-operative physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services, as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage. The timing of surgery is crucial, as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Treatment within 6 months offers the best chance of making a full recovery. Unfortunately, many patients wait more than 2 years for a diagnosis, highlighting the need for improved awareness and timely referral.
While neuropathic analgesia can provide symptomatic relief, it will not prevent further cord damage. Physiotherapy should not replace surgical opinion and should only be initiated by specialist services to avoid causing more spinal cord damage.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.
What is a potential adverse effect associated with denosumab therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atypical femoral fractures
Explanation:Although denosumab is usually well tolerated, it has the potential to cause atypical femoral fractures.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment
Explanation:When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.
Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The wife of a middle-aged patient has called the clinic for guidance. Her husband has fallen down the stairs and suffered a head injury. You gather information about the fall and the patient's present state.
She owns a car, and their neighbor has offered to take him to the hospital if necessary.
As per NICE guidance CG176, which of the following details in the history would prompt you to recommend transfer to the hospital emergency department via the emergency ambulance service (i.e., 999 response):Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient has difficulties with understanding
Explanation:NICE Guidance on prehospital Management of Head Injury
NICE has issued guidance on the management of head injury, including prehospital management for health professionals who may be giving advice about attending the emergency department and whether to travel by 999 ambulance. Patients should be transferred to the emergency department by emergency ambulance service if they have any of the following: unconsciousness or lack of full consciousness, any focal neurological deficit since the injury, any suspicion of a skull fracture or penetrating head injury, any seizure since the injury, a high-energy head injury, or the injured person or their carer is incapable of transporting the injured person safely to the hospital emergency department without the use of ambulance services. A focal neurological deficit is defined as a problem restricted to a particular part of the body or activity. It is important to identify patients who should attend the hospital emergency department, those who should be advised to transfer by the emergency ambulance service, and those who may simply need transfer by the ambulance service. Health professionals should be familiar with the definition of certain terms, such as focal neurological deficit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.
What condition is likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.
Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.
Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.
Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.
Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.
In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement
Explanation:NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his doctor to renew his sick note. He has been unable to work for the past 3 months due to feeling generally unwell and experiencing pain, swelling, and stiffness in both of his hands. Upon examination, there is an ulnar deviation of both hands and swelling and tenderness of all the proximal interphalangeal joints and metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of both hands. He is unable to make a fist and has a positive MCP squeeze test. What skin feature is most likely to be present during the examination of this condition? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Painless nodule on his elbow
Explanation:Differentiating Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions: A Case Study
A patient presents with various joint symptoms, and it is important to differentiate between different conditions to provide appropriate treatment. The presence of painless nodules on the elbow and distal interphalangeal joints of the hands are typical of rheumatoid arthritis, an inflammatory condition that can cause irreversible joint damage if not diagnosed and treated promptly. On the other hand, Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes, bony swellings at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints respectively, are caused by osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease.
An annular erythematous rash on the trunk is associated with rheumatic fever, which can develop after a streptococcal infection. This condition can cause migratory polyarthritis affecting the wrists, elbows, knees, and ankles. In contrast, an enlarging erythematous bull’s eye lesion on the leg is typical of Lyme disease, which can cause arthritis but usually affects the large joints.
In summary, careful consideration of the specific symptoms and signs can help differentiate between different joint conditions and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a right-sided headache for the past 4 months. He also experiences jaw pain while eating. Upon fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc with flame-shaped haemorrhages is observed. Eye movements are painless. His ESR is found to be 100. What is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giant-cell arteritis
Explanation:Common Causes of Ocular Vasculitis: A Brief Overview
Ocular vasculitis is a group of disorders that affect the blood vessels in the eye. Here are some common causes of ocular vasculitis and their clinical features:
Giant-cell arteritis: This large-vessel vasculitis mainly affects the temporal and ophthalmic arteries. It typically presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual disturbance. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated, and skip lesions are common.
Central retinal vein occlusion: This condition may occur in chronic simple glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, and polycythaemia. The fundus appears like a ‘stormy sunset’ with red haemorrhagic areas and engorged veins.
Diabetic retinopathy: This is the most common cause of blindness in adults between 30 and 65 years of age in developed countries. It is characterised by microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, exudates, cotton-wool spots, neovascularisation, and venous changes.
Polyarteritis nodosa: This necrotising vasculitis affects multiple systems and has variable manifestations, although it most commonly affects the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, the gut, and the kidney. Ocular involvement is rare.
Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune disorder is characterised by dry mouth and dry eyes with variable lacrimal or salivary gland enlargement due to lymphocytic infiltration.
Understanding the clinical features of these common causes of ocular vasculitis can aid in early diagnosis and prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper arms. Suspecting polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), what other symptom or sign is frequently associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Back pain
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Symptoms and Presentation
Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that affects individuals over the age of 50. The core features of PMR include bilateral shoulder or pelvic ache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate/C reactive protein (ESR/CRP), morning stiffness, and up to 40% of patients may present with weight loss. In addition to these symptoms, patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as lethargy, loss of appetite, or a low-grade fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and his latest blood test revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine
Explanation:According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, an alternative option is to consider NSAID cover.
While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not recommended for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use.
Although NSAIDs like naproxen or ibuprofen can be used to treat gout, this may not be the best option for someone with a history of hiatus hernia. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not suitable for gout prevention.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A previously well, 60-year-old hypertensive builder presents with pain, redness and swelling in the right knee, which started 12 hours ago. There is a family history of hypertension and joint problems.
What investigation is most important in identifying the cause of this patient's knee symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA status
Explanation:Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy
This patient is presenting with an acute monoarthropathy, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema of a single joint. To identify the cause of these knee symptoms, the most important investigation is joint aspiration. This is because more than one diagnosis is possible with the limited information given, with septic arthritis and gout being the top differentials.
Joint aspiration involves the removal of synovial fluid from the affected joint for microscopy and culture. If the cause is septic arthritis, the aspirate would be turbid or purulent, and microscopy would reveal the presence of infective organisms. This information is crucial in guiding appropriate therapy. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, the aspirate would be cloudy, and microscopy would reveal crystals.
Other investigations, such as x-rays, would not be able to differentiate between these key differential diagnoses. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Investigation Result Normal value
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping at night.
She has been woken on numerous occasions by her legs which are irritable and feel that they are being tugged. She needs to keep moving them. This urge lasts variable periods and she finds little relief from rubbing the legs. No abnormalities are noted on examination of her legs.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs and a strong urge to move them. The exact cause of RLS is unknown, and there are no specific tests for diagnosis. However, the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four basic criteria for diagnosing RLS, including a desire to move the limbs, symptoms that worsen during rest and improve with activity, motor restlessness, and nocturnal worsening of symptoms.
Treatment for RLS depends on the severity of the condition. Ropinirole is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient, as it is the only agent among the options listed that is licensed for treating RLS. Pramipexole and rotigotine are also licensed for moderate to severe cases of RLS. If you are experiencing symptoms of RLS, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests reveal the following results:
Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographics, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis.
In contrast, polymyositis and dermatomyositis are characterized by a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia doesn’t typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility given the patient’s history, the high levels of inflammatory markers and normal creatine kinase levels make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday. She complained of persistent bone pain in her distal femur for the past month. The X-ray reveals destruction of the medullary and cortical bone in the distal femur. What is the recommended follow-up for this X-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 48 hours
Explanation:An urgent referral is required for specialist assessment of children and young people who have an X-ray indicating bone sarcoma, with a timeframe of less than 48 hours. This is particularly important for a child who presents with symptoms suggestive of osteosarcoma, as bony destruction is a typical finding. According to NICE guidelines, suspected cancer in children should be referred urgently within 48 hours, rather than the 2-week pathway for adults. Medications such as vitamin D, calcium, and alendronate are used to treat osteoporosis, which is not likely to be the primary cause of the child’s X-ray. If required, specialists may request a bone marrow biopsy, which cannot be performed at the GP surgery.
Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment
Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.
Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.
Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.
In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her shoulder. She indicates that the pain is mainly in the deltoid area and worsens when she moves her shoulder. She reports no previous trauma or injury. She is in good health otherwise. She has observed that the pain is most bothersome when she reaches up to place things on a high shelf in her kitchen.
Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal with no redness or visible swelling. She experiences limited mobility and pain between 70-120 degrees of abduction. The internal rotation of the shoulder is somewhat stiff and tender. She has good external rotation of the joint without pain.
What is the most probable underlying cause of her shoulder pain based on this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impingement
Explanation:Understanding Shoulder Pain: Impingement, Bicipital Tendonitis, and ACJ Arthritis
Shoulder pain can be caused by various conditions, including impingement, bicipital tendonitis, and ACJ arthritis. To distinguish between impingement and frozen shoulder, external rotation is an important examination finding. Patients with impingement typically have good external rotation, while external rotation is affected in frozen shoulder. Impingement is characterized by pain in the deltoid region with impaired abduction of the affected arm, often noticed during overhead reaching or activities that require internal rotation. On the other hand, frozen shoulder causes global restriction of shoulder movement, especially external rotation and elevation. Plain x-rays can help distinguish frozen shoulder from glenohumeral arthritis, which can give similar clinical findings.
Bicipital tendonitis is characterized by tenderness on palpation of the tendon in the bicipital groove. Pain may also be elicited with resisted flexion with the elbow straight and the forearm supinated, and resisted supination of the forearm with the elbow flexed. Meanwhile, ACJ arthritis can cause diffuse lateral shoulder pain as well as localized ACJ pain. Local tenderness may be present, and cross-adduction often worsens the pain. Treatment for impingement includes rest, corticosteroid injection, physiotherapy, and analgesia/anti-inflammatory use.
In summary, understanding the different causes of shoulder pain and their distinguishing features can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up.
During the examination, the patient showed reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test resulted in pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region. Additionally, there was weakness on plantar flexion with reduced ankle reflexes.
What type of root compression has this patient experienced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression
Explanation:The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. L5 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, S1 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia (e.g., duloxetine). If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old African American man seeks advice regarding vitamin D deficiency. He is in good health and denies any muscle or bone pain or weakness. His medical history includes hypertension and arthritis. He doesn't wear a hat or cover his head for personal reasons. What advice should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should take vitamin D 10mcg od
Explanation:Testing for vitamin D deficiency is unnecessary for individuals with higher risk factors such as age over 65 years and pigmented skin, as they should receive treatment regardless.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia presents with gout following treatment. His general practitioner prescribes allopurinol to treat the condition. How does allopurinol prevent the buildup of uric acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: By inhibiting purine breakdown and synthesis
Explanation:Allopurinol and its Mechanism of Action
Allopurinol is a purine analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of hypoxanthine and xanthine. By blocking this process, the production of uric acid is reduced. Additionally, the accumulation of hypoxanthine and xanthine leads to the inhibition of amidophosphoribosyl transferase, which is the rate-limiting enzyme of purine biosynthesis. As a result, both purine breakdown and synthesis are decreased. It is important to note that allopurinol should not be used in combination with Rasburicase as the two medications counteract each other.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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