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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family history as a risk factor in the index case?
Your Answer: Asperger's syndrome
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Strongest and Most Established Link in Mental Health Disorders
A family history is particularly associated with depressive disorder and schizophrenia. For schizophrenia, the average lifetime risk is about 5-10% among first-degree relatives of schizophrenics. However, monozygotic twin studies do not show 100% concordance, suggesting that environmental factors also play a part, although the nature of these is not clear.
The cause of Asperger’s syndrome is unclear, and there is no known heredity involved. Similarly in OCD there is no clear familial link, although some studies have noted higher frequency of OCD in the first-degree relatives of children and adults with OCD.
Borderline personality disorder is not inherited, although may be associated with traumatic early life experiences, particularly physical and sexual abuse in childhood.
MRCGP questions may include options that are plausible but less appropriate than the correct answer. There may be genetic factors involved in OCD and Tourette’s, but the associations are complex and less clear cut than with schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.
Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Provide reassurance
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever. He has a history of febrile seizures. During the examination, he begins to have a seizure. The medical team quickly moves him to the treatment room and administers oxygen. However, after 5 minutes, the seizure persists. Unfortunately, there is no buccal midazolam available. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Give 1 g rectal paracetamol
Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Acute Management of Seizures
Seizures can be a frightening experience for both the patient and those around them. While most seizures will stop on their own, prolonged seizures can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage seizures in an acute setting.
The first step in managing a seizure is to check the patient’s airway and provide oxygen if necessary. It is also important to place the patient in the recovery position to prevent choking or aspiration. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines may be necessary.
Rectal diazepam is a recommended option for managing prolonged seizures. The dose will vary depending on the patient’s age and weight. The BNF recommends repeating the dose once after 10-15 minutes if necessary.
Another option is midazolam oromucosal solution, which can be administered based on the patient’s age and weight. It is important to note that this medication is unlicensed for use in neonates and for some age groups.
In summary, the acute management of seizures involves ensuring the patient’s airway is clear, placing them in the recovery position, and administering benzodiazepines if necessary. Rectal diazepam and midazolam oromucosal solution are two options for managing prolonged seizures, but dosages will vary based on the patient’s age and weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Skin scraping for fungus
Explanation:Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash
Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.
The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.
In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.
It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently on the maximum tolerated dose of an ACE-I and beta blocker. He reports to still be symptomatic from his heart failure.
What would be the next appropriate step in his management to improve his prognosis?Your Answer: Initiate a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: Refer to a heart failure specialist as no other drugs should be prescribed in primary care
Explanation:MRA Treatment for Heart Failure Patients
According to NICE guidelines, patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms of heart failure should be offered an MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone. Previously, only a heart failure specialist could initiate these treatments. However, now it is recommended that all healthcare professionals involved in the care of heart failure patients should consider offering these treatments to improve symptoms and reduce the risk of hospitalization. This guideline update aims to ensure that more patients have access to effective treatments for heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are conducting a cancer care assessment on an elderly woman with an advanced brain tumor. She has previously undergone radiotherapy and chemotherapy, but these treatments did not have a significant effect on her condition. Her primary concerns are vertigo and nausea.
Which antiemetic would be the most suitable to recommend?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ondansetron
Explanation:Antiemetics in Palliative Care
A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be determined to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For patients with co-existent vertigo, an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine is most suitable as it also has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Nausea and vomiting caused by drugs or toxins and metabolic factors like hypercalcaemia may respond best to haloperidol or levomepromazine. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic, can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. On the other hand, ondansetron, a 5-HT3 antagonist, acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain and is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.
In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for palliative care patients depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and symptoms when selecting the most suitable treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.
Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is worried and wants advice if she should continue taking it.
How would you counsel this woman on the risks of ondansetron use during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester
Explanation:The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE’s antenatal care guidance suggests that ondansetron may increase the chance of a baby being born with a cleft lip or palate, but there are no recognised risks for the mother or newborn. Claims of a risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies or severe congenital heart defects in newborns are not supported by current evidence.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.
He experiences four attacks within six months, prompting you to prescribe allopurinol to reduce his serum urate level.
What target level of serum urate would you aim for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Recommended Levels of Homocysteine
Homocysteine is a naturally occurring amino acid in the body that can be harmful in high levels. The upper limit of normal for homocysteine was previously set at 0.42 µmol/L, with reducing levels below that considered acceptable. However, recent guidelines have recommended even lower levels, with most sources suggesting levels below 0.36 µmol/L and the latest guidelines aiming for 0.30 µmol/L. It is important to monitor homocysteine levels and take steps to reduce them if they are too high, as elevated levels have been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and other health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months
Explanation:Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a grandfather. He is curious about the likelihood of his grandson inheriting haemophilia. His daughter's partner is healthy and has no medical history.
What is the probability of his grandson having haemophilia A?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.
What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine
Explanation:When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are requested to finalize a medical report for a patient who has applied for life insurance. Two years ago, he began treatment for hypertension but stopped taking medication eight months later due to adverse reactions. His latest blood pressure reading is 154/92 mmHg. During the patient's visit to your clinic, he requests that you omit any reference to hypertension as everything appears to be fine now. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact the insurance company stating that you cannot write a report and give no reason
Explanation:Guidelines for Insurance Reports
When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.
When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.
Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
– Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
– Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
– Obtain written consent before releasing any information
– Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
– Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems
Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.
While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.
It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.
In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her shoulder. She indicates that the pain is mainly in the deltoid area and worsens when she moves her shoulder. She reports no previous trauma or injury. She is in good health otherwise. She has observed that the pain is most bothersome when she reaches up to place things on a high shelf in her kitchen.
Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal with no redness or visible swelling. She experiences limited mobility and pain between 70-120 degrees of abduction. The internal rotation of the shoulder is somewhat stiff and tender. She has good external rotation of the joint without pain.
What is the most probable underlying cause of her shoulder pain based on this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impingement
Explanation:Understanding Shoulder Pain: Impingement, Bicipital Tendonitis, and ACJ Arthritis
Shoulder pain can be caused by various conditions, including impingement, bicipital tendonitis, and ACJ arthritis. To distinguish between impingement and frozen shoulder, external rotation is an important examination finding. Patients with impingement typically have good external rotation, while external rotation is affected in frozen shoulder. Impingement is characterized by pain in the deltoid region with impaired abduction of the affected arm, often noticed during overhead reaching or activities that require internal rotation. On the other hand, frozen shoulder causes global restriction of shoulder movement, especially external rotation and elevation. Plain x-rays can help distinguish frozen shoulder from glenohumeral arthritis, which can give similar clinical findings.
Bicipital tendonitis is characterized by tenderness on palpation of the tendon in the bicipital groove. Pain may also be elicited with resisted flexion with the elbow straight and the forearm supinated, and resisted supination of the forearm with the elbow flexed. Meanwhile, ACJ arthritis can cause diffuse lateral shoulder pain as well as localized ACJ pain. Local tenderness may be present, and cross-adduction often worsens the pain. Treatment for impingement includes rest, corticosteroid injection, physiotherapy, and analgesia/anti-inflammatory use.
In summary, understanding the different causes of shoulder pain and their distinguishing features can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis
Explanation:Immunisation Policies for Common Diseases
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues, potentially leading to upper respiratory tract obstruction. The most common cause is Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), but immunisation against Hib has significantly reduced its incidence in countries where it is included in routine vaccination schedules.
Cervical carcinoma, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), can be prevented through immunisation, which is offered to 12-year-old girls.
A vaccine for Chickenpox is available and recommended for healthcare workers who may come into contact with the disease if they are not immune.
Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for travellers, patients with chronic liver disease, haemophilia patients who receive plasma-derived clotting factors, intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, contacts of hepatitis A cases, and those with occupational risk.
Tuberculosis (TB) immunisation policies are based on risk. BCG is not part of the standard schedule, but it is offered to infants living in areas with a significant annual incidence of TB or born into families with a history of TB. It is also offered to infants and children with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a significant annual incidence of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 62-year-old female
Explanation:The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female with epilepsy controlled on topiramate is seeking advice on contraception options that will not interfere with her medication. She desires a reliable method due to concerns about teratogenicity. What type of contraception would be suitable to recommend while taking an enzyme-inducing medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Injectable progesterone (Depo- provera)
Explanation:According to the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health and the BNF, the recommended contraceptive method in this case is injectable progesterone. This method is not affected by drug interactions. However, as topiramate is an enzyme inducer, it can reduce the effectiveness of oestrogens and progesterone, which are components of combined contraceptive pills. Therefore, if a combined contraceptive pill is to be used, it should contain at least 50 micrograms of ethinyl estradiol. Barrier methods alone are not reliable and should not be used as the sole form of contraception. Progesterone-only pills and implants are not suitable due to the enhanced first pass metabolism of progesterone, which can result in decreased contraceptive efficacy.
Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. The effectiveness of anti-epileptic medication can be affected by the contraceptive, and vice versa. Additionally, if a woman becomes pregnant while taking anti-epileptic medication, there is a risk of teratogenic effects on the fetus. To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends the consistent use of condoms in addition to other forms of contraception.
For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends using the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) or progestogen-only pill (POP) with a UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) rating of 3. The implant has a UKMEC rating of 2, while the Depo-Provera injection, intrauterine device (IUD), and intrauterine system (IUS) have a UKMEC rating of 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends using the COCP with a UKMEC rating of 3 or the POP, implant, Depo-Provera injection, IUD, or IUS with a UKMEC rating of 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol.
In summary, women with epilepsy should carefully consider the potential interactions between their anti-epileptic medication and their chosen contraceptive method. Using condoms consistently in addition to other forms of contraception can help reduce the risk of unintended pregnancy and potential teratogenic effects on the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which statement is true regarding the pharmaceutical representative who has brought Apple EarPods as a gift and offered post-marketing surveillance of a new lipid lowering drug, while abiding by the ABPI code of practice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number of mailings that can be sent to GPs is unrestricted
Explanation:ABPI Code of Practice for Pharmaceutical Companies
The ABPI Code of Practice for Pharmaceutical Companies has been amended in 2011 to include stricter regulations on promotional aids and gifts to healthcare professionals. Items such as mugs, diaries, pens, and post-it notes are now banned, and any gifts provided must be part of a formal patient support program. Medical equipment and services should not carry an inducement to prescribe a particular product, and hospitality is restricted to scientific and educational meetings. Meetings held outside the UK must have good reasons for being held abroad.
The code also regulates the training and regulation of pharmaceutical representatives, and if a GP requests removal from a mailing list, their names must be removed promptly. Information released to the media in advance of a product becoming licensed must not be designed to encourage patients to ask for a specific medicine.
If you feel that a pharmaceutical company or one of its representatives has infringed the code, you can make a complaint to the Prescription of Medicines Code of Practice Authority (PMCPA). The PMCPA can apply sanctions if the company is found to be in breach of the code and can require the withdrawal of the offending material.
Despite these regulations, a recent survey of 400 doctors showed that 48% were unaware of the code, while 86% had no knowledge of how to make a complaint. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the ABPI Code of Practice and for patients to know their rights in regards to pharmaceutical marketing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart attack in a year from 15% in patients treated with conventional treatment to 10% in patients treated with conventional treatment plus the new agent.
The cost of this new drug is £150 per month.
How much extra would a hospital need to spend over the course of a year to prevent one heart attack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: £30,000
Explanation:Calculation of Cost to Prevent Stroke
The calculation of the cost to prevent a stroke involves determining the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. In this case, the absolute risk reduction is 4%, which means that 25 patients would need to be treated to prevent one stroke. Assuming a cost of £100 per month for 12 months, the total cost to prevent a stroke would be £30,000. This calculation is important for healthcare providers and policymakers to consider when making decisions about the allocation of resources for stroke prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The patient has a history of mental health problems and rarely leaves her house, but is still able to perform daily activities independently.
The daughter is concerned as her mother has been complaining of increased bone and joint pain, particularly in her spine and legs, along with a general feeling of weakness over the past few months. Upon examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in her long bones, weakness in her proximal muscles, and difficulty walking with a waddling gait.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy suggest a diagnosis of osteomalacia. This condition is often caused by a lack of sunlight and subsequent vitamin D deficiency, leading to decreased bone mineralization and softening of the bones. Unlike other bone pathologies, osteomalacia can cause joint and bone pain as well as muscle weakness, particularly in the form of proximal myopathy and a waddling gait.
Osteopenia is characterized by low bone density and typically precedes osteoporosis. While patients with osteopenia are at risk of bone fractures, the condition itself doesn’t usually cause symptoms such as pain or weakness.
Osteoporosis is a more severe form of reduced bone mass and also increases the risk of bone fractures. However, like osteopenia, it doesn’t typically cause joint pain, weakness, or a waddling gait.
Paget’s disease is caused by abnormal bone remodeling, resulting in excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation. While bone pain can occur, most patients are asymptomatic. The most common features of Paget’s disease include skull frontal bossing, headaches, and hearing loss due to narrowing of the auditory foramen. Joint pain, weakness, and a waddling gait are not typically associated with Paget’s disease.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset of unilateral sensorineural deafness. She has no prior history of ear issues and is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation:Idiopathic Unilateral Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Idiopathic unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss (ISSHL) is a rare condition characterized by a sudden loss of hearing in one ear, often accompanied by tinnitus, vertigo, and aural fullness. The exact cause of ISSHL is not well understood, but it may be linked to viral infections, vascular issues, or immune-mediated inner ear disease.
Patients with ISSHL should be referred for urgent treatment, typically involving corticosteroids. Other treatment options include low molecular weight dextran, carbogen, hyperbaric oxygen, low-density lipid apheresis, aciclovir, and stellate ganglion block. However, there is limited evidence to support the effectiveness of any one treatment.
Many patients with ISSHL are admitted to the hospital, but fortunately, spontaneous recovery rates are generally good. Studies have reported recovery rates ranging from 47-63%, although different criteria for recovery were used in each study.
In summary, ISSHL is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. While treatment options exist, the evidence for their effectiveness is limited, and many patients may recover spontaneously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect
Explanation:Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects
Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.
While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.
In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother complaining of recurrent episodes of mouth, tongue, and lip itchiness shortly after eating bananas. The symptoms usually subside within half an hour. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. He has undergone allergy testing before, which revealed a positive result for birch pollen.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Angioedema can be triggered by drug-induced reactions or, in rare cases, other factors.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:
Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.
Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.
Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.
Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.
Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.
It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An asymptomatic 63-year-old man is found to have an irregular pulse during a routine check-up. A 12-lead ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 106bpm. He is not taking any regular medications and his blood and urine tests are normal. The physician prescribes bisoprolol to manage his condition.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's atrial fibrillation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not offer anticoagulation
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, anticoagulation should be considered for individuals with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1 or greater for men and 2 or greater for women to assess stroke risk in atrial fibrillation. As the patient’s score is 1, anticoagulation is not currently indicated. However, this will need to be reassessed if the patient reaches the age of 65 or develops other criteria such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, stroke/TIA, or vascular disease. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants are the first-line choice for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, unless contraindicated or not suitable. Low molecular weight heparin is not a suitable choice for anticoagulation in this case. Warfarin may be considered as a second-line option if anticoagulation is required but a direct oral anticoagulant is not suitable or tolerated.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes in seeking assistance with quitting smoking. She attempted to quit when she discovered she was pregnant at six weeks, but was unsuccessful. She inquires about the possibility of medication to aid her in quitting.
What is the most suitable pharmacological approach for this patient, if any?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)
Explanation:Safe and Effective Smoking Cessation Aids for Pregnant Women
Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is a recommended aid for smoking cessation in pregnancy, along with behavioral support. Compared to smoking, NRT poses lower risks as nicotine levels are much lower and the delivery method is less addictive. Varenicline is not routinely recommended due to limited efficacy and safety data. Bupropion is contraindicated for pregnant women. NRT can be offered at any stage of pregnancy to minimize adverse effects on the fetus. It is important to consider safe and effective options for smoking cessation during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a persistent eczema patch on his right cheek that has worsened despite his regular use of emollient and topical hydrocortisone treatment. The patch has become excruciatingly painful overnight and has spread to his chin. The boy has had eczema since he was a baby but is otherwise healthy.
During the examination, the GP observes a dry, reddish skin patch on the right cheek and a larger, more inflamed patch on the left that extends to the chin. The area is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same-day referral to paediatrics
Explanation:When a child presents with rapidly worsening and painful eczema that is not responding to usual treatment, it may be an early sign of eczema herpeticum. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent assessment and treatment with antivirals to prevent systemic complications. Therefore, the most appropriate action is same-day referral to paediatrics. Oral aciclovir, oral flucloxacillin, and topical clobetasol are not the most appropriate actions in this case. Mild cases may respond to oral antivirals, but a thorough assessment is necessary, and IV antiviral treatment may be required for facial involvement. Definitive treatment for eczema herpeticum is antivirals, not antibiotics or topical steroids.
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children who have atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The affected area usually shows monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions with a diameter of 1-3 mm.
Due to its life-threatening potential, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted for intravenous aciclovir treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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