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Question 1
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A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye and vomiting. On examination, the right eye is red and decreased visual acuity is noted. Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Topical pilocarpine + oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine + intravenous acetazolamide
Explanation:In acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) there is a rise in IOP secondary to an impairment of aqueous outflow. Management options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and inducing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
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A 50 year old doctor developed a fever of 40.2 °C which lasted for two days. He has had diarrhoea for a day, shortness of breath and dry cough. His blood results reveal a hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs. His WBC count is 10.4 × 109/L and CX-ray shows bibasal consolidation.  Which treatment would be the most effective for his condition?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Pneumonia is the predominant clinical manifestation of Legionnaires disease (LD). After an incubation period of 2-10 days, patients typically develop the following nonspecific symptoms:
Fever
Weakness
Fatigue
Malaise
Myalgia
ChillsRespiratory symptoms may not be present initially but develop as the disease progresses. Almost all patients develop a cough, which is initially dry and non-productive, but may become productive, with purulent sputum and, (in rare cases) haemoptysis. Patients may experience chest pain.
Common GI symptoms include diarrhoea (watery and non bloody), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.Fever is typically present (98%). Temperatures exceeding 40°C occur in 20-60% of patients. Lung examination reveals rales and signs of consolidation late in the disease course.
Males are more than twice as likely as females to develop Legionnaires disease.
Age
Middle-aged and older adults have a high risk of developing Legionnaires disease while it is rare in young adults and children. Among children, more than one third of reported cases have occurred in infants younger than 1 year.Situations suggesting Legionella disease:
-Gram stains of respiratory samples revealing many polymorphonuclear leukocytes with few or no organisms-Hyponatremia
-Pneumonia with prominent extrapulmonary manifestations (e.g., diarrhoea, confusion, other neurologic symptoms)
Specific therapy includes antibiotics capable of achieving high intracellular concentrations (e.g., macrolides, quinolones, ketolides, tetracyclines, rifampicin).
Clarithromycin, a new macrolide antibiotic, is at least four times more active in vitro than erythromycin against Legionella pneumophila. In this study the safety and efficacy of orally administered clarithromycin (500 to 1,000 mg bid) in the treatment of Legionella pneumonia were evaluated.
Clarithromycin is a safe effective treatment for patients with severe chest infections due to Legionella pneumophila. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
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A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle
Explanation:The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
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A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: History and physical examination
Explanation:The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
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A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation:Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.
The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.
Features of carbon monoxide toxicity
– Headache: 90% of cases
– Nausea and vomiting: 50%
– Vertigo: 50%
– Confusion: 30%
– Subjective weakness: 20%
– Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:
Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
• COHb levels > 20-25%
• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
• Loss of consciousness
• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
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A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old designer is requesting the combined oral contraceptive pill. During the history taking, she states that in the past she has had migraines with aura. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is contraindicated. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Your Answer: Theoretical risk of ischaemic stroke
Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke
Explanation:SIGN produced guidelines in 2008 on the management of migraines. Key points include that if patients have migraines with aura then the combined oral contraceptive (COC) is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke (relative risk 8.72).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
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Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation:Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
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A 40-year-old female patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed with type 1 renal tubular acidosis. What is the most probable sequela of this condition?
Your Answer: Nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis is due to defective proton secretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the distal tubule caused by dysfunction of the H+/K+ antiporter on the apical membrane. This leads to failure of H+ excretion thereby causing systemic acidosis and potassium depletion. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.3 in the presence of systemic acidosis is the diagnostic hallmark of type I or distal renal tubular acidosis. Hypercalciuria, hypocitraturia and elevated urinary pH observed in distal renal tubular acidosis can lead to nephrocalcinosis and may cause renal calculi, obstructive uropathy and renal failure necessitating surgical or endoscopic stone extraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
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