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  • Question 1 - A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and is diagnosed with mild Parkinson's-related dementia. Is there a licensed medication available to treat their cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer: Levodopa

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine is the only acetylcholinesterase inhibitor approved for treating mild to moderate Parkinson’s related dementia, while none of the three (donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) are licensed for use in vascular dementia. However, all three are commonly used to alleviate cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the...

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    • A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the right cheek. The pain may last up to a minute before subsiding. He thinks that sometimes shaving or washing his face has precipitated attacks. He had similar trouble 6 months ago but it subsided after a week. It has been going on for over 2 weeks now and he has had up to four attacks per day. There are no other associated symptoms and he has no sensory or motor deficit of his face.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: A Debilitating Condition Resulting in Intense Pain

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic condition that causes extreme episodes of pain in the cheek and lower jaw. These episodes are sudden and sporadic, often described as electric shocks that can last from a few seconds to several minutes. While the episodes themselves are intermittent, they can recur for days, weeks, or even months before disappearing for extended periods. Some patients may experience bilateral pains. Triggers for these episodes include brushing teeth, eating and drinking, exposure to wind, skin contact (such as shaving or washing), and vibration.

      Diagnosis is typically clinical, and no investigations are necessary unless there is uncertainty. Carbamazepine is the most effective treatment and should be tried initially, with the dose titrated up to achieve pain control, usually to about 200 mg three or four times a day (maximum 1600mg per day). Once in remission, the dose should be gradually reduced and discontinued until further attacks occur.

      If carbamazepine is ineffective, the patient should be referred to a specialist. Normal analgesics are ineffective, and while gabapentin, clonazepam, baclofen, lamotrigine, and amitriptyline have been used, adequate evidence supporting their use is lacking. Abnormal clinical features, such as burning pain between paroxysms, loss of sensation, or any abnormal neurological signs, should also prompt referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 3 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

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    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man comes in with atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes in with atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar eminences of his right hand, along with weakness of thumb abduction, thumb flexion, and finger abduction and adduction. He also reports sensory loss to pinprick over the ulnar border of the hand and forearm. The rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable.
      What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to the Hand Muscles: An Overview

      The muscles of the hand are supplied by different nerves, and lesions to specific nerves can cause distinct symptoms. The thenar eminence, which includes the abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles, is supplied by the median nerve, except for the adductor pollicis, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. On the other hand, the hypothenar eminence, which includes the abductor, flexor, and opponens digiti minimi muscles, as well as the palmaris brevis, is supplied by the ulnar nerve. The first two lumbrical muscles are supplied by the median nerve.

      It is important to note that lesions to the ulnar, median, or anterior interosseous nerve alone cannot cause all the symptoms associated with hand muscle weakness or paralysis. A T1 root lesion, for instance, would primarily affect the intrinsic muscles of the hand, especially the abductor pollicis brevis, and other signs would usually be present, such as Horner syndrome.

      In some cases, damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, which can occur due to traction on the arm in an abducted position, can produce combined C8/T1 lesions that mimic a combined median and ulnar nerve lesion in the hand. Understanding the nerve supply to the hand muscles is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of hand muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite using adequate triptans and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, these attacks can incapacitate her for up to three days. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Migraine Prophylactic Drugs: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Migraine is a common neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Prophylactic drugs are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks. In this article, we will discuss the guidelines and recommendations for the use of prophylactic drugs in the management of migraines.

      Beta-blockers, topiramate, and valproate are considered first-line prophylactic drugs for migraines, according to the British Association for the Study of Headache guidelines. Amitriptyline is regarded as adequate, while other prophylactic drugs are considered poor. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends propranolol as the first-line preventative therapy for migraines.

      Amitriptyline is the first-line treatment when migraine co-exists with other chronic pain conditions, disturbed sleep, and depression. It is often used in combination with beta-blockers as a second-line treatment for chronic migraines. However, there is no formal evidence of a synergistic effect.

      Pizotifen and clonidine have been widely used for many years, but there is little clinical trial evidence of their efficacy. Sodium valproate is a second-line prophylactic drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy. Topiramate is also a second-line prophylactic agent for migraines, but it has a significant side-effect profile and should be avoided during pregnancy.

      In conclusion, the choice of prophylactic drug for migraines should be based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. The guidelines and recommendations discussed in this article can serve as a starting point for healthcare professionals in the management of migraines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing. During examination, she exhibits dysarthria and a brisk gag reflex. There is increased tone in all four limbs, with weakness distributed pyramidally. Sensation is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: Types, Symptoms, and Characteristics

      Motor neurone disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a degenerative condition that affects motor neurones, leading to increasing disability and death. It usually occurs after the age of 50 and has a focal onset, with a particular group of muscles affected first. Rare variants include primary lateral sclerosis and progressive muscular atrophy.

      Brainstem gliomas are diagnosed in children and young adults under the age of twenty, with common symptoms including double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, dysarthria, headache, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination commonly elicits long tract signs such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, and abnormal reflexes.

      Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is a serious consequence of cervical intervertebral disc degeneration, with clinical signs and symptoms depending on which spinal cord level is affected and the extent of the pathology. There may be upper and lower motor neurone signs, sensory changes, and bladder and bowel involvement.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome presents within 3 weeks of a respiratory or bowel infection, due to immune damage to the peripheral nervous system. Early symptoms include nerve root type pain and paraesthesia of the legs and feet, followed by proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities progressing over hours to days. Tendon reflexes are lost but plantar responses remain normal.

      Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes, motor, sensory, or autonomic, that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor in his hands. He first noticed the tremor about a year ago, but it has worsened over the past few months and he is now having difficulty keeping his hands steady when working with wood. Additionally, he reports changes in his voice with the appearance of a mild vibrato.

      During the neurological examination, a high-frequency tremor is observed, most pronounced on the right, when the patient holds up his arms in front of him. The tremor disappears when the patient relaxes his arms and hands, and there is no evidence of ataxia or hypotonia.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Essential tremor is commonly associated with a sustained muscle tone tremor in the hands, but it can also affect the vocal cords. It is unlikely to be caused by cerebellar disease or Parkinson’s disease, and orthostatic tremor is rare and affects the legs.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, previously known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. Its main feature is a postural tremor that worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the most common cause of titubation, which is a head tremor.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old woman presents with two episodes of right-sided, painless, transient monocular visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with two episodes of right-sided, painless, transient monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute. Each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of her right eye. Neurological examination is normal. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, glucose and lipids are all within the normal range. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computed tomography brain is normal. Doppler of the carotid arteries shows 40% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition characterized by temporary loss of vision in one eye, often caused by emboli or stenosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery. The long-term treatment of choice for this condition is antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel or aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole if clopidogrel is not tolerated or contraindicated. Other vascular risk factors should also be addressed.

      Carotid endarterectomy is only recommended for patients with stenosis of 70-99%, and therefore, it is not indicated for this patient. Anticoagulation with apixaban is only indicated for patients with paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant cell arteritis, which can also cause visual loss, but it is unlikely in this case due to normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate and absence of pain. Angioplasty is still an experimental tool and is not recommended for this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.

      He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.

      On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.

      On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.

      On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.

      Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.

      It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He recalls waking from sleep, standing up, feeling light-headed and nauseated, lying back on the bed and losing consciousness. He recovered on the floor. He did not bite his tongue, but his head was badly bruised. His wife was woken by him falling to the ground and mentions that he was pale and sweaty before giving a loud moan followed by ‘spasms’ of his arms and legs lasting about 20 seconds. He was rousable after a minute.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Collapse: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with a history of collapse, it is important to consider various possible causes. One potential cause is vasovagal syncope, which is characterized by a prodrome of nausea and light-headedness, often associated with postural change, and a rapid recovery. Jerking movements may occur but do not necessarily indicate epilepsy. Another possibility is cardiac arrhythmia, which may be associated with chest pain or palpitations and can occur during exercise or while lying down. Epileptic seizures are less likely to be triggered by postural change and may involve tongue biting or incontinence. Hypoglycaemia typically presents with trembling, sweating, palpitations, and paraesthesiae before progressing to confusion and coma. Finally, psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may have a gradual onset, fluctuating course, and violent thrashing movements with side-to-side head movement. It is important to consider these and other potential causes when evaluating a patient with a history of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing his mind. He reports experiencing peculiar odors (such as burnt rubber) and frequently feeling jamais vu. No one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. He remains fully conscious and has excellent recall of the events. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophreniform attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding Simple Partial Seizures

      A simple partial seizure is a type of seizure where consciousness is usually not lost during the attack. However, other symptoms such as muscle twitching, numbness, or tingling sensations may occur. This type of seizure is considered simple because it only affects a small part of the brain.

      It is important to note that if consciousness is impaired during the seizure, it is then classified as a complex partial seizure. It is crucial to understand the difference between the two types of seizures as they may require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for sweet foods. He lost his job as an accountant because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. The neurological examination is normal.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick’s Disease)

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of progressive dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes of the brain. Unlike other dementias that affect the posterior parietal lobes, frontotemporal dementia is the fourth most common cause of dementia, following Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease, and vascular or non-neurodegenerative dementia. It typically occurs in individuals aged 55-65 and is characterized by insidious onset of behavioral and cognitive effects.

      Early symptoms of frontotemporal dementia include psychiatric problems such as aggression, socially inappropriate behavior, and lack of concern or apathy. Depression may also occur early on, before memory loss. Speech and language problems are common, with difficulty in naming objects and grammatically incorrect speech. Memory problems are less severe in the early stages of the disease. Incontinence may also be an early feature, unlike in Alzheimer’s disease. Parkinsonism may develop but is not as prominent as in Lewy body disease.

      On examination, patients with frontotemporal dementia may exhibit inappropriate behavior, echolalia, and echopraxia. Neurological examination may show primitive reflexes and akinesia with plastic rigidity. Visuospatial and visual orientation skills are relatively well preserved.

      Full clinical diagnostic features of frontotemporal dementia can be found in the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance, February 2006. It is important to differentiate frontotemporal dementia from other types of dementia, as the treatment and management strategies may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to the Emergency Department with confusion after experiencing a seizure earlier in the day. During the examination, a coarse tremor is observed, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure = 134/86 mmHg, pulse = 84/min regular, and temperature = 36.7ºC. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started experiencing diarrhoea, especially at night. He has also noticed that he feels dizzy when he stands up; he collapsed while standing at a bus stop a few days ago. On further questioning, he admits to having erectile problems for several years. He has chronic polyneuropathy.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 160/88 mmHg when lying down and 136/60 mmHg when standing. He demonstrates signs of reduced knee jerks, absent ankle jerks and reduced pinprick and vibration sense to the knees. These are unchanged from his last examination six months ago.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing symptoms of autonomic neuropathy, such as bowel issues, postural hypotension, and erectile dysfunction. The most common cause of this condition is diabetes mellitus, which can also lead to other types of neuropathy. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy, but it is less likely in this case. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an inherited peripheral neuropathy that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. Paraneoplastic neuropathy is a rare syndrome that accompanies malignant disease and would be an unusual pattern of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy and should be checked in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old girl complaining of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Neurological Symptoms

      When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient with migraine, the symptoms may include headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, if the symptoms are more severe or progressive, other conditions may need to be considered.

      One possible diagnosis is a brain tumour, which can cause symptoms of a space-occupying lesion and raised intracranial pressure. Another potential concern is central nervous system cancer, which should be assessed with an MRI or CT scan within two weeks of onset.

      Elderly patients with a first seizure may have underlying factors such as cerebrovascular disease, dementia, or tumours. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and right-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain began, he noted that his left eyelid was drooping and that he had developed weakness and altered sensation in his right arm and leg.
      He had recently visited a chiropractor for neck pain after a road traffic accident. Examination reveals a left Horner syndrome and weakness and sensory disturbance on the right-hand side with an extensor right plantar.
      What is the single most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Sudden-Onset Symptoms and Signs with Horner Syndrome: Carotid Artery Dissection

      The sudden onset of symptoms and signs, along with Horner syndrome, suggests a possible left carotid artery dissection leading to left hemispheric ischaemia and subsequent right-sided signs. While chiropractic manipulation and neck trauma can cause carotid and vertebral artery dissections, they often occur spontaneously. Dissection should be considered when neck pain is associated with an ischaemic stroke syndrome. Horner syndrome is a common symptom of carotid artery dissection due to the close relationship between sympathetic nerve fibres and the carotid artery.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, and venous sinus thrombosis, do not fully explain the constellation of symptoms and signs, particularly the presence of Horner syndrome. Therefore, carotid artery dissection remains a likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history of Parkinson's disease. He is currently on co-beneldopa 650mg five times daily. The patient reports excessive drooling of saliva, which has not improved with speech and language therapy. What would be the best initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start glycopyrronium bromide

      Explanation:

      To manage drooling of saliva in people with Parkinson’s disease, the recommended first line of medical treatment is glycopyrronium bromide. If this medication is not effective, not well-tolerated, or contraindicated, it may be necessary to refer the patient to a specialist service for botulinum toxin A. While scopolamine is also an antimuscarinic that can be used for drooling in Parkinson’s disease, it carries a higher risk of adverse cognitive effects. Increasing co-beneldopa will not have any impact on non-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including drooling. Atropine can be used, but sublingual atropine ophthalmic solution is preferred over inhalers.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports that the tremor has been present for a long time but has become more noticeable over the past year. The tremor began in his left hand and has always been more severe on that side.

      Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a mask-like facial expression and a coarse, rhythmic tremor affecting both hands, which is most prominent at rest. The left hand is more affected than the right.

      As the patient walks, you note that he is stooped over and moves with short, shuffling steps. What other clinical signs would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasciculation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that presents with a range of symptoms. The core clinical features of PD are bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Bradykinesia is characterized by a slowing of movements, resulting in a shuffling gait and a stooped posture. Patients may also experience a loss of facial expression, known as masked facies. Tremors in PD are typically worse at rest and are rhythmic and repetitive, occurring at a frequency of two to five movements per second. This tremor is often described as pill-rolling if the thumb and index finger are involved. Rigidity, which worsens over time, is also more prominent on one side and can lead to the classic description of cog wheel rigidity in PD. These symptoms can be asymmetrical, with one side of the body being more affected than the other. Understanding these core features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement for the past 6 days. Upon examination, the doctor finds that her acuity is reduced to 6/36, she has impaired colour vision, a relatively afferent pupillary defect, and a swollen, pale optic disc. The doctor diagnoses her with optic neuritis. The patient mentions that she has heard about a connection between optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks for more information. What is the best advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Demyelinating Optic Neuritis and its Relationship to Multiple Sclerosis

      Acute demyelinating optic neuritis (ADON) is a condition that can be associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS, as the presence of white matter abnormalities on MRI of the brain increases the risk of MS. The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) revealed that the risk of developing MS at 15-year follow-up was approximately 25% for patients with no white matter lesions on MRI compared to 75% for those with lesions.

      Interferon-beta treatment can increase the time interval to relapse in MS, particularly in patients with ADON and white matter lesions on MRI. However, it is important to remember that many patients with ADON will not develop MS. Information about their prognosis can help patients to decide whether to undergo MRI scanning and whether to use interferon-beta or other immunomodulators in their treatment.

      While the risk of recurrence of ADON is approximately 35% over ten years, the prognosis for vision retainment in patients with ADON is usually good. The ONTT found that one year after onset, 93% of individuals had visual acuity greater than 6/12 in the affected eye. However, many patients may continue to experience subjective reductions in vision and other visual impairments.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between ADON and MS, as well as the potential benefits and risks of treatment options, can help patients make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the right side of her face and difficulty with tears flowing from her right eye. She experienced some mild pain around her right ear the day before the weakness started.

      Upon examination, there is evident right facial nerve palsy, and there are no indications of herpes zoster infection.

      What can be said about this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-virals are of proven benefit

      Explanation:

      Bell’s Palsy: Treatment and Symptoms

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. While the cause of Bell’s palsy is unclear, it is thought to be a post-viral phenomenon in many cases. Interestingly, a family history is found in around 4% of patients with Bell’s.

      Most patients with Bell’s palsy make a complete recovery, but to protect the cornea, artificial tears are absolutely required. Post-auricular pain is found in around 50% of patients and may occur 2-3 days before presentation.

      When it comes to treatment, corticosteroids have demonstrated significantly improved outcomes in Bell’s palsy, in contrast to anti-virals where two recent RCTs were negative. It is important to note that early treatment is crucial for the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.

      During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.

      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options

      Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.

      The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.

      Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.

      In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and are now happening every day, accompanied by vomiting. He has also experienced vision loss, specifically an inability to see things on his left side. During the examination, the doctor observes a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
      What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localizing Neurological Lesions Based on Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can provide valuable information in localizing neurological lesions. In this case, the patient presents with a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia. By analyzing the location of the defect, we can rule out certain areas of the brain that may be affected.

      Defects in the visual field that are restricted to one eye are likely to be in the retina or optic nerve. However, this patient doesn’t have a single eye visual field defect. Parietal or superior bank lesions would cause an inferior quadrantanopia, which is unlikely in this case.

      A bitemporal field defect would indicate a lesion in the optic chiasm, but this patient’s defect is not bitemporal. A lesion to the optic tract would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is different from the patient’s quadrantanopia.

      Therefore, based on the location of the defect, we can conclude that the lesion is most likely posterior to the optic chiasm, ruling out the right optic tract, left retina, and left parietal lobe. The most probable location of the lesion is the left temporal optic radiations or inferior bank of the calcarine cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
    Select the single correct...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
      Select the single correct statement regarding the treatment of motion sickness.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cinnarazine should be started before travel

      Explanation:

      Preventing Travel Sickness: Effective Drugs and Side-Effects

      Travel sickness can be prevented by taking medication before experiencing nausea or vomiting. The most effective drug is hyoscine, which can be administered through a transdermal patch for prolonged activity. However, hyoscine may cause side-effects such as dry mouth, drowsiness, and blurred vision. Sedating antihistamines are slightly less effective but are generally better tolerated. Promethazine is useful for its sedative effect, but a less sedating antihistamine like cyclizine or cinnarizine is preferred. Domperidone, metoclopramide, 5HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron), and phenothiazines (e.g. prochlorperazine) except for promethazine are ineffective in preventing travel sickness. Prochlorperazine is commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting but has not been proven to prevent motion sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. She has diabetes and has not attended the diabetic follow-up clinic for a year. Eight months ago she had a mild stroke that affected her right side. She was also found to have atrial fibrillation, for which she is taking warfarin.
      On examination, she is obese. She has normal muscle power. Her tone is slightly increased on the right, with right-sided reflexes are slightly brisker than those on the left. Pinprick is reduced over the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Anterolateral Thigh Pain in a Stroke Patient with Increased Reflexes and Tone

      The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This condition typically causes pain and sensory abnormalities in the anterolateral thigh and is more common in obese individuals. The patient’s increased reflexes and tone on the right side are likely due to the stroke she suffered seven months ago.

      Other possible causes of anterolateral thigh pain and weakness include diabetic femoral nerve amyotrophy, femoral hernia, and iliopsoas haematoma from warfarin use. However, these conditions are less likely based on the patient’s presentation.

      Thalamic pain from a previous stroke is another potential cause, although it is not typically as well-localized as the patient’s symptoms suggest. It is important to consider the patient’s diabetes as a factor that may increase the susceptibility of any peripheral nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly squats down on the ground and also has another repetitive action of rubbing his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes swear words. The symptoms prevent him from working and having a normal social life.
      Which of the following conditions is often associated with his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Tics: Tourette Syndrome, Epilepsy, Huntington’s Disease, Parkinson’s Disease, and Restless Legs Syndrome

      When a patient presents with sudden involuntary repeated movements or sounds, a tic disorder may be suspected. Tourette syndrome is a likely diagnosis if the symptoms have lasted longer than a year, started in childhood, and include at least two motor tics and one vocal tic. Tourette syndrome is often associated with other conduct disorders such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

      Myoclonic epilepsy may be considered as a differential diagnosis for tics, but the brief shock-like jerks of a muscle or group of muscles in myoclonic seizures are distinct from the complex tics and vocal tics seen in Tourette syndrome. There is no association between epilepsy and Tourette syndrome.

      Huntington’s disease, a hereditary condition characterized by chronic progressive chorea and mental deterioration, usually presents around the age of 40 years old. However, there is no association between Huntington’s disease and Tourette syndrome.

      Parkinson’s disease, a chronic neurological disorder characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremors, and rigidity, is not associated with Tourette syndrome.

      Restless legs syndrome, a common condition in which patients experience an unpleasant sensation in their legs that is temporarily relieved by movement, is not associated with Tourette syndrome. However, symptoms can affect sleep and may include periodic leg movements during sleep.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with tics, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis, including Tourette syndrome, epilepsy, Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and restless legs syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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