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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

      Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.

      It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 2 - You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.

      His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit him to hospital

      Correct Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer

      Explanation:

      Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia

      There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.

      While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.

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  • Question 3 - Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Defecation

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?

      Your Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.

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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.

      According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.

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  • Question 6 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.

      Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 7 - Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of the receptionists who is shouting for help.
      You run into the reception area to find the mother of a 7-month-old child shouting that her child has been stung by a bee. The practice nurse is preparing to give oxygen.
      The child appears distressed and has stridor. The lips are swollen. You have made a quick ABC assessment, diagnosed anaphylaxis and decided to give adrenaline. Beside the child, your practice nurse has opened the emergency bag and you are presented with vials of epinephrine (adrenaline) 1:1000 solution.
      How much of this epinephrine would you administer?

      Your Answer: 0.15 ml

      Correct Answer: 0.05 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaphylactic Reactions: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Anaphylactic reactions can vary in severity and may be delayed by several hours. The most common triggers are foods, bee and wasp stings, and drugs. Symptoms may include itching, redness, and swelling. Beta-blockers can worsen the reaction by blocking the response to adrenaline. Unlike a vasovagal attack, anaphylaxis is usually accompanied by a rapid heartbeat.

      Initial management of anaphylaxis involves administering high-flow oxygen, laying the patient flat, and elevating their legs to combat hypotension. If the patient is experiencing respiratory distress or shock, epinephrine should be given intramuscularly. It is recommended that practices have vials of epinephrine 1:1000 solution on hand, along with the necessary syringes and needles.

      The recommended doses of epinephrine vary by age, with adults and children over 12 years receiving 0.5 ml (500 micrograms), children aged 6-12 receiving 0.3 ml (300 micrograms), and children under 6 receiving 0.15 ml (150 micrograms). Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone may also be given intramuscularly, but hydrocortisone is of secondary value in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

      On examination, he is hypotensive, has an elevated JVP which rises on inspiration, (Kussmaul's sign) and has a 'knock' on auscultation of the heart.

      Past history of note includes TB which was treated with aggressive quadruple therapy some three years ago.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Paradoxical JVP Rise in Pericardial Effusion

      Pericardial effusion, which may be infective as a result of previous tuberculosis, can cause a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. This is in contrast to the typical fall in JVP seen with inspiration. Treatment for pericardial effusion depends on the underlying cause, with an echocardiogram being the crucial initial investigation. If the effusion is particularly large and causing haemodynamic compromise, it may need to be tapped. Additionally, re-treatment with anti-tuberculous therapy is necessary. Proper diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion are essential to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man takes 2 x co-dydramol 10/500 tablets, four times daily for...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man takes 2 x co-dydramol 10/500 tablets, four times daily for arthritis of his knee. During a routine medicines review over the phone, he reveals that he's been buying paracetamol from the local supermarket for the past 2 months and supplements his co-dydramol with an additional paracetamol tablet four times a day.

      You inform him that his prescribed medication contains paracetamol and that he's effectively taking 3 x 500mg paracetamol tablets four times a day. A total of 12 tablets a day. He weighs 70Kg.

      What is the threshold amount of paracetamol taken over a 24 hour period that would be required for medical admission and n-acetylcysteine infusion?

      Your Answer: 50 mg/Kg

      Explanation:

      Harmful Levels of Paracetamol

      When it comes to harmful levels of paracetamol, patients are divided into two groups: those who have taken an acute overdose and those who have taken a staggered overdose, which includes patients who may have taken therapeutic excess over a period of time. Surprisingly, even modest amounts of paracetamol can be harmful, especially for frail elderly patients.

      According to the British National Formulary, a staggered overdose involves ingesting a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol over more than one hour, with the possible intention of causing self-harm. Therapeutic excess is the inadvertent ingestion of a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol during its clinical use. In these cases, patients who have taken more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol in any 24-hour period are at risk of toxicity and should be commenced on acetylcysteine immediately, unless it is more than 24 hours since the last ingestion, the patient is asymptomatic, the plasma-paracetamol concentration is undetectable, and liver function tests, serum creatinine and INR are normal.

      It’s important to note that there is no set number of tablets that can cause toxicity as it depends on the patient’s weight. Rarely, toxicity can occur with paracetamol doses between 75-150 mg/kg in any 24-hour period, and clinical judgement of the individual case is necessary to determine whether to treat those who have ingested this amount of paracetamol. For small adults, this may be within the licensed dose, but ingestion of a licensed dose of paracetamol is not considered an overdose. The doctor may not be informed until after the event, so familiarity with the timescales is also important.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

      She is brought to the surgery where you are asked to see her. She is hyperventilating and looks very anxious. She is tender to light pressure on the front of her chest, but examination is otherwise unremarkable. Breathing room air, her oxygen saturation (finger probe) is 99%. Her ECG is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this woman?

      Your Answer: Admit to check D-dimer and troponin. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a clot of blood in the lung or a heart attack

      Correct Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Panic Attack

      The ECG and pulse oximetry tests were normal, and the clinical context and examination findings all point to the diagnosis of a panic attack. It is appropriate to explain the diagnosis to the patient and provide reassurance.

      Psychological symptoms of an anxiety state include irritability, intolerance of noise, poor concentration/memory, fearfulness, apprehensiveness, restlessness, and continuous worrying thoughts. On the other hand, physical symptoms of an anxiety state include dry mouth, difficulty in swallowing, chest pain, shakiness, diarrhoea, urinary frequency, paraesthesiae, and hot flashes. Physical signs of an anxiety state include tenseness, sweating, shaking, pallor, restlessness, and sighing.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of a panic attack to provide appropriate care and support to the patient.

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