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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near her earlobe. She had her ears pierced three months ago and has noticed a gradual development of an erythematous swelling. Upon examination, a keloid scar is observed. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Advise will spontaneously regress within 4-6 months
Correct Answer: Refer for intralesional triamcinolone
Explanation:Understanding Keloid Scars
Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.
To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.
It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician due to a mole that has changed color. When asked, he mentions that he always burns and never tans when exposed to sunlight. He has fair skin and red hair. What is the appropriate Fitzpatrick grade for this skin type?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fitzpatrick type 1
Explanation:Skin type 1 according to the Fitzpatrick classification is characterized by pale skin with features like blue eyes, red hair, and freckles. Individuals with this skin type always experience burning and never tanning. The classification system ranges from type 1, which is most prone to burning, to type 6, which is Afro-Caribbean skin that never burns.
Skin type is a crucial factor in determining the risk of developing skin cancer. The Fitzpatrick classification system is commonly used to categorize skin types based on their response to UV radiation. This system divides skin types into six categories, ranging from those who always burn and never tan to those who never burn and always tan.
Type I skin is the most sensitive to UV radiation and is characterized by red hair, freckles, and blue eyes. These individuals never tan and always burn when exposed to the sun. Type II skin usually tans but always burns, while Type III skin always tans but may sometimes burn. Type IV skin always tans and rarely burns, and Type V skin burns and tans after extreme UV exposure. Finally, Type VI skin, which is common in individuals of African descent, never tans and never burns.
Understanding your skin type is essential in protecting yourself from skin cancer. Those with fair skin, such as Type I and II, are at a higher risk of developing skin cancer and should take extra precautions when exposed to the sun. On the other hand, those with darker skin, such as Type V and VI, may have a lower risk of skin cancer but should still take measures to protect their skin from UV radiation. By knowing your skin type and taking appropriate precautions, you can reduce your risk of developing skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.
Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.
There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.
In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms
Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids
Explanation:The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.
To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.
The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.
It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.
It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected to have bullous pemphigoid. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.
To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.
It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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During your assessment of a 55-year-old patient admitted to the medical ward, you observe a rash on her legs. The rash has a lace-like pattern in a purple color and does not disappear when touched. It is located on the lower legs. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and reports experiencing this rash on and off in the past, often triggered by cold weather. What is the most probable diagnosis for this rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Understanding Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash. This occurs when the capillaries become obstructed, leading to swollen venules. The most common cause of this condition is idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, it can also be caused by various underlying medical conditions such as polyarteritis nodosa, systemic lupus erythematosus, cryoglobulinaemia, antiphospholipid syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and homocystinuria.
It is important to note that livedo reticularis is not a disease in itself, but rather a symptom of an underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema
Explanation:The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (a potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily
Explanation:Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient has already received eight weeks of potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue. The next step is to stop the steroid and increase the vitamin D analogue to twice daily. Steroids should not be used at the same site for more than eight weeks, and patients require a 4-week steroid-free break. If symptoms persist, twice-daily steroids or a coal tar preparation can be tried. Referral to Dermatology may be necessary for severe cases, but starting the next stage of treatment while awaiting review is appropriate. An ultra-potent steroid may be considered after the steroid-free break or as a short course if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches on her inner elbows, back of knees, and thighs. The skin on her right thigh is oozing. She reports feeling fatigued and wonders if she has had a fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with moderately severe eczema.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection
Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of superimposed infection with the erythematous, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh, indicating infected eczema/cellulitis.
The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15–20 min for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7–14 days and should continue until 48 h after the eczematous patches have cleared.
Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.
It is important to note that hydrocortisone 1% cream is only a mild steroid and not indicated in the initial management of moderate eczema. Betamethasone valerate 1% cream is a potent topical corticosteroid and should be reserved for the management of acute flare-ups of severe eczema. Oral flucloxacillin alone is not sufficient for treatment, and there is a need for a moderately potent topical corticosteroid as well to settle the inflammation.
In conclusion, a combination of regular emollient ointment, moderately potent topical corticosteroid, and oral antibiotics is necessary for the effective treatment of moderately severe eczema with superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, red rash on his neck, behind his ears, and around the nasolabial folds. He experienced a similar outbreak last year but did not seek medical attention. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Patients with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to experience seborrhoeic dermatitis.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some skin lesions on the child's face. Upon examination, you observe multiple small white papules on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Milia
Explanation:Milia, which are often found on the face of newborns, are a normal occurrence and can be seen in up to 50% of babies. They typically disappear on their own within a few weeks.
Understanding Milia: Small, Benign Cysts on the Face
Milia are small cysts that are filled with keratin and are typically found on the face. These cysts are benign and are not harmful to one’s health. Although they can appear at any age, they are more commonly found in newborns. Milia are often described as small, white bumps that are painless and do not cause any discomfort.
While the exact cause of milia is unknown, they are thought to occur when dead skin cells become trapped in the skin’s surface. They can also develop as a result of using heavy skin care products or as a side effect of certain medications. In most cases, milia will disappear on their own without any treatment. However, if they persist or become bothersome, a dermatologist may recommend treatment options such as extraction or chemical peels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral retinoin
Explanation:Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp. What is the most suitable treatment option among the following choices?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:It’s a challenging question, especially since the decision on psoriasis treatment often involves the patient and doctor’s preference. While vitamin D analogues can be an option, calcipotriol is not advisable due to its potential to cause irritation. Instead, calcitriol and tacalcitol can be considered. For facial psoriasis, mild potency topical steroids can be effective. However, coal tar may not be well-tolerated for facial application due to its unpleasant odor and messiness.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have been present for six weeks. At first, there was only one lesion, but more have appeared since then. During the examination, around 10 raised lesions with an umbilicated appearance, each around 1-2 mm in diameter, are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum is typically observed in children, but the following is a classical depiction of the condition.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white plaques on her vulva and inner thigh. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Lichen sclerosus is a condition characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly observed on the vulva of older women. While candida can also cause itching and white patches, it would not result in lesions appearing on the inner thigh as well.
Understanding Lichen Sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. This condition leads to the atrophy of the epidermis, resulting in the formation of white plaques. The most prominent feature of lichen sclerosus is the presence of white patches that may scar. Patients may also experience itching and pain during intercourse or urination.
Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually made based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present. Management of this condition involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. Patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, and routine follow-up is necessary to monitor for any changes.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advise against performing a skin biopsy if a diagnosis can be made on clinical examination. However, a biopsy may be necessary if the patient fails to respond to treatment or if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change. The British Association of Dermatologists also recommends a biopsy if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital lichen sclerosus, or if second-line therapy is to be used.
Understanding lichen sclerosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms or changes in their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her new bracelet. The possibility of a nickel allergy is being considered. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:Understanding Nickel Dermatitis
Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.
To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. Symptoms of nickel dermatitis can include redness, itching, and swelling of the affected area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for nail clippings taken 8 weeks ago. He had previously presented with thickening and discoloration of all the nails on his right foot. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is currently in good health and taking metformin, simvastatin, and ramipril. The lab report confirms the presence of onychomycosis. What treatment options should be offered to him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.
Understanding Fungal Nail Infections
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte moulds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of fungal nail infections is unsightly nails, which can be thickened, rough, and opaque. Other conditions, such as psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome, can mimic fungal nail infections. To confirm a diagnosis, nail clippings and scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. However, if a dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed, treatment is necessary. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive dermatophyte infections. Candida infections are best treated with oral itraconazole using a pulsed weekly therapy approach. It is important to note that cultures have a false-negative rate of around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and back. She has just come back from a trip to Spain and has a tanned complexion. During examination, the lesions appear to be slightly scaly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment
Explanation:Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and recently started taking phenytoin three weeks ago. He developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough about a week ago. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. Blood results reveal:
Na+ 144 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
Urea 13.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 121 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. It is characterized by extensive scalding of the skin, and is considered by some experts to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include fever, rapid heartbeat, and a positive Nikolsky’s sign, which means that the epidermis separates easily with slight lateral pressure.
The most effective way to manage TEN is to stop the use of the drug that caused the reaction. Supportive care is also necessary, and patients are often treated in an intensive care unit to monitor for potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid loss. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment for TEN, and has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents like ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a rash covering her face, trunk, arms and legs. She had a fever for a couple of days with a runny nose before the rash appears but is now well and afebrile. The rash is mainly vesicular with small fluid-filled blisters and there are a few scabbed lesions. Her father is concerned as she is scratching the lesions, especially at night. She is otherwise fit and well and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorphenamine
Explanation:Treatment Options for chickenpox in Children
chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a characteristic vesicular rash. While there is no specific treatment for chickenpox, symptomatic relief can be provided to alleviate itching and fever. Here are some treatment options for chickenpox in children:
1. Chlorphenamine: This sedating antihistamine can be used at night-time to help with itching.
2. Aciclovir: This antiviral medication is recommended for patients who are immunosuppressed or have risk factors for developing complications from infection, such as adults or newborns.
3. Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is used to treat secondary bacterial infections that can occur with chickenpox. However, it is not necessary for a child who is well and afebrile.
4. Ibuprofen: While ibuprofen and paracetamol are both used as antipyretics in children with febrile illnesses, the use of ibuprofen in children with chickenpox is linked to an increased risk of severe skin infection. Paracetamol is recommended instead.
5. Malathion: This treatment is for scabies, not chickenpox. Scabies presents with a different type of rash and does not have a prodromal illness.
In summary, treatment for chickenpox in children is mainly symptomatic. Antihistamines and calamine lotion can help with itching, while paracetamol can be used for fever. Antibiotics and antivirals are only necessary in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor as he noticed a new spot on his arm while showering. Upon examination, there is a lesion that appears to be dark brown and has a raised appearance.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Seborrhoeic Keratoses: A Common Benign Skin Condition in the Elderly
Seborrhoeic keratoses, also known as senile warts, are a benign overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes that commonly present in individuals over the age of 60. These warty nodules are usually found on the trunk and can be light tan to black in color. While they can be unsightly, seborrhoeic keratoses are not harmful and do not require treatment. However, there is a small risk of infection if the lesion is picked at. If a growth becomes excessively itchy or irritated, it can be removed through various methods such as cryotherapy, curettage, shave biopsy, or excision biopsy. It is important to understand this common skin condition to avoid unnecessary worry or concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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