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  • Question 1 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that this condition is benign and to seek review if any new symptoms appear

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
      For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?

      Your Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations

      In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.

      While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.

      If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.

      Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.

      Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.

      Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with recurrent gout. He has experienced three episodes in the past year and requires prophylactic therapy with allopurinol. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin. What is the recommended approach for initiating allopurinol in this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence allopurinol on its own

      Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol and provide colchicine to take simultaneously while starting

      Explanation:

      When starting allopurinol for this patient, it is important to use either NSAID or colchicine cover. This is because allopurinol can cause acute flares of gout due to changes in uric acid levels in the serum and tissues. Therefore, commencing allopurinol without any cover is not recommended. However, since the patient has chronic kidney disease, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories should be avoided. Indomethacin may be an alternative cover option for some patients. Prednisolone is effective but has many adverse effects and should only be used for a few days. It is important to note that this patient doesn’t have any contraindications to allopurinol, such as a history of hypersensitivity syndrome, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, having the HLA-B*5801 allele, or severe renal failure.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?

      Your Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.

      Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.

      The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?

      Your Answer: May preceed CVD symptoms by more than three years

      Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.

      You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side

      Explanation:

      It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man with hypertension presents with frank haematuria. He gives a history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with hypertension presents with frank haematuria. He gives a history that his uncle recently underwent a renal transplant and that his father died of renal failure. On physical examination, a large mass is felt over the right lumbar area. A smaller mass is felt in the left flank. Blood urea and serum creatinine levels are raised.
      Select the single most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations

      Adult polycystic kidney disease, a bilateral and gradual decline in renal function, presents with acute loin pain and/or haematuria. Hypertension is an early and common feature. Renal cell carcinoma presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a unilateral mass in the flank, with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss as possible symptoms. Ureteric calculus causes extremely severe pain and is usually associated with haematuria. Prostatic carcinoma appears in older men and presents with lower urinary tract obstruction or metastatic spread, particularly to the bone. Renal amyloidosis presents with asymptomatic proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, or renal failure, but not frank haematuria.

      Understanding Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes his scrotum looks abnormal and is worried that he has an undescended testicle.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate method of diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scanning

      Correct Answer: Physical examination

      Explanation:

      An undescended testis occurs when a testis is not present in the scrotum. This can be due to various reasons such as testicular maldescent, retractile testes, ascending testis syndrome, or testicular agenesis. To diagnose this condition, physical examination is recommended, and the testes can be categorized as palpable or non-palpable. Magnetic resonance imaging is not necessary as physical examination is cheaper, faster, and more accessible. Parental history may raise concern, but physical examination is still necessary for confirmation. Diagnostic laparoscopy can be used to investigate the underlying cause of undescended testes, but it is not used for diagnosis. Ultrasound scanning is not recommended for routine evaluation as it is not accurate enough to reliably detect or confirm the absence of an impalpable testis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (such as sildenafil) after discussing his condition. What would be a contraindication to prescribing this medication?

      Your Answer: Recent chest pain awaiting cardiology opinion

      Explanation:

      The use of PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, is contraindicated in individuals who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. However, in the case of someone experiencing chest pain and awaiting cardiology opinion, caution should also be exercised before prescribing these medications due to the potential cardiac nature of the symptoms. Additionally, patients with known angina who use a GTN spray should wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil, or 48 hours after taking tadalafil, to avoid the risk of excessive hypotension leading to a myocardial infarction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.

      The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.

      Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.

      It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.

      Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin empirically

      Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture

      Explanation:

      Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.

      To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.

      Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.

      In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Urinary Retention: Understanding the Common Triggers

      Urinary retention is a condition that affects many people, and it can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause of urinary retention is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which accounts for over half of all cases. Prostate cancer is another potential cause, although it is less common, accounting for only 13% of cases.

      In addition to these conditions, drugs can also cause urinary retention in some cases. Anticholinergics, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, nasal decongestants, opioids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and alcohol are all potential culprits. Spinal cord compression, such as intervertebral disc lesions and spinal tumors, can also lead to urinary retention, although this is a less common cause.

      Finally, acute urinary retention is often seen after surgery. This can be due to pain from traumatic instrumentation, bladder overdistension, or drugs. Understanding the various causes of urinary retention can help individuals and healthcare providers identify potential triggers and develop effective treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

    Whilst examining himself he noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

      Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.

      On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peyronie's disease

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation

      This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.

      Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Send for MC&S and only treat if growth confirmed

      Correct Answer: No action necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children

      According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.

      If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
      What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management

      Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.

      Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?

      Your Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:

      – The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
      – Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
      – The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
      – Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
      – Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
      – The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.

      Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic for a review. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:

      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 116 µmol/l
      eGFR 47 ml/min

      She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and act as a renoprotective agent. The medication was titrated up to treatment dose. Her current blood results are:

      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 123 µmol/l
      eGFR 44 ml/min

      What is the most appropriate course of action among the following options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.

      As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.

      The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.

      You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.

      The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.

      What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Managing Microscopic Haematuria

      Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

      It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.

      If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.

      In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.

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  • Question 21 - You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing....

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.

      He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations

      PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.

      When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.

      Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.

      When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.

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  • Question 22 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 23 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation

      Explanation:

      To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 24 - A 51-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria. She has a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for headache.
      On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Dipstick urinalysis reveals haematuria. She commences a three-day course of trimethoprim. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine of 220 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l). A urine culture result shows no growth.
      What diagnosis is most likely to explain her reduced renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesic nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Renal Dysfunction in a Patient with Chronic Headache

      One possible cause of renal dysfunction in a patient with chronic headache is analgesic nephropathy. This condition is characterized by polyuria, haematuria, deteriorating renal function, hypertension, and anaemia, which can result from long-term use of over-the-counter analgesics. Another possible cause is acute glomerulonephritis, which can present with asymptomatic proteinuria, haematuria, or nephrotic or nephritic syndrome. However, the patient’s history is more suggestive of analgesic nephropathy. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is unlikely, as the patient has no symptoms of sepsis and the urine culture is negative. Hypertensive renal disease usually presents with asymptomatic microalbuminuria and deteriorating renal function in patients with a long history of hypertension, which doesn’t fit with the clinic history given above. Reflux nephropathy, which commonly occurs in children due to a posterior urethral valve or in adults due to bladder outlet obstruction, is not suggested by the above history.

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  • Question 25 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

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  • Question 26 - Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse...

    Incorrect

    • Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse for her annual diabetes review. The nurse informs her that her HbA1c has increased since her last visit. Karen's results are as follows:

      HbA1c 7.9% (63 mmol/mol)

      Karen assures the nurse that she has been taking all her medications as prescribed, which include metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 160 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg once daily.

      The nurse suggests that gliclazide may not be effective in controlling her hyperglycaemia at this point and recommends that Karen switch to empagliflozin. Karen agrees but asks about the common side effects of the new medication.

      What are the potential side effects of empagliflozin that should be discussed with Karen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections, which is a common side effect that should be discussed with patients, especially females. While hypoglycemia is possible with SGLT2 inhibitors, it is typically only a concern when taken in combination with insulin or sulfonylurea, and may not require stopping other medications. Clinical studies have not shown any increase in renal calculi, and some studies suggest that SGLT2 inhibitors may even be renoprotective. Additionally, SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause weight gain and may even lead to weight loss. However, it is important to note that these medications can rarely cause serious conditions such as Fournier’s gangrene and atypical ketoacidosis, and patients should be warned about the symptoms of these conditions and advised to seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments

      Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.

      To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.

      In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.

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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling

      Explanation:

      Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.

      The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.

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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
      Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago

      Explanation:

      PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.

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