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  • Question 1 - You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and...

    Correct

    • You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and your next patient is a 37-year-old male. He expresses his concern about having Lyme disease after reading an online article. He reports experiencing intermittent malaise, joint aches, muscle aches, and headaches for the past two years. He also mentions having swollen cervical lymph glands and feeling hot and sweaty at night. As an avid hiker and mountain-biker, he believes he may have been bitten by ticks in the past. However, he denies ever having a rash like erythema migrans. What would be your initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Perform ELISA

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of Lyme disease in a patient without a history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the recommended initial investigation according to NICE Guidance. If the ELISA result is positive, immunoblot should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. However, if there is a high suspicion of Lyme disease despite the absence of erythema migrans, treatment should be initiated while waiting for the ELISA result. In patients with erythema migrans, treatment should be started immediately. The patient’s symptoms may not be specific to Lyme disease, but ELISA is still the first-line investigation.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is...

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    • A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is often followed by a vomit and a whooping sound sometimes accompanies the first inspiration following the coughing spasm. She doesn't seem ill and the lungs sound clear on auscultation. She has had courses of amoxicillin and erythromycin. Most of her immunisations in infancy were missed.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action for this patient.

      Your Answer: Refer for a paediatric opinion

      Correct Answer: Advise the parents that the cough may last 100 days and nothing will influence it

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms, Treatment, and Risks for Infants

      Whooping cough, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease that can cause persistent coughing for up to 2-3 months. Commonly known as the 100 days’ cough, this disease is particularly severe in infants, with about 50% of cases requiring hospitalization.

      While antibiotics do not alter the course of the disease, erythromycin, clarithromycin, or azithromycin can help reduce the period of infectivity when given for 7-14 days. Codeine linctus is often prescribed, but there is no evidence for its effectiveness.

      It is important to note that the severity of whooping cough is related to the age of the patient, with morbidity and mortality being greatest in infants under 6 months of age. Therefore, it is crucial to take preventative measures, such as vaccination, and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She...

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    • A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She has been feeling unwell since her return, experiencing shortness of breath and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears pale and a blood test reveals iron-deficiency anemia. A stool sample is positive for hookworm and she begins treatment. Her mother is worried that the rest of the family may have contracted the infection.

      Select the only accurate statement regarding the transmission of hookworm.

      Your Answer: Hookworm infections are prevented by adequate cooking food

      Correct Answer: Walking barefoot is a risk factor for the disease

      Explanation:

      Hookworm Infestation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hookworm infestation is a parasitic infection caused by a nematode worm that lives in the small intestine of its host. It is acquired through eating contaminated food or walking barefoot on contaminated ground. The worms migrate through the body to the lungs, where they are coughed up and swallowed, completing their life cycle in the digestive tract and excreted in faeces.

      Most hookworm infections are asymptomatic, but the most significant risk is anaemia due to loss of iron and protein in the gut. The worms suck blood and damage the mucosa, but the blood loss is occult. Larval invasion of the skin can cause intense, local itching, usually on the foot or lower leg, followed by lesions that look like insect bites. They can also cause the serpiginous lesions of cutaneous larva migrans.

      Diagnosis is made by finding characteristic worm eggs on microscopic examination of the stools, and there may also be eosinophilia. Albendazole is the most effective medication for treatment. Relying on adequately cooked food will prevent faeco-oral but not percutaneous transmission.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 10 days. He had recently returned from a two-month trip to northern India. On examination, he has no fever and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Salmonella

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is suggested by the prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea and the incubation period.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A...

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    • A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A mother attends with her 4-year-old son and is anxious because she is going away for a week’s holiday on the next day. She wonders how soon her son will develop symptoms.
      Select from the list the option within which the incubation period for Chickenpox lies.

      Your Answer: Short (0-6 days)

      Correct Answer: Medium (7-21 days)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incubation Periods and Latent Periods in Diseases

      Incubation period refers to the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism and the onset of symptoms. This period can range from minutes to even 30 years, depending on the disease. Latent period, on the other hand, is the time from infection to infectiousness. While the two terms may be synonymous, a distinction is sometimes made between them.

      Examples of diseases with short incubation periods include norovirus, influenza, and scarlet fever. Diseases with medium incubation periods include roseola, measles, and pertussis. Mumps, erythema infectiosum, and rubella have long incubation periods, while infectious mononucleosis and hepatitis A have extra-long incubation periods. Hepatitis B has an incubation period greater than six weeks.

      Clinical latency occurs in diseases like AIDS, where people infected with HIV may not show any symptoms or signs of AIDS despite having a large viral load. It is important to understand incubation and latent periods in diseases to prevent their spread and manage their symptoms effectively.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his leg. He was feeling ill and needed intravenous antibiotics. He is now finishing his course of oral antibiotics. He has no reported allergies to medications.

      What medication is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      For individuals with cellulitis or erysipelas, an antibiotic is necessary. These conditions are characterized by acute inflammation and swelling, with erysipelas having more superficial lesions with a distinct raised margin.

      When selecting an antibiotic, consider the severity of symptoms, the location of the infection, the risk of complications, and previous antibiotic use. If the individual was admitted to the hospital due to systemic illness, oral flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment for erysipelas. However, co-amoxiclav should be used for cellulitis near the eyes or nose.

      Ciprofloxacin should only be used for specific indications due to its association with Clostridium difficile infection. Doxycycline is not the first choice, and if there is a penicillin allergy, clarithromycin or erythromycin should be used instead of flucloxacillin for erysipelas or cellulitis.

      Erythromycin is not the first-line choice, but it may be appropriate if there is a history of penicillin allergy.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash...

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    • A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate drug option now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options

      Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:

      Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.

      Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.

      Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.

      Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
      Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure

      Explanation:

      HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK

      The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
      Which vaccination should she receive annually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination

      influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.

      Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.

      While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.

      In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intradermally

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.

      The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.

      There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maculopapular rash

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.

      The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.

      When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.

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  • Question 14 - Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the child to take an airline flight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old flying back to the UK who broke his leg whilst skiing in Canada. Had a plaster cast applied 24 hours ago

      Explanation:

      Patients should wait for 24 hours before taking short flights (< 2 hours) and 48 hours before taking longer flights after applying a plaster cast. This is necessary to avoid the possibility of air getting trapped beneath the cast. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
      What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

      Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.

      Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine blood tests, abnormal liver function is detected, prompting a hepatitis screening. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for Anti-HBs
      - Negative for Anti-HBc
      - Positive for Anti-HCV

      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient has cleared the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients are able to clear the infection on their own. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and typically indicates acute disease lasting 1-6 months. If HBsAg is present for more than 6 months, it suggests chronic disease and infectivity. The presence of anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination, and is not present in chronic disease. Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasting for approximately 6 months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and appears as a result of the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.

      Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.

      Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.

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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week, after recovering from a mild respiratory illness. The coughing fits have been so intense that they have caused vomiting and symptoms of a possible rib fracture. The teacher is concerned that he may have contracted pertussis from his students, but he remembers being vaccinated against it as a child. Can you explain the level of protection provided by childhood immunizations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunity following immunisation usually wanes within 3 years

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunity and Vaccination

      Pertussis immunity tends to decrease over time, and even if a person was vaccinated as a child, they can still contract the disease as an adult. The duration of immunity following acellular pertussis vaccination is not entirely clear, but it is suggested to last for five to six years. However, a booster given in the second year of life can prolong immunity to six to nine years. For this reason, a booster dose was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule in 2001. Children born before November 1996 would not have received the booster dose, and their immunity is likely to have waned.

      When pertussis vaccination was first introduced in the 1950s, a whole-cell pertussis vaccine was used. In 2001, the booster introduced was an acellular vaccine, and in 2004, the primary course whole-cell vaccine was replaced by the five component diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis/inactivated polio/Haemophilus influenza type b (DTaP/IPV/Hib) vaccine. Adults who received the unboosted whole-cell pertussis primary course and nothing since are highly likely to have waning immunity.

      Despite the waning of immunity, it is still important to immunise children. This is because immunisation can help protect them during the time of greatest vulnerability to the effects of pertussis infection.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient known to be HIV positive.
      Select the single most appropriate immediate management after hand-washing for 10 minutes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of HIV and Hepatitis B Transmission in Healthcare Workers

      Healthcare workers are at risk of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B through needlestick injuries or other percutaneous and mucous membrane exposures. The average risk of HIV infection after such exposure is 0.3%, while the risk of hepatitis B transmission is higher. The risk is greatest for deep injuries, visible blood on the device, direct cannulation of blood vessels, or advanced HIV disease in the source patient.

      To reduce the risk of HIV transmission, healthcare workers should receive post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible after exposure. A small study showed an 80% reduction in seroconversion with zidovudine, and current recommendations include two nucleoside inhibitors and a protease inhibitor for 1 month. Nevirapine is not recommended due to adverse reactions.

      In addition to PEP, healthcare workers should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 72 hours if the source is HBeAg positive or unknown, and they have negative serology. All healthcare workers should also be offered hepatitis B immunisation if they have not been immunised or are non-immune, following baseline serology testing.

      A careful risk assessment and information provision are crucial in the management of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B in healthcare workers.

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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention

      Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.

      The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.

      Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.

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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
      Select the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection

      Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.

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  • Question 24 - A local daycare center has reported a recent outbreak of norovirus. The director...

    Incorrect

    • A local daycare center has reported a recent outbreak of norovirus. The director of the center has reached out to your pediatric clinic for information on the illness and guidance on minimizing the risk of transmission.

      What is the best recommendation for preventing the spread of this virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Handwashing with soaps and warm water before and after contact with those infected with norovirus

      Explanation:

      Handwashing with soap and warm water before and after contact with those infected with norovirus is the most effective way to prevent its spread, while alcohol gels are less effective. Antivirals have no role in treating norovirus, which is not a blood-borne virus and is commonly spread through contaminated food or drinks, touching contaminated surfaces or objects, or direct contact with an infected person. Staff who have had norovirus must stay away from work for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have stopped.

      Norovirus, also known as the winter vomiting bug, is a common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It is a type of RNA virus that can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as headaches, low-grade fevers, and myalgia. The virus is highly contagious and can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route, as well as through aerosolized particles from vomit or contaminated bodily fluids. Good hand hygiene and isolation of infected individuals are important in limiting transmission. Diagnosis is typically made through clinical history and stool culture viral PCR. While the infection is self-limiting in most cases, dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can occur and require supportive management. Other differential diagnoses include rotavirus, E. coli, and Salmonella infections, each with their own distinguishing features.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began on the third night of a long weekend trip to Madrid. She has been opening her bowels more than eight times per day over the past 24 hours. There had been associated nausea which was stopping her from maintaining an adequate fluid intake, but she is now tolerating fluids by mouth.

      On examination her BP is 130/78 lying, and 126/76 standing with a corresponding increase in her pulse rate. Her mouth looks dry and she has poor skin turgor. Her abdomen is soft and minimally tender and there are very active bowel sounds.

      Which one of the following represents the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Travellers’ Diarrhoea

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is commonly caused by E. coli and typically lasts for 72 hours. In healthy individuals, oral rehydration salts and paracetamol can effectively manage the symptoms. However, if the patient is unable to tolerate oral fluids and is significantly dehydrated, hospital admission may be necessary.

      In severe cases of campylobacter or salmonella, where the patient is already weakened by chronic illness, ciprofloxacin may be prescribed. Meanwhile, metronidazole may be used as an option for giardiasis.

      It is important to note that travellers’ diarrhoea can be prevented by practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently and avoiding contaminated food and water sources.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.

      Which vaccines should this man avoid due to his medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)

      Explanation:

      BCG and other live attenuated vaccines should not be administered to HIV positive patients. Similarly, immunocompromised individuals should avoid receiving live attenuated vaccines such as Yellow fever, Oral polio, Intranasal influenza, Varicella, and Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 27 - As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a previous admission complicated by C. difficile infection, which of the following commonly prescribed medications should be potentially discontinued due to its association with an increased risk of C. difficile infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have been identified as a risk factor for C. difficile infection (CDI), with evidence suggesting that they increase the likelihood of infection more than H2 antagonists. As a result, patients with CDI or those at high risk of infection, such as those who have previously experienced CDI, should have their use of PPIs reviewed. Other factors that increase the risk of CDI include advancing age, the use of antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum antibiotics and multiple courses), inflammatory bowel disease, extended hospital stays, immunosuppression, and gastrointestinal surgery.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 28 - A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of a 7-month-old baby with cerebral palsy visits the GP clinic to inquire about influenza immunizations. What is the most suitable vaccination for her child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual intramuscular influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      The annual intramuscular flu vaccination is offered to children between 6 months to 2 years who are at high risk of flu. This includes babies with cerebral palsy, who are classified as high-risk patients and are eligible for the inactivated intramuscular influenza vaccination from the age of 6 months. It is important to note that the routine immunisation schedule offers a live intranasal influenza vaccine to children from the age of 2 years.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across Peru. He complains of sudden onset fever, headache, joint pains, and rash all over his body. He has no pre-existing medical conditions and is not taking any medication.

      During examination, he has a petechial rash on his limbs. There are no signs of meningism or focal neurology.

      Hemoglobin: 100 g/l
      Platelets: 80 * 109/l
      White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
      Eosinophils: 0.4 * 109/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveler experiencing retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. This disease is commonly found in South America and Southeast Asia and is characterized by sudden onset fever and joint pain, as well as low platelet counts and bleeding in severe cases. Chagas disease, which is also found in this region, typically presents with mild symptoms and elevated eosinophil levels. Viral hepatitis and malaria are less probable causes of a petechial rash.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
      Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Common Modes of Disease Transmission

      Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.

      Modes of Disease Transmission

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  • Question 31 - What is considered good practice for managing and storing vaccines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered good practice for managing and storing vaccines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Named, trained, people are responsible for ordering, receipt and care of vaccines

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Vaccine Management in Healthcare Facilities

      In healthcare facilities, it is crucial to have named, trained individuals responsible for the ordering, receipt, and care of vaccines. While one person from the nursing team and one from management are typically designated, all team members should understand the importance of proper vaccine management.

      Orders for vaccines should be placed every 2-4 weeks based on need, rather than every 4-8 weeks. Vaccines must be stored in a vaccine fridge that is used solely for pharmaceutical products and kept between 2°C and 8°C. The fridge temperature should be monitored daily, recording the minimum, maximum, and actual temperatures when the practice is open.

      Proper rotation of vaccines is essential, with the shortest expiry date used first. The term cold chain refers to the cold temperature conditions in which vaccine products must be kept during storage and distribution. Cool boxes from a recognized medical supplier should be used to transport vaccines. If the cold chain is compromised, vaccines should not be used or discarded until further advice is sought.

      By following these best practices for vaccine management, healthcare facilities can ensure the safety and efficacy of vaccines for their patients.

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  • Question 32 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

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  • Question 33 - Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40-year-old asthmatic using salbutamol and beclomethasone

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book guidelines, only asthmatic patients who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system require the pneumococcal vaccine. However, since the angina patient is on beta-blockers, they should be given the vaccination. For more information, please refer to the provided link.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 34 - A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy

      Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.

      The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.

      Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.

      Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.

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  • Question 35 - A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has inquired with the nurse at the clinic about getting vaccinated before his upcoming trip overseas. He has a medical history of asthma and has been on a 20 mg daily dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months, which was recently upped to 40 mg during a flare-up. Identify the one vaccine that would not be recommended for this individual.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Yellow Fever Vaccination and Other Vaccines

      Yellow fever vaccination is a type of live vaccine that is made from the 17-d strain of the virus grown in hen’s eggs. However, it is not recommended for individuals with a history of impaired immune responsiveness or anaphylactic reaction to egg. Moreover, those who are currently undergoing corticosteroid therapy should not receive live vaccination. On the other hand, the other vaccines are not live vaccines. Hepatitis B and meningococcal vaccinations are surface antigen based, while the other two are toxoids and do not contain any active components. Understanding the differences between these vaccines is important in ensuring proper vaccination and protection against diseases.

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  • Question 36 - A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for the past week. What symptom would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of leptospirosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Productive cough

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis can lead to pulmonary complications, particularly in cases of severe and advanced disease. These complications may include acute respiratory distress syndrome or pulmonary haemorrhage. The RCGP Curriculum for 2019 includes zoonotic diseases such as brucellosis and leptospirosis in its Knowledge and Skills guide.

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.

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  • Question 37 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

    Incorrect

    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 38 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 9-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stained specimen microscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is the most probable diagnosis in this case. To confirm the diagnosis, rapid testing can be done by examining Gram-stained anal specimens for Gram-negative diplococci. Culture testing is also necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate antimicrobial treatment. It is important to send the specimens to the laboratory as soon as possible. If there is a significant delay in getting the swabs to the laboratory, it may be advisable to refer the patient to a genito-urinary medicine clinic.

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  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
      Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy

      Explanation:

      To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.

      Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.

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  • Question 40 - Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women...

    Incorrect

    • Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Listeriosis

      Explanation:

      Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies

      Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her right arm following a hike in the woods. She reports feeling fine and there is no apparent rash upon inspection.

      What is the optimal method for removing the tick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fine-tipped tweezers

      Explanation:

      To effectively remove a tick, it is best to use fine-tipped tweezers. The tick should be grasped as close to the skin as possible and pulled upwards with firm pressure. It is important to avoid using blunt-nose tweezers, petroleum jelly, or heat from a hot match as these methods can increase the risk of infection or cause the tick to regurgitate into the bite. After removal, the area should be thoroughly cleaned.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 42 - A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.

      She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.

      The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.

      Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 43 - A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like tiny pieces of cotton moving on his stool and around his anus.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Threadworm: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Threadworm, also known as pinworm or enterobiasis, is a common nematode infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis. This infection is exclusive to humans and doesn’t affect family pets. Female worms lay eggs outside the anus, causing irritation and discomfort. The eggs can easily spread through contaminated hands, food, clothing, and bedding, leading to re-infection.

      Diagnosing threadworm involves examining adhesive tape applied to the anal area under a microscope, as stool examination is only positive in 5% of cases. Asymptomatic infection is common, so it is recommended that the entire family be treated together. Mebendazole is the preferred drug for treating threadworm in adults and children over 2 years old. It is given as a single oral dose and repeated after 2-3 weeks in case of re-infection. Piperazine, licensed for use in children as young as 3 months, paralyzes the worms but doesn’t kill them. It is often combined with senna as a powder (Pripsen) to expel the worms and is given as a single dose, repeated after 14 days.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of threadworm is crucial in preventing the spread of this common infection.

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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use was found to have abnormal liver function tests. His hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test is reported as positive.
      What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has either acute hepatitis B infection or one of the chronic forms of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The hepatitis B virus is surrounded by a coating called the surface antigen (HBsAg). If this antigen is present, it indicates a hepatitis B infection, which can be either acute or chronic. The infected person can also infect others. It usually takes 4-12 weeks for HBsAg to appear after infection. When the surface antigens disappear and surface antibodies (anti-HBs) appear, the infection is considered cleared, which typically happens within 4 months of symptoms appearing. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either an infection or immunization. Chronic hepatitis B is diagnosed when HBsAg is present for more than 6 months. Patients with chronic active hepatitis B have persistent liver inflammation and are at risk of cirrhosis and hepatocellular cancer. Patients with the inactive form usually remain asymptomatic and have less risk of complications but remain infectious. Understanding the role of surface antigen and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

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  • Question 45 - A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache, myalgia, and a worsening cough for the past 5 days. He has a non-productive cough. During the examination, you observe a rash consisting of target lesions all over his trunk. On auscultation, bronchial breathing is heard at his right base. He has recently started working as a primary school teacher. Which organism is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is commonly linked to erythema multiforme, which is evident in this patient who experienced flu-like symptoms before developing pneumonia and a rash. The presence of a prodrome and erythema multiforme are typical features of Mycoplasma pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is another possible cause of pneumonia with a viral prodrome, but the distinguishing factor in this case is the presence of erythema multiforme.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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  • Question 46 - A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have...

    Incorrect

    • A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have hepatitis B. The nurse has a documented full history of hepatitis B vaccination and was known to be a responder. What is the most suitable course of action to minimize the risk of acquiring hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give hepatitis B vaccine booster

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving the ear is painful. The external auditory canal is swollen and tender.
      Select the single most likely infecting organism.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Otitis Externa: Causes and Complications

      Acute otitis externa is a condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal. While infection is the most likely cause, skin diseases and irritants may also contribute to the condition. In the acute phase, there may be little discharge. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause, followed by other Gram-positive and Gram-negative species. Fungal pathogens like Candida albicans and Aspergillus species may also be responsible, especially after prolonged treatment with antibiotics. Malignant otitis externa, a rare but life-threatening complication, occurs when the infection spreads to the mastoid and temporal bones. It is usually caused by P. aeruginosa or S. aureus and affects elderly people with diabetes or those who are immunocompromised. Symptoms include intense pain and headache.

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  • Question 48 - What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination

      Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.

      Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.

      In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.

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  • Question 49 - For a patient undergoing an elective splenectomy, at what age is it best...

    Incorrect

    • For a patient undergoing an elective splenectomy, at what age is it best to administer the pneumococcal vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two weeks before surgery

      Explanation:

      According to the current British National Formulary, it is recommended to administer the vaccine at least 14 days prior to a planned splenectomy.

      Splenectomy and its Management

      Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenza, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.

      Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.

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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at a relatively late stage when he is already starting to get opportunistic infections. Select from the list the single correct statement about the complications of HIV/AIDS.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Complications of HIV/AIDS and the Role of Antiretroviral Therapy

      HIV/AIDS is a disease that suppresses T-cell mediated immunity, leading to various complications. However, antiretroviral therapy (ART) has been effective in inhibiting the replication of the virus, restoring the immune system, and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections. Combinations of three or more drugs are used to prevent resistance.

      One of the hallmark complications of late-stage HIV disease is pneumocystis pneumonia, which is now less common due to ART and primary prophylaxis. Symptoms include shortness of breath, dry cough, fever, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. Diagnosis can be difficult, with few signs in the chest and unhelpful radiology.

      Mycobacterium avium infection is another complication that often occurs at a CD4 count < 200/mm3, and is seen in 40% of patients with late-stage HIV in industrialized countries. Symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anemia, or hepatic dysfunction. Dementia is usually caused by HIV encephalopathy, but can also be caused by cytomegalovirus encephalitis or cerebral toxoplasmosis. The incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has been reduced by ART, but the incidence of other cancers in HIV patients has not changed.

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  • Question 51 - You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have an urgent appointment with an eight-year-old boy and his mother. The child has a history of mild asthma and flexural eczema and his mother is concerned because they went out walking yesterday and this morning she found a tick attached to his upper arm. The child appears well and all observations are normal. The tick has been removed, leaving a puncture mark. The mother is worried about Lyme disease and asks for a prescription. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics necessary - watchful waiting

      Explanation:

      According to the 2018 NICE Guidance, it is not necessary to administer prophylactic antibiotics to individuals who have been bitten by a tick and show no symptoms of Lyme disease. Treatment should only be given if the patient develops erythema migrans or other symptoms associated with the disease. It is important to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them on what symptoms to watch out for.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 52 - A patient who is an intravenous drug user has contracted hepatitis C. What...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is an intravenous drug user has contracted hepatitis C. What percentage of such patients in their age group will develop chronic hepatitis C infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 55-85%

      Explanation:

      Develop a persistent infection.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 53 - Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza virus

      Explanation:

      The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population

      influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.

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  • Question 54 - A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to discuss the result of his recent CD4 count.
      Which statement concerning the T lymphocyte CD4 count is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a relationship with the risk of developing opportunistic infections

      Explanation:

      The Importance of CD4 Count in HIV Diagnosis and Treatment

      CD4 count plays a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of HIV. HIV binds to CD4 receptors on various cells, leading to immune dysfunction and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. A high CD4 count during the acute phase of HIV infection is common, but a count of ≤ 200 cells/mm3 is diagnosed as AIDS. CD4 tests are also used to determine the efficacy of treatment and when to initiate antiretroviral therapy. While not a direct HIV test, CD4 counts provide valuable information about a patient’s immune system.

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  • Question 55 - A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a hepatitis C test. What should be done in response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an anti-HCV antibody test

      Explanation:

      HCV RNA tests are typically not requested unless the antibody test comes back positive.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 56 - A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks about getting the flu shot. Can you confirm if he is eligible for it on the NHS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 35-year-old woman on metformin for type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Familiarizing oneself with vaccine eligibility is crucial.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 57 - A 31-year-old woman who confesses to occasional drug use in the past 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who confesses to occasional drug use in the past 5 months visits her primary care physician complaining of jaundice. Her screening blood tests show a hepatocellular pattern with a significant increase in transaminases. The following are her antibody results:
      HBsAg +
      HBeAg -
      Anti-HBcAb +
      Anti-HBeAb +
      HCV RNA +
      What is the most probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hepatitis B Infection

      Explanation: The patient’s symptoms suggest that she is in the final stages of acute hepatitis B infection, with jaundice still present. Although hepatitis C infection was detected, it is usually asymptomatic until later stages of the disease. The absence of HBeAg indicates that the infection is a few months old. The presence of both anti-HBc and anti-HBe antibodies supports the diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBs antibodies, which appear around 3 months after acute infection and persist, are the last antibodies to appear.

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  • Question 58 - A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.

      What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 59 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 60 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

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  • Question 61 - A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
      Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures

      Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.

      Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.

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  • Question 62 - A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orf

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease

      Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.

      Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

      In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 63 - A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.

      In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.

      Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.

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  • Question 64 - Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus

      Explanation:

      There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.

      Understanding Zika Virus

      Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.

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  • Question 65 - A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At the end of his trip he spent 2 weeks on holiday on the shores of Lake Malawi. He tells you that he was quite well while on holiday, apart from severe pruritus, which he assumed was due to insect bites, but over the last 2 weeks he has had macroscopic haematuria. He has no other symptoms of note. His blood pressure is 120/80. He attended the nurse minor injuries unit over the previous weekend and was given trimethoprim with no obvious benefit.
      Select the single most appropriate initial management of this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request urine microscopy to exclude schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis: A Parasitic Disease Endemic in Africa and Asia

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic disease that is endemic in many parts of Africa and Asia. It is caused by trematodes that spend part of their life cycle in aquatic snails. The primary mode of infection in humans is through swimming or wading in water. The disease can cause haematuria or bloody diarrhoea, and in some cases, a systemic reaction known as Katayama fever.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can be difficult to diagnose as it may present months to years after exposure. It should be suspected in anyone with unexplained haematuria or bloody diarrhoea who has been exposed to water in endemic areas. If suspected, microscopy for eggs should be requested on urine or stool.

      Untreated schistosomiasis can lead to bladder cancer, strictures, chronic liver disease, portal hypertension, and pulmonary hypertension. Treatment is with praziquantel. Schistosomiasis is the third most prevalent parasitic disease in the world and has a significant impact on human health, second only to malaria among tropical diseases.

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  • Question 66 - A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.

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  • Question 67 - A 28-year-old man, born and raised in the UK, has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man, born and raised in the UK, has been diagnosed with HIV. He has no prior medical history and is currently in good health. When is the appropriate time to initiate antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the time of diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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  • Question 68 - A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with a needle-stick injury that occurred on Saturday evening. She has just been informed that the patient who caused the injury has tested positive for HIV and is seeking guidance.

      What advice would you offer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately start post-exposure prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Fortunately, Helena falls within the 72-hour window period for commencing post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV, and as such, she should start PEP without delay.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.30%

      Explanation:

      Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 70 - What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children on long-term steroids should be treated with aciclovir at the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Varicella Infections in Different Populations

      Varicella, commonly known as Chickenpox, is a viral infection that primarily affects children. In healthy children, treatment is not necessary unless they are systemically unwell, which may indicate a bacterial infection. However, immunocompromised individuals should be treated at the first signs of disease.

      For healthy individuals at increased risk of severe varicella infections, such as those older than 14 years, oral acyclovir may be considered. This medication, taken at a dose of 800 mg five times a day for seven days, can reduce the duration of lesions and other symptoms.

      Pregnant women who are not immune to varicella are at risk of passing the infection to their children. The infectivity period lasts from a few days before the onset of lesions until the lesions crust over. School exclusion is typically required for five days.

      Overall, understanding the appropriate treatment and prevention measures for varicella infections in different populations is crucial for managing this common childhood illness.

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  • Question 71 - The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow....

    Incorrect

    • The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow. She seeks guidance on the appropriate temperature range (in Celsius) for storing vaccines in the fridge. What is the standard temperature range that vaccines should be stored at, unless otherwise stated by the manufacturer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: +2C to +8C

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 72 - A father comes to see you for some advice regarding immunisation of his...

    Incorrect

    • A father comes to see you for some advice regarding immunisation of his toddler son who is HIV positive. He is not sure if his son is able to have the usual routine childhood immunisations.

      You review his clinical record and discuss things further. The child is well at present with no clinical or biochemical evidence of immunosuppression.

      What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should only receive 'inactivated' vaccines and 'live' vaccines are absolutely contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Immunisation for HIV-positive patients

      Immunisation is a crucial aspect of managing HIV-positive patients. Inactivated vaccines are safe to administer as they pose no risk of infection. However, the response to the vaccine may not be as effective as in immunocompetent individuals. Live vaccines carry a risk of infection, and therefore, certain restrictions apply. For instance, the MMR vaccine is a live vaccine that requires an assessment of immune status before administration. The Department of Health recommends that HIV-positive individuals receive the MMR vaccine according to national guidelines, provided they do not have severe immunosuppression. However, for children under 12, CD4 counts may not be an accurate assessment of immune status, and expert assessment is advised. In conclusion, routine immunisations can be safely given to HIV-positive individuals without evidence of immunosuppression, but specialist advice should be sought to clarify this.

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  • Question 73 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly fatigued for the past 3 months. She has a history of intravenous drug use and routine testing reveals abnormal liver enzyme tests, including a significant increase in alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Although she is not jaundiced, the GP suspects that she may be suffering from acute hepatitis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive in this patient if this suspicion is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C antibody

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hepatitis C: Understanding the Clinical Features and Testing Methods

      Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that often goes undetected due to the lack of specific symptoms. Fatigue, a common symptom, is not enough to suspect hepatitis C unless other risk factors are present. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate HCV, but a positive serology test is needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test is usually positive three months after exposure, but may take up to nine months. HCV RNA testing is used to confirm ongoing infection, and negative results should be repeated after six months. Chronic infection is common in HCV, affecting about 80% of those infected.

      Other viral infections, such as hepatitis B and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), may also cause liver abnormalities. Jaundice is more common in hepatitis B, while EBV typically causes mild elevation of serum transaminases. Testing for IgM and IgG antibodies can help diagnose acute or past infections. Enzyme levels, such as alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, may also be used to differentiate between viral infections.

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  • Question 74 - An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
      What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oseltamivir

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations

      influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.

      Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.

      It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.

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  • Question 75 - A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after being exposed to her mother who has been diagnosed with facial shingles one day ago.

      She was unaware of what the rash was and had examined the rash closely two days ago before her mother was diagnosed. She informs you that she is unaware of ever having Chickenpox.

      What is the most appropriate action that should be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be tested immediately for IgG antibodies to Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Management of VZV Exposure in a Non-Immune Patient

      The patient has a significant history of exposure to Varicella zoster virus (VZV), which puts her at risk of acquiring Chickenpox if she is non-immune. However, it is possible that she may have had VZV infection as a child. Therefore, the first step in managing this situation is to measure IgG antibodies to VZV. If the antibodies are present, no further action is required, and the patient can be relatively reassured.

      On the other hand, if the patient is non-immune, she will likely need to be treated with VZ immunoglobulin. This treatment has been shown to reduce the severity of the infection and prevent fetal infection. It is important to note that prompt management of VZV exposure in non-immune patients is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 76 - A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). She is aware of the link with cervical cancer and is concerned.
      Select from the list the type of HPV infection that is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asymptomatic infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and its Association with Cancer

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a virus that infects the skin and mucosae of the upper respiratory and anogenital tracts. With about 100 types of HPV, 40 of them infect the genital tract. HPV is classified as either ‘high-risk’ or ‘low-risk’ types, depending on their association with cancer. HPV16 is responsible for over 50% of all cervical cancers, while HPV18 is responsible for over 15%. Although most high-risk infections are transient and cause no clinical problems, persistent infection by a high-risk HPV type is the most important factor for the development of cancer. Types 6 and 11 are associated with anogenital warts and are included in one of the HPV vaccines (Gardasil®) along with types 16 and 18. It is recommended that individuals receive the HPV vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.

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  • Question 77 - A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.

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  • Question 78 - A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit...

    Incorrect

    • A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers

      Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.

      In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

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  • Question 79 - A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional haemoptysis, fever, night sweats and weight loss that has been going on for 2 months. His CXR reveals extensive bilateral apical cavitation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Cavitating Tuberculosis

      Cavitating tuberculosis is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray appearance. Although lung cancer could be a possible alternative diagnosis, the symptoms strongly suggest a tuberculous infection.

      The recommended treatment for the initial phase of cavitating tuberculosis is a daily combination of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs should be continued for two months. After the initial phase, treatment should continue for an additional four months with isoniazid and rifampicin. Combination preparations are available to make compliance easier for the patient. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment plan to ensure successful recovery from cavitating tuberculosis.

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  • Question 80 - A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She feels well in herself and there have been no complications in the pregnancy. She has been seeing her midwife regularly who has reported no problems.

      When should she have the pertussis vaccination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can receive the vaccination now

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations during Pregnancy

      The seasonal influenza vaccine and pertussis vaccination are both recommended for pregnant women. The influenza vaccine can be given at any stage of pregnancy, while the pertussis vaccine is ideally administered between 16-32 weeks to maximize antibody transfer to the unborn infant. Both vaccines are inactivated and can be given at the same time or at any interval from each other.

      It is important not to delay the administration of the influenza vaccine. The pertussis vaccine should not be given in early pregnancy as antibody levels would decline throughout the pregnancy, resulting in minimal transfer across the placenta. However, it is safe to give in the second trimester. Both vaccines protect against different illnesses and are advised during pregnancy.

      It is not recommended to give the pertussis vaccine during labor as antibody production peaks two weeks after vaccination. By following these guidelines, pregnant women can protect themselves and their unborn infants from preventable illnesses.

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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base in an area on the left side of the abdomen corresponding to the T10 dermatome. Lesions have been present for a week. He had similar lesions on the opposite flank 18 months before. He also has a solitary verrucous papule on the shaft of the penis. He has had multiple unprotected sexual exposures with commercial sex workers.
      Select from the list the single most important investigation in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Unusual Symptoms and Recommended Tests for a Man with Recurrent Shingles and Penile Wart

      The man in question is experiencing a recurrent attack of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, which is an unusual occurrence. This symptom is often associated with HIV infection, where opportunistic infections become prevalent as the disease progresses. Other symptoms that may occur include oral candida, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent ulcerating herpes simplex, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea infections, warts, and molluscum contagiosum.

      To screen for syphilis, a treponemal enzyme immunoassay for immunoglobulin M (EIA IgM) test is recommended. Additionally, a full sexual health screen should be offered to the patient, along with an HIV test. It is important to note that the patient will already have varicella zoster IgG from their original Chickenpox infection.

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  • Question 82 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 83 - A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain, tenesmus, and cramping during bowel movements. Four years ago, he traveled to Thailand for a vacation and had unprotected sex with a sex worker. A few weeks later, he noticed a sore on his penis and tenderness in his left groin, which eventually resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Explanation:

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is commonly found in tropical regions and typically presents with a painless genital papule or pustule that later ulcerates. Within 2 to 6 weeks, unilateral painful lymphadenopathy develops. If left untreated, LGV can progress to proctocolitis or even systemic illness.

      African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by the protist Trypanosoma brucei. It is spread by the tsetse fly and is not sexually transmitted. It presents with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and severe neurological complications.

      Genital herpes typically results in multiple painful genital ulcers, which is different from the solitary painless genital sores associated with LGV.

      Chancroid is an STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It also results in genital ulceration and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the ulcers are painful (unlike LGV) and are more likely to be multiple. Chancroid is also unlikely to progress to proctocolitis.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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  • Question 84 - A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type...

    Incorrect

    • A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type of chemical should be used to clean up the vomit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypochlorite

      Explanation:

      Managing Body Fluid Spillages

      When it comes to managing body fluid spillages, hypochlorite is often recommended. This chlorine-based agent is typically used in granular or powder form and spread over the affected area. However, it’s important to note that chlorine-releasing agents can be hazardous if used in large volumes in confined spaces or mixed with urine. Adequate ventilation is crucial to ensure safety.

      In addition to using hypochlorite, it’s recommended that staff wear personal protective equipment such as plastic aprons, gloves, masks, and eye protection when cleaning up body fluids. It’s also important to avoid using mops, as they can spread the contamination further.

      Some NHS trusts recommend the use of Virkon, a multipurpose disinfectant that contains oxone, potassium peroxymonosulphate, sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate, sulphamic acid, and inorganic buffers. Virkon is believed to be effective against HIV, hepatitis, and MRSA. By following these guidelines and using appropriate disinfectants, healthcare professionals can effectively manage body fluid spillages and minimize the risk of infection.

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  • Question 85 - A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her urine turning orange since commencing treatment. Which medication is causing this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 86 - A 30-year-old office worker has come to the clinic with a painful swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old office worker has come to the clinic with a painful swollen face that has developed over 24 hours. He is particularly swollen in the parotid area on the left. He has a fever of 38.2oC. He also has malaise, headache and has lost his appetite.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Differential Diagnosis

      Mumps is a viral infection that is rare in vaccinated individuals but can affect those who have not been vaccinated or exposed to the virus. The onset of mumps can be sudden, and one-third of cases present with unilateral parotitis. Unlike parotid adenomas, which develop slowly, mumps is characterized by acute inflammation of the parotid gland. Glandular fever, on the other hand, typically affects the neck glands and is often accompanied by a sore throat. In children, parvovirus can cause slapped cheek syndrome, which is characterized by nonspecific viral symptoms followed by the appearance of firm red cheeks a few days later. Sialadenosis, a generalized swelling of the glands, is associated with hypertrophy of the acinar component of the gland and is commonly seen in individuals with systemic diseases such as Sjogren syndrome. Complications of mumps can include epididymo-orchitis, viral meningitis, pancreatitis, and, in rare cases, myocarditis. It is important to differentiate mumps from other conditions with similar symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 87 - A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
      What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.

      Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

      Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.

      Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.

      In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.

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  • Question 88 - A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman returns from a 3-week holiday to Thailand with a 5-day history of feeling generally unwell, feverish, nauseous with a loss of appetite and right upper quadrant pain.

      Upon examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 102 beats per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly.

      Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 456 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 76 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)

      Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 164 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 512 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 86 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver and typically presents with flu-like symptoms, nausea, fatigue, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The liver may also become enlarged and tender, and liver function tests may be abnormal. As the infection progresses, it can lead to significant liver inflammation and a cholestatic picture.

      While an amoebic abscess is a possibility given the patient’s history of travel and symptoms of fever and right upper quadrant pain, the blood tests do not fully support this diagnosis, as the white blood cell count and C-reactive protein are only mildly elevated, and the alanine transaminase (ALT) is significantly raised.

      Ascending cholangitis, which is characterized by fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, is less likely in this scenario, as the liver function tests show marked hepatic inflammation with the raised ALT in proportion to the slightly raised bilirubin.

      Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, would not typically cause such a significant rise in ALT or the development of jaundice.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 89 - A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and is diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. There have been no other cases of meningitis reported in the area in the past month. What is the recommended approach for managing the close contacts of this girl?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is needed

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is usually unnecessary for the carriage of pneumococcus, as it is a prevalent occurrence. However, in the event of a cluster of cases, exceptions may apply. For further information, please refer to the HPA link.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest pain and worsening shortness of breath. He experienced a mild headache, myalgia and malaise the day before. He has been healthy in recent weeks and works as an air conditioning system installer and repairer. There are no known underlying medical conditions. What is the most probable causative organism for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella species

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Pneumonia: A Case Study

      Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens. In this case study, the patient presents with symptoms of high fever, chills, rigours, and a cough. To determine the cause of the pneumonia, different pathogens are considered.

      Legionella species is a possible cause, as it is commonly found in recirculating water systems and can be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated water droplets. However, the patient doesn’t have any known exposure to such systems.

      Staphylococcus aureus is another potential cause, but the patient doesn’t have any risk factors for staphylococcal pneumonia, which typically occurs in immunosuppressed individuals or intravenous drug users.

      Chlamydia psittaci is unlikely, as the patient has not been exposed to birds, which is a common source of infection.

      Mycoplasma spp. is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but the patient’s symptoms came on acutely, whereas mycoplasma pneumonia typically has a gradual onset.

      Pneumocystis jirovecii is also unlikely, as it is typically seen in immunosuppressed patients with a history of HIV.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, Legionella species is a possible cause of pneumonia, but further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
      What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.

      To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.

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  • Question 92 - What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of individuals with Chlamydia infection in their genital area do not experience any symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around 70% of women and 50% of men

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 93 - You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.

      His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.

      What is your response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts

      Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.

      If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.

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  • Question 94 - You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes...

    Incorrect

    • You are on rotation at a sexual health clinic. A 26-year-old male comes in with symptoms of mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria. He provides samples for testing. You suspect a possible diagnosis of Chlamydia.

      What laboratory methods are typically utilized to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing

      Explanation:

      When Chlamydia is suspected in a patient, the preferred method of investigation is nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs). Samples can be collected through swabs or first-catch urine. Direct culture is no longer commonly utilized for diagnosing Chlamydia.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 95 - A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and blood.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Urinary Tract Infections

      Antibiotic treatment is effective in treating uncomplicated cystitis in women. Trimethoprim is the preferred drug for empirical treatment, but resistance can occur in 10-20% of Escherichia coli infections. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin can be used as alternatives for patients who cannot take trimethoprim. The recommended treatment period for women is three days, while men should be treated for seven days.

      Amoxicillin is not routinely used due to its low effectiveness, with 50% of organisms being resistant. Cranberry juice and other cranberry products have no evidence to support their use in treating urinary tract infections.

      In summary, antibiotic treatment is the most effective option for treating urinary tract infections, with trimethoprim being the preferred drug for women. Treatment should be for no longer than three days in women and seven days in men. Amoxicillin and cranberry products are not recommended for routine use.

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  • Question 96 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

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  • Question 97 - A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis

      The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.

      The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.

      In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.

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  • Question 98 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 99 - influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms and can lead to complications such as pneumonia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aerosol transmission can occur before the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding influenza: From Epidemics to Pandemics

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. The incubation period of influenza is typically two days, but can range from one to four days. Aerosol transmission may occur one day before the onset of symptoms, making it easy for the virus to spread.

      Up to 15% of the population can develop influenza in any given year, with an average of 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week. An epidemic is declared when the GP consultation rate for new cases of influenza or flu-like illness exceeds 400 per 100,000 population per week.

      Clinicians usually diagnose influenza based on clinical criteria alone when the virus is circulating in the community. Investigations are typically reserved for community surveillance purposes.

      The influenza virus undergoes minor mutations to one or both of its surface antigens, known as antigenic drift. This causes seasonal epidemics, where people have only partial immunity from previous infection or vaccination. As a result, the vaccine requires annual changes.

      An influenza pandemic is an epidemic of an influenza virus that spreads on a worldwide scale and infects a large proportion of the human population. This occurs due to the emergence of influenza A virus that is genetically significantly different from the circulating human influenza A viruses, known as antigenic shift. These pandemics occur irregularly, with the 1918 Spanish flu being the most serious pandemic in history with a high mortality.

      Understanding the nature of influenza, from its epidemics to pandemics, is crucial in developing effective prevention and control strategies.

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  • Question 100 - A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
    Select from the list the single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
      Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus

      It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.

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  • Question 101 - A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
    Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
      Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut

      Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.

      The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.

      Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.

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  • Question 102 - A 27-year-old woman calls for guidance. She is 10 weeks pregnant and works...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman calls for guidance. She is 10 weeks pregnant and works in a daycare with young children. She is seeking advice on which infections to avoid during early pregnancy. What viral illness is most likely to cause birth defects in the baby if the mother contracts it during the first trimester?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella and Fetal Damage

      Maternal rubella infection during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy can result in fetal damage in as many as 90% of infants, with multiple defects being common. However, the risk of fetal damage decreases to 10-20% by 16 weeks gestation. After 16 weeks, fetal damage due to maternal rubella infection is rare. It is important for pregnant women to ensure they are vaccinated against rubella to prevent potential harm to their developing fetus.

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  • Question 103 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

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  • Question 104 - Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If...

    Incorrect

    • Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.

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  • Question 105 - A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.

      On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.

      Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.

      NAAT test: negative
      Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.

      Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.

      Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.

      Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 106 - A 28-year-old intravenous drug user comes to the clinic after being released from...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old intravenous drug user comes to the clinic after being released from prison. During his time there, he injected heroin and was forced to share needles. He reports experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past two weeks, including fever, joint and muscle pain, and a sore throat. He also had a rash, but it has since disappeared. Upon examination, he has lymph nodes in his neck and armpits, but his chest is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      Early Detection of HIV: Recognizing Flu-Like Symptoms and Other Risk Factors

      Flu-like symptoms in individuals with known risk factors for HIV should not be ignored. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve prognosis and reduce the risk of transmission. The initial seroconversion illness may be mild and last for about two weeks, after which patients may feel relatively well but continue to unknowingly transmit the virus. This illness typically occurs between one and six weeks after infection and presents with symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, headaches, diarrhea, neuralgia or neuropathy, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. In rare cases, meningoencephalitis may occur. Acute infection may also be asymptomatic.

      Other conditions such as tuberculosis, subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), hepatitis C, and glandular fever may present with similar symptoms. However, individuals with a high risk of HIV infection should consider it as the most likely diagnosis. SBE may be suspected in intravenous drug abusers who present with a murmur, particularly tricuspid regurgitation. Hepatitis C may be asymptomatic initially but should be considered if there is jaundice.

      In conclusion, recognizing flu-like symptoms and other risk factors for HIV is crucial for early detection and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention and get tested if any of these symptoms are present, as early intervention can make a significant difference in both individual prognosis and the risk of transmission.

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  • Question 107 - A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psittacosis

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure

      Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.

      Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.

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  • Question 108 - The midwife has asked you to see a 35-year-old woman who is 39...

    Incorrect

    • The midwife has asked you to see a 35-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant with her first child.

      She has a one week history of a running nose and sore throat, which has developed into a paroxysmal cough. During coughing episodes she coughs so much she feels she can hardly catch her breath, and on one occasion she vomited with the effort of coughing. She is unsure of her immunisation history.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her chest sounds clear. She is very concerned about how she will cope with the birth of the baby. You suspect she might have pertussis.

      How would you manage this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent assessment with obstetrician

      Explanation:

      Management of Pertussis in Newborn Infants

      Newborn infants born to mothers with suspected or confirmed pertussis within 21 days of onset of illness are at risk of contracting the disease. The recommended management for such cases is to test for pertussis and treat both the mother and newborn with antibiotics. Azithromycin should be offered to the newborn for five days after birth.

      Arranging FBC/ESR/CXR and reassurance are not appropriate options. Testing and treating only the mother is also not recommended as the baby will not derive immunity from her. Urgent assessment with an obstetrician is unnecessary as the mode of delivery doesn’t affect the risk of transmission to the baby.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. Early recognition and management of pertussis in newborn infants can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 109 - Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application

      Explanation:

      DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 110 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming trip to Vietnam. He will be visiting coastal tourist spots as well as traveling inland. What is the most suitable medication to prevent malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atovaquone + proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 111 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

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  • Question 112 - A 33-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, and fatigue that have persisted for three months. He works as a gamekeeper in rural Scotland and spends most of his day walking through long grass. He mentions removing ticks from his legs on a daily basis.

      During the examination, the GP observes a circular rash measuring 16cm on the lower leg, which is indicative of erythema migrans.

      What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately without further tests

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary, if a patient presents with erythema migrans, a characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease, no further laboratory testing is necessary for diagnosis. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is recommended to prevent the development of additional symptoms. However, if a patient presents with specific focal symptoms such as uveitis, facial nerve palsy, or arthritis, referral to a specialist or consultation with a specialist should be considered without delaying antibiotic treatment.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 113 - You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

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  • Question 114 - Which of the following antibiotics is safe for nursing mothers to use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is safe for nursing mothers to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The use of trimethoprim during breastfeeding is deemed safe.

      Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider

      Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.

      Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 115 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week history of fever, right sided abdominal pain and general malaise. She has no significant past medical history and has recently travelled to South America, returning 4 weeks ago. During examination, Sarah is found to be pyrexial. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and there is hepatomegaly.

      Upon further questioning, Sarah states that she is not sexually active and denies any history of intravenous drug use. Liver function tests reveal a significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). A full liver screen confirms the diagnosis.

      Sarah is prescribed medication for symptomatic management and she makes a full recovery within 3 months.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Acute hepatitis A is characterized by symptoms similar to those of other forms of acute viral hepatitis, including flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. It is difficult to differentiate hepatitis A from other forms of viral hepatitis based on medical history, physical examination, or routine laboratory tests. However, a history of exposure or risk factors, such as travel to regions with high prevalence, can increase suspicion. Unlike hepatitis C and D, which are transmitted through blood, hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 116 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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  • Question 117 - A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks after returning from his elective in South America. He reports experiencing ongoing watery diarrhea and has observed some weight loss. Despite submitting a stool sample, the results come back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Common Cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardiasis is a type of infection caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, which is usually acquired from contaminated water supplies. The infection is spread through the faecal-oral route and typically causes watery diarrhoea. Unlike other types of diarrhoea, giardiasis doesn’t cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea.

      Diagnosing giardiasis can be difficult, even when looking for cysts in stool cultures, which are frequently negative. As a result, repetitive samples are often required. Chronic infection can lead to malabsorption, and a duodenal biopsy can demonstrate partial villous atrophy. The infection is treated with metronidazole.

      Traveller’s diarrhoea in a previously healthy person with a negative stool sample is a typical presentation of giardiasis. While Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis can also present in this way, even without abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea, the travel history makes giardiasis a much more likely diagnosis. Amoebic dysentery and shigellosis, on the other hand, typically cause profuse, bloody diarrhoea.

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  • Question 118 - A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old farmer's wife presents with fever and malaise, feeling generally 'washed-out' and off her food. She has recently been helping out with lambing on the farm. On examination she has generalised lymph node swelling and a palpable liver edge. Her white blood cell count is just below the normal range.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucellosis

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis: A Zoonotic Infection from Farm Animals

      Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection that occurs due to contact with farm animals such as sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, or dogs. It is most commonly seen in farmers, vets, or abattoir workers. Although rare in UK residents, it is prevalent worldwide and caused by Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus. The infection can be acquired through inhalation, ingestion, or a break in the skin.

      The incubation period ranges from 1 week to 3 months, and the symptoms include fever (usually undulant), sweating, weight loss, myalgia, arthralgia, and mild depression. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be present, and the white cell count may be normal or low. Antibody testing confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves a combination of doxycycline and rifampicin for at least 6 weeks. Shorter courses are associated with a high relapse rate.

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  • Question 119 - A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with...

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    • A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with a diarrhoeal illness. They were one of twenty-four students on a study abroad program who developed bloody diarrhoea on the third day.

      Which of the following organisms is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma mansoni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dysentery and Amoebiasis

      Dysentery is a gastrointestinal infection that is characterized by frequent stools that may contain blood, mucous, or pus. It is caused by Shigella dysenteriae, which is often associated with unsanitary conditions. The disease is transmitted through faecal contamination of water or food, and symptoms usually appear within one to four days of infection. The bacteria penetrate the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine, causing intense irritation and producing cramps and watery, bloody diarrhoea.

      Amoebiasis, on the other hand, is often asymptomatic initially, with cysts present in the faeces. However, symptoms such as lower abdominal pain and diarrhoea can develop later in the disease course. If left untreated, dysentery can also develop. It is important to note that stool examination has low sensitivity in detecting amoebiasis.

      Other gastrointestinal infections that you should also be familiar with include C. difficile and E. coli toxins, bacterial causes such as salmonella and campylobacter, viral causes such as rotavirus and norovirus, and parasitic causes such as Giardia lamblia. Understanding these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate management and preventing further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 120 - A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

    She has no other symptoms and physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

      She has no other symptoms and physical examination is normal. She works as a teacher.

      You send blood samples for tests. Her full blood count, urea, electrolytes, and thyroid function tests are normal but her liver functions tests are abnormal. Because of this you send some blood to the laboratory to test for hepatitis. You explain first to your patient what the tests are for.

      The results are:

      Anti-HAV IgG Negative

      HBsAg Negative

      Anti-HBs Positive

      Anti-HBc Negative

      HBeAg Negative

      Anti-HBe Negative

      Anti-HCV Positive

      What is the patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C Infection and Vaccination Recommendations

      Abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies suggest that a patient has hepatitis C infection. If a patient has been vaccinated against hepatitis B, it may indicate that they work in a healthcare setting. The risk of seroconversion to hepatitis C after a needlestick injury from a patient positive for hepatitis C virus is low, but still present. Patients may not experience symptoms during seroconversion, and many with hepatitis C have normal liver function tests.

      It is important to vaccinate patients against hepatitis B if they have not already been vaccinated, as co-existent hepatitis B infection can worsen liver injury. Patients with hepatitis C who do not have detectable immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) antibodies are at risk of acquiring hepatitis A infection, which can be severe and associated with increased mortality. Therefore, hepatitis A vaccination is recommended.

      In summary, patients with abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies should be checked for hepatitis C infection, even if their liver function tests are normal. Healthcare workers may have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Vaccination against hepatitis B and A is recommended for patients with hepatitis C infection.

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  • Question 121 - A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
      Select the single most appropriate initial response.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mumps

      Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.

      There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.

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  • Question 122 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.

      Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.

      Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.

      Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.

      It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 123 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who previously visited you with symptoms of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who previously visited you with symptoms of vaginal discharge. A swab was taken and has confirmed a diagnosis of gonorrhoea. What recommendations would you make?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attend GUM clinic

      Explanation:

      To manage gonorrhoea, it is now recommended to use a combination of IM ceftriaxone 500 mg and oral azithromycin 1g due to the rising resistance. It is important to ensure strict partner notification and therefore, patients are advised to attend the GUM clinic.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 124 - A 54-year-old man from Pakistan visits his GP complaining of numbness and tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man from Pakistan visits his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his feet that has been present for a week. He reports starting some new medications recently. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is revealed that he has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and hypertension.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a well-known adverse effect of isoniazid, while paraesthesia is a rare side effect of amlodipine according to the BNF. Therefore, it is more likely that isoniazid is the cause in this case.

      Common side effects of drugs:
      Rifampicin – orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, drug interactions
      Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, hepatotoxicity

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 125 - A 72-year-old man seeks advice regarding his upcoming trip to Australia to visit...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man seeks advice regarding his upcoming trip to Australia to visit his daughter who has emigrated. He is concerned about the risk of deep vein thrombosis as he was diagnosed with this condition approximately 40 years ago during his wife's second pregnancy. However, there are no other significant risk factors for venous thromboembolism. What is the best advice to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wear compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Considering her age, previous DVT, and long haul destination, this woman is at a higher risk of travel related thrombosis. Therefore, the most suitable recommendation for her would be to wear compression stockings.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

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  • Question 126 - A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history of violent paroxysms of coughing that end in an inspiratory whoop. He often vomits with the coughing attacks. He and his parents are exhausted.

      Select from the list the single correct statement about whooping cough.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coughing may last up to 100 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Pertussis

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Treatment with antibiotics can reduce the infectivity of the disease, but it doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. Macrolide antibiotics are the preferred treatment for pertussis.

      Immunization is the most effective way to prevent pertussis. However, the vaccine provides only 95% protection and relies on a degree of herd immunity. Infants less than 6 months old and any unwell child should be admitted to the hospital for treatment.

      If left untreated, pertussis can lead to complications such as bronchiectasis and pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has pertussis. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 127 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

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  • Question 128 - A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.

      Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.

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  • Question 129 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

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  • Question 130 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 131 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.

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  • Question 132 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

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  • Question 133 - A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

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  • Question 134 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 135 - A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His father is worried because two days ago he had been playing in the same room as a child who was subsequently diagnosed with Chickenpox.

      He is completely asymptomatic and has no other significant illnesses or allergies. His father declined the varicella vaccine when he was a baby having assumed that it could not be given because one of his grandparents had a history of shingles and a distant relative was undergoing investigation for possible autoimmune disease.

      How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that no further action necessary

      Explanation:

      Measles and MMR Vaccination Guidelines

      Significant contact with measles is defined as being in the same room as an infected individual for 15 minutes or more. If an individual has not been fully immunised or has not previously had laboratory confirmed measles, it is assumed that they lack immunity. This is important to note for children who have not received the MMR vaccination for no good reason, as family history of epilepsy or autism is not a contraindication.

      Ideally, the MMR vaccine should be given within three days of contact with a possible case of measles. A repeat MMR vaccine should be given after at least a month. The first dose of MMR should be given between 12 and 13 months of age, within a month of the first birthday. Immunisation before one year of age provides earlier protection in localities where the risk of measles is higher, but residual maternal antibodies may reduce the response rate to the vaccine. The optimal age chosen for scheduling children is therefore a compromise between risk of disease and level of protection.

      If a dose of MMR is given before the first birthday, either because of travel to an endemic country or because of a local outbreak, then this dose should be ignored, and two further doses given at the recommended times between 12 and 13 months of age and at three years four months to five years of age. During the 2012-13 outbreak in Wales, a recommendation was made about the possibility of withdrawal from educational establishments for unvaccinated close contacts.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to prevent the spread of measles and protect individuals who may be at risk.

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  • Question 136 - A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
      Select the single most likely pathogen.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A: A Self-Limiting Liver Infection

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes acute and self-limiting hepatitis. It is often preceded by flu-like symptoms and a brief diarrheal illness, especially in children. Unlike other forms of hepatitis, there is no chronic viral carriage or long-term liver damage associated with hepatitis A. The virus is transmitted orally and has an incubation period of 2 to 6 weeks. The most common mode of transmission is through the ingestion of contaminated food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person.

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  • Question 137 - A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
      Select the single most appropriate management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V

      Explanation:

      Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat

      Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.

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  • Question 138 - What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 139 - A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, previous Clostridium difficile infection, and chronic kidney disease stage 4. Her regular medications include ramipril, amlodipine, furosemide, and aspirin. She has reported allergies to statins and co-trimoxazole. Upon urine dipstick examination, nitrites and leucocytes are detected, leading to a diagnosis of urinary tract infection. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The most suitable antibiotic for this patient’s urinary tract infection is amoxicillin. According to the BNF, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are recommended as first-line treatments, while amoxicillin or a cephalosporin are considered alternatives. However, in this case, the patient is allergic to co-trimoxazole, which contains trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole, making it unsuitable. Additionally, the patient has CKD 4, which contraindicates nitrofurantoin, and cefaclor is not recommended due to its association with Clostridium difficile. Doxycycline is not a recommended treatment for UTI. Therefore, amoxicillin is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 140 - A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell on the plane, complaining of headache, loss of appetite and sweats. Her temperature was 39.5°C 2 days ago; however, it is now normal.
      Select the most appropriate investigation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated thick and thin blood smears

      Explanation:

      Malaria: Diagnosis and Management

      Malaria is a febrile illness caused by Plasmodium species, which can lead to periodic febrile paroxysms every 48 or 72 hours, with asymptomatic intervals and a tendency to relapse. The symptoms and signs of malaria are nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose. Therefore, it is important to exclude malaria by conducting repeated thick and thin blood smears in patients with acute fever and a history of exposure. If the patient is severely ill or symptoms persist, a therapeutic trial of antimalarial chemotherapy should not be delayed. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of malaria.

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  • Question 141 - An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.

      Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.

      For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.

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  • Question 142 - A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not experiencing any symptoms. You comfort her by explaining that it is typical for Chlamydia to be asymptomatic, which is why screening is recommended. What proportion of women with Chlamydia do not show symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Opportunistic chlamydia screening is crucial due to the significant number of men who carry the infection without showing any symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 143 - Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefaclor

      Explanation:

      C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 144 - You have a telephone consultation with a 25-year-old man to discuss the results...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 25-year-old man to discuss the results of a stool sample. He saw a colleague of yours 4 days ago with a 72-hour history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient's symptoms have now resolved and he feels well.

      Stool sample result:
      Growth of Campylobacter jejuni
      Shigella Not isolated
      Salmonella Not isolated
      Ova, cysts and parasites Not detected

      What is the most suitable course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment is required

      Explanation:

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection resolves on its own without the need for treatment. This is the case for the patient in this scenario, as their symptoms have completely disappeared. However, if the symptoms are severe or persist for more than a week, the first-line treatment is clarithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative treatment option but not the first choice. Vancomycin is not used to treat Campylobacter infection as it is used for C. difficile infections. There is no need to repeat the stool sample as the patient is clinically well and their diarrhea has resolved.

      Campylobacter is a type of bacteria that is responsible for causing the majority of cases of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. It is a Gram-negative bacillus that is spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, as well as diarrhoea that is often bloody and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and doesn’t require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the symptoms are severe or if the patient is immunocompromised. Clinical Knowledge summaries also suggest antibiotics if the symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day, or if the symptoms have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. However, the BNF notes that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection can include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis.

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  • Question 145 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.

      Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.

      Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.

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  • Question 146 - You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 147 - A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small,...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small, painful ulcers on the glans penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Genital Herpes Simplex Virus Infection from Other Genital Lesions

      Primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection caused by HSV type 2 is characterized by typical lesions. Unlike syphilis, which presents with a small, painless papule that quickly forms an ulcer, HSV lesions are usually painful and may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes are also common but are usually painful in HSV infection. In herpes zoster, vesiculation and ulceration occur in a dermatomal distribution, while scabies presents with a generalised itch and itchy nodules on the genitalia. Impetigo lesions are painless, superficial, and crusted or eroded, unlike the painful and often multiple lesions seen in primary genital HSV infection. Therefore, a careful examination and history-taking are essential to differentiate primary genital HSV infection from other genital lesions.

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  • Question 148 - Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them

      Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.

      To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.

      Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.

      In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.

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  • Question 149 - Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. During examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematous, mildly swollen, and warm to touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and since Samantha is allergic to penicillin, you prescribe a course of oral clarithromycin.

      One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential side effect of this antibiotic can be observed on an ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Macrolides have been known to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to palpitations as an uncommon side effect. On the other hand, a shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests delayed conduction of the sinoatrial nodal impulse to the ventricles, also known as first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves, on the other hand, are typically caused by right atrial enlargement due to various factors such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 150 - A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.

      You take some bloods which are reported the next day:

      Hb 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets 290 * 109/l
      WBC 13.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
      ALP 29 u/l
      ALT 72 u/l

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 151 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

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  • Question 152 - Which group of patients should receive a pneumococcal booster vaccination every 6 years...

    Incorrect

    • Which group of patients should receive a pneumococcal booster vaccination every 6 years and be vaccinated against pneumococcus if they have any of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Those with chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is typically administered as a single dose, but individuals who have undergone a splenectomy or have chronic kidney disease should receive a booster shot every five years.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 153 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

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  • Question 154 - A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of 39 oC but no localising symptoms and signs. The fever responded well to ibuprofen and paracetamol and has resolved. The mother was warned to watch out for a rash and returns anxious because small pink spots have appeared on her body, arms and legs. The spots blanch on pressure.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Roseola infantum is a common viral infection that primarily affects children between the ages of 6 months and 1 year. Caused by the herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6), this highly contagious illness is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, which can reach up to 40°C and last for 3-4 days. Once the fever subsides, a rash of small pink spots typically appears on the body, arms, and legs, but not on the face. The rash usually lasts for about 12-14 hours and may be accompanied by a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.

      While the initial fever may cause concern for parents and healthcare providers, the sudden drop in temperature and the appearance of the characteristic rash are reassuring signs of roseola. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions before making a diagnosis. With proper understanding of the symptoms, causes, and diagnostic process, parents and healthcare providers can effectively manage and treat roseola infantum.

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  • Question 155 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a dog on his left hand. What would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 156 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

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  • Question 157 - A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever and headache. He is a frequent smoker. He woke up that morning to discover an itchy vesicular rash mostly on his face and trunk.
      What is the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Chickenpox

      Chickenpox is a common viral illness that can be treated with aciclovir if caught early. Most doctors would prescribe this medication to patients over the age of 12 within the first 24 hours of the rash appearing. Aciclovir can help reduce the severity of the illness, but it is ineffective if started later. The recommended dose is 800 mg taken five times daily for seven days.

      Children usually have milder symptoms and only require symptomatic treatment. However, non-immune pregnant women who come into contact with Chickenpox may be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin to reduce the severity of the illness. If a rash develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy, aciclovir may be given. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or someone you know has Chickenpox.

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  • Question 158 - A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
      Select the single correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.

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  • Question 159 - A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination.
      Which serological marker indicates successful hepatitis B immunisation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Prevention of Hepatitis B through Vaccination

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease and cancer. Vaccination against hepatitis B is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. The development of protective antibodies, known as anti-HBs, is used to monitor the response to vaccination. The antibody profile, along with the results of HBsAg and HBeAg tests, can help determine the phase of HBV infection.

      Initially, vaccines were derived from viral proteins in infected blood, but now recombinant HBsAg proteins are used. Vaccination strategies range from universal vaccination in infancy to targeted vaccination of high-risk individuals. In areas with high rates of infection, universal vaccine programs have already reduced the incidence of infection, carriage, and hepatocellular cancer.

      Conventional three-dose immunization in adults leads to protective immunity in 90% of individuals. Passive immunization with anti-HBsAg hyperimmune globulin can provide rapid protection after exposure, such as after a needlestick injury. For children born to infected mothers, a combination of passive and active immunization is recommended. However, in some infants, chronic infection with a mutant escape virus has occurred despite vaccination.

      In conclusion, monitoring and prevention of hepatitis B through vaccination is crucial in reducing the spread of the virus and preventing chronic liver disease and cancer.

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  • Question 160 - A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns about vaccinations. Lily has recently undergone a liver transplant and is on immunosuppressants. The mother is worried that some vaccinations may not be safe for her daughter. Which of the following vaccinations can be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pertussis vaccine

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines, such as those for seasonal nasal flu, oral polio, mumps, and measles, are commonly used. The pertussis vaccine, on the other hand, is an inactivated whole-cell vaccine that is safe for immunocompromised individuals. Immunization schedules for both children and adults are undergoing rapid changes, and some candidates may not be aware of these changes or recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated to clinical staff, it is important for GPs to be aware of contraindications and schedules in order to advise patients and parents. Auditing specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunization in cases where recommendations have changed.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 161 - A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular inhalers and is otherwise well. She also takes a combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Oral Candidiasis

      Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection that can affect the mouth and throat. While it can occur in anyone, certain medications can increase the risk of developing this condition. Here is a breakdown of how different medications may impact the likelihood of oral candidiasis:

      Inhaled Corticosteroid: Patients with well-controlled asthma may use inhaled corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation can help reduce this risk. Antifungal medication can be used to treat oral candidiasis without discontinuing therapy.

      Inhaled β2 Agonist: This type of inhaler is used as a reliever for poorly controlled asthma and doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Common side effects include palpitations, tremors, and hypokalaemia.

      Combined Oral Contraceptive: While the combined oral contraceptive pill doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis, it may be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis.

      Montelukast: This oral medication used to treat asthma doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, along with gastrointestinal problems, headaches, and sleep disturbance.

      Type II Diabetes Mellitus: Patients with poorly controlled diabetes may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, including oral candidiasis. If a patient presents with symptoms or risk factors for diabetes, blood glucose and/or haemoglobin A1c should be checked.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and oral candidiasis can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment and management.

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  • Question 162 - A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

    Negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

      Negative for Anti-HBs
      Positive for Anti-HBc
      Positive for HBs antigen
      Negative for IgM anti-HBc

      What is the hepatitis B status of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive result for anti-HBc IgG, negative result for anti-HBc IgM, and negative result for anti-HBc while HBsAg is present, it indicates that the person has a chronic HBV infection. The absence of IgM anti-HBc suggests that the infection is not acute but rather long-term.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

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  • Question 163 - A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of intermittent diarrhoea, fever (39 oC), headache and a non-productive cough. His pulse is 70 and regular, and his spleen is palpable.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typhoid

      Explanation:

      Typhoid Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications

      Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica, specifically S typhi and S paratyphi. It is primarily spread through contaminated food and drink, and is most commonly reported in the UK among individuals who have traveled to the Indian sub-continent. Symptoms typically appear 10-20 days after exposure and may include diarrhea, fever, headaches, cough, and constipation. Other signs may include Rose spots, a relative bradycardia, and eye complications.

      As the infection progresses, patients may experience sustained pyrexia, abdominal distension, and splenomegaly. By the third week, weight loss and delirium may occur, along with a liquid, green-yellow pea soup diarrhea. In severe cases, death can result from toxaemia, myocarditis, intestinal hemorrhage, or gut perforation.

      It is important to consider other mosquito-borne illnesses, such as dengue fever and malaria, in the differential diagnosis of febrile patients returning from endemic areas. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing typhoid fever and preventing complications.

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  • Question 164 - A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Explanation:

      Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

      Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:

      1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
      2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
      3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
      4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
      5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
      6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
      7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
      8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
      9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
      10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.

      It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.

      Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

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  • Question 165 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.

      Upon admission, his blood work shows:
      - Sodium: 129 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 155 µmol/L

      A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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  • Question 166 - A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Infected Dog Bites

      Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.

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  • Question 167 - Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
      Which of the following is the correct advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines

      Explanation:

      Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity

      To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.

      The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 168 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

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  • Question 169 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 170 - A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on her left ankle that has been getting increasingly itchy. Despite using over-the-counter creams, she has not seen any improvement. Her ankle is surrounded by a significant area of redness measuring approximately 12 cm in diameter. She reports no fever and has been in good health otherwise.

      What is the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral loratadine

      Explanation:

      Cream is a highly effective topical corticosteroid that can be utilized for the treatment of bite reactions. However, for milder cases, hydrocortisone 1 may be sufficient.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 171 - A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge with a foul...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge with a foul odor that began 1 week ago. She experiences dysuria and dyspareunia. During examination, her vagina appears erythematous.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Causes and Symptoms

      Vaginal discharge is a common occurrence in women, but it can sometimes indicate an underlying health issue. The most common causes of vaginal discharge are physiological, bacterial vaginosis, and candidal infections. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by the anaerobe Gardnerella vaginalis, which disrupts the normal vaginal flora. It causes a thin, profuse, and fishy-smelling discharge without itch or soreness. Candidiasis results in a thick, white, non-offensive discharge, which is associated with vulval itch and soreness. It may cause mild dyspareunia and external dysuria.

      Sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas vaginalis can also cause purulent vaginal discharge. These infections may be asymptomatic, making it difficult to differentiate between them without laboratory testing. T. vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes an offensive yellow vaginal discharge, which is often profuse and frothy. It is associated with vulval itch and soreness, dysuria, abdominal pain, and superficial dyspareunia. A pelvic examination may reveal red blotches on the vaginal wall or cervix, and the labia may be swollen.

      It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of vaginal discharge to identify any potential health issues and seek appropriate treatment. Regular gynecological check-ups and practicing safe sex can help prevent and manage vaginal discharge.

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  • Question 172 - A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face. What is the most frequent cause of impetigo?

      Input: can you provide a list of common treatments for impetigo?
      Output: Sure, here are some common treatments for impetigo:
      - Topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin or retapamulin
      - Oral antibiotics, such as penicillin or erythromycin
      - Keeping the affected area clean and covered
      - Soaking the affected area in warm water and applying compresses
      - Avoiding scratching or picking at the lesions to prevent spreading

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: Causes and Types

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that can be divided into two types: non-bullous and bullous. Non-bullous impetigo is the more common type, accounting for about 70% of cases. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus, with Staphylococcus aureus being the more common organism. In developing nations and warm climates, however, Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus is still the more common cause.

      Bullous impetigo, on the other hand, is toxin-mediated and involves the sloughing off of the epidermal layer of the skin. It is exclusively caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      In summary, impetigo can be caused by different organisms and can present in different forms. Understanding the causes and types of impetigo is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 173 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound

      This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.

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  • Question 174 - You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man comes to see you with a laceration to his right lower leg. He explains that 2 hours ago he was using a sharp tool to cut wood when it slipped and hit deep into his foot.

      On examination, there is a 6 cm laceration on the lateral aspect of John's right lower leg which is 4 cm deep. There is a lot of sawdust visible inside the wound.

      John is unsure about his tetanus immunisation history and there is no further information about this in his records.

      What is the most appropriate option to manage John's wound with regards to tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin, unless the wound is minor and less than six hours old. In the case of Sarah, who has a tetanus-prone wound contaminated with soil, she requires treatment with human tetanus immunoglobulin. According to NICE guidelines, if a person’s immunisation status is unknown or uncertain, an immediate dose of vaccine should be given, followed by a full five-dose course if necessary to ensure future immunity. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. Waiting to confirm the tetanus immunisation history is not recommended, as tetanus prophylaxis needs to be given urgently. Advising that no tetanus prophylaxis is required is also incorrect, especially in the case of a tetanus-prone wound, which requires both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 175 - A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.

      Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.

      It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.

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  • Question 176 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal discharge accompanied by itching. Upon conducting a sexual health screening, it is discovered that she has tested positive for gonorrhoea. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, which is also safe to administer during pregnancy.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 177 - A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.

      Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management

      Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.

      To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.

      In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.

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  • Question 178 - You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.

      Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance

      Explanation:

      If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.

      The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.

      While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.

      The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 179 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:

      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
      - ALP: 160 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - Albumin: 35 g/l

      All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis E

      Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.

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  • Question 180 - A 14-year-old girl has measles.
    Select from the list the single most likely complication....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has measles.
      Select from the list the single most likely complication.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection

      Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.

      Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.

      Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.

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  • Question 181 - A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal pain. She has tiny grey-white papulovesicles and shallow ulcers with surrounding erythema, approximately 1-2 mm in diameter on her uvula, soft palate and tonsils. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Sore Throat: Herpangina and Adenovirus

      Herpangina is a viral infection caused by the Coxsackie A virus, which is most prevalent during the summer and autumn months. Although it primarily affects individuals under the age of 16, adults can also be affected. The virus is named after the town of Coxsackie in New York State. Fortunately, the infection is typically self-limiting.

      Adenovirus is the most common viral cause of sore throat. Unlike herpangina, the degree of neck lymph node enlargement is usually minimal, and the throat may not appear red. However, the pain can be severe.

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  • Question 182 - A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms

      Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.

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  • Question 183 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

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  • Question 184 - A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He recently went camping in the New Forest and recalls having multiple tick bites.

      Upon examination, there are no visible rashes or swollen lymph nodes. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no signs of liver or spleen enlargement. The thyroid appears normal.

      Lyme disease is suspected, but the ELISA test comes back negative. Based on the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ELISA test in 4-6 weeks after the start of symptoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and presents within 4 weeks of symptom onset, it is recommended to repeat the ELISA test after 4-6 weeks if the initial test is negative. This is because the initial test may not detect the disease in its early stages. It is important to avoid diagnosing Lyme disease at this stage without an erythema migrans rash, as it may lead to inappropriate treatment and the possibility of missing alternative diagnoses. An immunoblot test may be necessary if symptoms persist for 12 weeks or more, or if the ELISA test is positive or equivocal. Referring the patient for same-day review by the infectious diseases team is unnecessary as the patient is not acutely unwell. It is also incorrect to inform the patient that Lyme disease is excluded, especially if the ELISA test was done within 4 weeks of symptom onset, as it may result in a false-negative result. It is important to investigate other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 185 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile, restless and has excessive drooling from the mouth. Drinking and eating are painful and his breath smells foul. His gums are swollen and red and he has ulcers on the tongue, throat, palate and insides of the cheeks and a few vesicles and erosions on the lips.
      Which of the following is the most likely infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Simplex Virus and Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Comparison

      Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that can cause cold sores on the face (type 1) or genital infections (type 2). Primary type 1 infection is usually mild or subclinical, but can cause herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is the most common clinical manifestation of the infection. After the initial infection, the virus remains latent in nerve cell ganglia and can be reactivated by various stimuli, resulting in a recurrence of symptoms and shedding of the virus.

      In contrast, hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A virus and is usually a minor illness with mouth ulcers and vesicles on the hands and feet. While the mouth may be sore, it is not typically as severe as a herpes simplex infection.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these two viral infections can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 186 - A 23-year-old nurse is undergoing communicable disease immunity screening before starting work. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old nurse is undergoing communicable disease immunity screening before starting work. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for anti-HBs
      - Positive for anti-HBc (IgG)

      What is the nurse's hepatitis B status based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resolved infection - natural immunity

      Explanation:

      The patient has evidence of a past hepatitis B infection that has been resolved. This is indicated by the absence of hepatitis B surface antigen and the presence of positive anti-HBs and IgG anti-HBc. It is important to note that natural immunity is demonstrated by the presence of both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, while artificial immunity is only indicated by positive anti-HBs. The patient is not currently infected and is not a carrier.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

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  • Question 187 - The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety

      Explanation:

      Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine

      Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.

      Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.

      It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.

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  • Question 188 - A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed a corrected QT interval (QTc) of 500 milliseconds. She has no symptoms and has a medical history of hypothyroidism, carpal tunnel syndrome, anxiety, and recurrent sinusitis. Which medication from her list is most likely responsible for the abnormal ECG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolides, such as erythromycin and clarithromycin, has been associated with QT interval prolongation. Other antimicrobials like fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) and oral antifungals (e.g. fluconazole, ketoconazole) have also been implicated. Additionally, certain medications used for arrhythmias (e.g. amiodarone), psychiatric disorders (e.g. haloperidol), and depression (e.g. citalopram) can cause QT prolongation. However, doxycycline, propranolol, levothyroxine, and ibuprofen are not known to have this effect.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 189 - A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a regimen of ciprofloxacin as he is planning a trip to Goa in three days. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decline and suggest he consults with his regular GP

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, doctors should refrain from treating themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. It is recommended that doctors register with a GP outside of their family. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action would be to suggest that the colleague consults with their own GP. Discussing their medical history could create confusion regarding the doctor-patient relationship. Urging them to visit A&E is not advisable as it is not an emergency or an accident. It is worth noting that this type of request is not uncommon among colleagues, and reporting it to the GMC may be considered excessive.

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  • Question 190 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

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  • Question 191 - One of your receptionists has tested positive for pertussis. Her GP has given...

    Incorrect

    • One of your receptionists has tested positive for pertussis. Her GP has given her clarithromycin today.

      She feels well enough to work, but with regard to her infectivity, when could she start back at work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When her cough subsides

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidance for Healthcare Workers

      According to the latest guidance from Public Health England (PHE), healthcare workers (HCWs) suspected of having pertussis should be excluded from work until 48 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. This is a change from earlier advice to exclude for 5 days. Hospitalized patients with pertussis should be placed in respiratory isolation until 48 hours of treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. HCWs looking after patients with pertussis should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as stated in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 3.19. Public Health England has published comprehensive guidelines on the symptoms, diagnosis, management, surveillance, and epidemiology of pertussis, including updated sub-documents. Staying up to date with the latest guidance is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients and protecting the health of healthcare workers.

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  • Question 192 - A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients

      Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.

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  • Question 193 - A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
      What is the most crucial management option to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis

      Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.

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  • Question 194 - Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?...

    Incorrect

    • Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Adenovirus: A Highly Contagious and Diverse Virus

      Adenovirus is a DNA virus that was first discovered in the 1950s and is named after the adenoid tissue-derived cell cultures in which it was isolated. This virus is extremely hardy and can survive outside a host for long periods, making it ubiquitous in human and animal populations throughout the year. With 52 serotypes, adenovirus is responsible for causing various syndromes and is transmitted through direct inoculation, the faecal-oral route, aerosol droplets, or exposure to infected tissue or blood. Although it most commonly affects infants and children, severe morbidity and mortality associated with adenovirus infections are rare in immunocompetent hosts.

      Adenovirus infections are highly contagious and most commonly occur in the spring and winter months. While approximately half of respiratory infections caused by adenovirus do not cause symptoms, acute respiratory disease is the most common presentation. Symptoms of adenoviral infection include fever, rhinorrhoea, cough, and sore throat, which typically last for 3-5 days. Tonsillitis and otitis media may also occur, and adenoviruses account for 10% of all childhood lower respiratory tract infections. Additionally, adenovirus can cause conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, and acute haemorrhagic cystitis, especially in young children.

      In conclusion, adenovirus is a highly contagious and diverse virus that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent its spread, especially during peak seasons, and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 195 - You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 16-year-old boy with his father. They are planning on travelling to Africa to climb Mount Kenya in 3 months time. They would like you to prescribe some malaria prophylaxis as Kenya is a malaria endemic country. They were given some information from the nurse and they think they would like to take atovaquone/proguanil (brand name Malarone). They are aware that most regimens have side effects and would like to know a bit more about what to expect from this drug.

      What is a common side effect of atovaquone/proguanil that the 16-year-old boy and his father should be aware of before taking it as a malaria prophylaxis for their upcoming trip to Kenya?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal upset

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that infect red blood cells and is transmitted through mosquito bites. When traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent, it is recommended to take medication to prevent infection. There are several options available, including chloroquines, proguanil, mefloquine, and doxycycline. Each medication has its own set of potential side effects, with gastrointestinal upset being the most common. Other side effects may include headaches, rash, and neuropsychiatric reactions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each medication with a healthcare provider before starting prophylaxis.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 196 - A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. He is asymptomatic and has no notable medical history. His CD4 count is currently at 290 cells/µL. What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as HIV is diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV.

      Delaying treatment until symptoms or AIDS-defining illnesses occur is not recommended, as it can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.

      The BNF recommends offering antiretroviral treatment to all HIV-positive patients, regardless of their CD4 count.

      A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL indicates progression to AIDS, and a count below 50 cells/µL may result in poor response to antiretroviral therapy.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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  • Question 197 - A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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  • Question 198 - A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever with a red, tender area near her right nipple.
      Select the single correct statement.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An abscess may develop and would need draining

      Explanation:

      Managing Mastitis: Tips for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Mastitis is a common condition among breastfeeding mothers, which can lead to an abscess if left untreated. To prevent this complication, it is important to continue feeding from the affected breast to avoid engorgement. Contrary to popular belief, feeding from an infected breast doesn’t cause infection in the baby. However, the milk may taste slightly different, and the baby may refuse to feed. In such cases, expressing milk from the infected side is recommended. White patches inside a baby’s mouth are a sign of thrush and are not caused by mastitis. To manage the pain and discomfort associated with mastitis, a breastfeeding mother can take both paracetamol and ibuprofen. By following these tips, mothers can effectively manage mastitis and continue to breastfeed their babies.

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  • Question 199 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 200 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

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