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  • Question 1 - A 3-day-old neonate was discovered to be cyanosed with a PaO2 of 2...

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old neonate was discovered to be cyanosed with a PaO2 of 2 kPa on umbilical artery blood sampling. Upon auscultation of the chest, a murmur with a loud S2 was detected, and a chest X-ray revealed a narrow upper mediastinum with an ‘egg-on-side’ appearance of the cardiac shadow. To save the infant's life, a balloon atrial septostomy was performed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a congenital heart condition where the aorta and pulmonary arteries are switched, resulting in central cyanosis and a loud single S2 on cardiac auscultation. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and management involves keeping the ductus arteriosus patent with intravenous prostaglandin E1, followed by balloon atrial septostomy and reparative surgery. Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery, which can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterisation, or ligation. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a rare condition where the left side of the heart and aorta are underdeveloped, requiring a patent ductus arteriosus for survival. Interruption of the aortic arch is a very rare defect requiring prostaglandin E1 and surgical anastomosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by four heart lesions and symptoms such as progressive cyanosis, difficulty feeding, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and surgical correction is usually done in the first 2 years of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Twice as common in girls

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A preterm baby is admitted to the hospital with signs of heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A preterm baby is admitted to the hospital with signs of heart failure shortly after birth. The infant is experiencing poor feeding, excessive sweating, and fatigue, resulting in inadequate weight gain. The parents also report irritability and episodes of apnea. During the examination, a continuous machinery murmur and bounding peripheral pulses are detected. An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular enlargement and a shunt between two of the great vessels, indicating a possible patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What non-surgical intervention can be utilized to manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      To promote duct closure in patent ductus arteriosus, indomethacin or ibuprofen is used.

      The incomplete closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth is known as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is causing the patient’s symptoms. During fetal development, this vessel allows blood to bypass the immature fetal lungs. However, if the duct remains open after birth, a large amount of blood can bypass the functioning lungs, resulting in reduced oxygen saturation and a murmur.

      Prostaglandin E2 maintains the ductus arteriosus, so medications like indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, can be effective in closing the duct. However, in some cases, surgery may be necessary to close particularly large PDAs.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to orthopaedics

      Correct Answer: Refer for same-day assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.

      Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.

      Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.

      It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling asleep at night caused by an itchy bottom. She is an active and healthy child who attends school regularly and enjoys playing with friends in the park. She has received all her vaccinations up to date. What is the recommended first-line treatment for her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nystatin

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      Mebendazole is the recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infestations. This particular case presents with typical symptoms of a threadworm infection, which is a common helminth in children. The infection is usually acquired through the ingestion of eggs found in the environment, often from touching soil and then putting hands in the mouth. While the infection is often asymptomatic, it can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is often made empirically, and treatment typically involves hygiene recommendations and mebendazole.

      Diethylcarbamazine is an anti-helminthic medication used to treat filarial infections, such as those caused by Wuchereria bancrofti (which can lead to elephantiasis) and Toxocara canis (which can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas).

      Ivermectin is another antiparasitic drug, but it is used to treat Strongyloides stercoralis infections, which can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae.

      Metronidazole, on the other hand, is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, such as gingivitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis. It is not effective in treating threadworms.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - During your ward round on the paediatric unit you review a 7-year-old African...

    Incorrect

    • During your ward round on the paediatric unit you review a 7-year-old African American male who has been admitted for chemotherapy as he has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). His father anxiously asks you what his chance of survival is and how you determine this.

      Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you notice that he is on the 10th percentile for weight and the 25th percentile for height. His white cell count at diagnosis was 15 * 10^9/l and there were no noted T or B cell markers on his blood film.

      What is the poor prognostic factor in this case?

      Your Answer: White cell count over 11 * 10^9/l at diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Male sex

      Explanation:

      Male gender is identified as a negative prognostic factor, while being Caucasian does not have a significant impact on prognosis. Other factors that may indicate a poor prognosis include presenting with the disease either less than two years or more than ten years after onset, having B or T cell surface markers, and having a white blood cell count greater than 20 billion per liter at the time of diagnosis.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - You are requested to assess a neonate who is 2 hours old in...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a neonate who is 2 hours old in the delivery suite. The baby was delivered through an elective Caesarean section. The mother's antenatal history reveals gestational diabetes. During a heel prick test, the baby's blood glucose level was found to be 2.2 mmol/L. What should be the subsequent course of action in managing the baby?

      Your Answer: Observe and encourage early feeding

      Explanation:

      It is typical for newborns to experience temporary hypoglycaemia during the first few hours after birth. However, infants born to mothers with diabetes (whether gestational or pre-existing) are at a higher risk of developing this condition. This is due to the fact that high blood sugar levels in the mother during labour can trigger the release of insulin in the foetus, and once born, the baby no longer has a constant supply of glucose from the mother.

      Fortunately, in most cases, transient hypoglycaemia does not require any medical intervention and is closely monitored. It is recommended that mothers feed their newborns early and at regular intervals. For babies born to diabetic mothers, a hypoglycaemia protocol will be initiated and discontinued once the infant has at least three blood glucose readings above 2.5 mmol/L and is feeding appropriately.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A five-month-old girl arrives at the emergency department with a 10-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A five-month-old girl arrives at the emergency department with a 10-hour history of fever, vomiting, and irritability. During examination, a bulging anterior fontanelle and reduced tone in all four limbs are observed. The patient's vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate: 40/min, heart rate: 150/min, blood pressure: 75/45 mmHg, and temperature: 39.8ºC. What would be the most suitable initial medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The appropriate initial treatment for meningitis in patients over 3 months of age is intravenous administration of a 3rd generation cephalosporin, specifically ceftriaxone. This is important to consider in patients with non-specific symptoms but concerning observations and examination findings. Intramuscular or oral benzylpenicillin is not the correct choice for initial empirical therapy, as it is reserved for use in the community before transfer to the hospital. Intravenous cephalexin is also not appropriate, as it is a first-generation cephalosporin and is administered orally rather than intravenously.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Sandal gap

      Correct Answer: Rocker-bottom feet

      Explanation:

      Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 days. She has been eating and drinking normally, has no urinary symptoms, and her bowel habits have not changed. She had a mild cold last week, but it has since resolved. Other than this, she is a healthy and happy child. On examination, her abdomen is soft but tender to the touch throughout. Her temperature is 37.5 degrees Celsius. Her chest is clear, and her heart sounds are normal. What is the most probable cause of this girl's abdominal pain?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing abdominal pain after a recent viral illness, which is a common precursor to mesenteric adenitis. However, the child is still able to eat and drink normally, indicating that it is unlikely to be appendicitis. Additionally, the child is passing normal stools, making constipation an unlikely cause. The absence of vomiting also makes gastroenteritis an unlikely diagnosis. While abdominal migraine is a possibility, it is less likely than mesenteric adenitis in this particular case.

      Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 5-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a fever and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a fever and a blotchy rash. According to her mother, the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations. What is the potential complication that this child may face?

      Your Answer: Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia. Other complications of measles include otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles involves rest, fluids, and pain relief. It is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid school or work for at least four days after the rash appears. Mumps can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm and presents with symptoms such as high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands. It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Correct

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements regarding osteosarcoma is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding osteosarcoma is true?

      Your Answer: The average age at diagnosis is 3 months

      Correct Answer: More than 90% of children survive to adulthood

      Explanation:

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who is worried about his child's decreased appetite and mouth ulcers for the past three days. During the examination, a few blisters are observed on the soles of his feet. Vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.8ºC, heart rate of 125/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air.

      The father reports that his child was born at full term through a normal delivery, is following the growth chart appropriately, and has received all the recommended vaccinations. What is the most probable cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie A16

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms are indicative of hand, foot and mouth disease, which is caused by Coxsackie A16. The condition is characterized by mild systemic discomfort, oral ulcers, and vesicles on the palms and soles. It typically resolves on its own within 7 to 10 days, and the child may find relief from any pain by taking over-the-counter analgesics. Over-the-counter oral numbing sprays may also help alleviate sore throat symptoms. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, is associated with a higher fever than what this child is experiencing, as well as some distinct features that can be recalled using the mnemonic ‘CRASH and burn’. These include conjunctivitis (bilateral), non-vesicular rash, cervical adenopathy, swollen strawberry tongue, and hand or foot swelling, along with a fever that lasts for more than 5 days and is very high.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is seen by her general practitioner (GP)....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is seen by her general practitioner (GP). She has been complaining of ear pain for a few days. She has not had any problems with her ears in the past, and her mother has no concerns about her hearing. On examination, she is found to have otitis media with effusion.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days

      Correct Answer: Refer to ear, nose and throat (ENT)

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Media with Effusion in Children with Down Syndrome or Cleft Palate

      Children suspected to have otitis media with effusion (OME) and Down syndrome or cleft palate should be referred for specialist assessment to avoid any delays that may impact their overall development, especially speech development. OME is the presence of fluid in the middle ear space, which can lead to conductive hearing loss and speech delay in some children. While OME can be self-limiting, it can become chronic, and failure of treatment may cause complications, particularly in children with low immunity due to Down syndrome.

      Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days is not recommended for children with Down syndrome or cleft palate. Instead, a period of active observation is recommended for 6-12 weeks, unless a referral is indicated. The use of corticosteroids or decongestants, such as fluticasone or xylometazoline nasal spray, respectively, is not supported by evidence and is not advised by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS).

      In summary, early referral for specialist assessment is crucial for children with Down syndrome or cleft palate suspected to have OME to prevent any delays in their development. Active observation is recommended for other children with OME, and the use of antibiotics, corticosteroids, or decongestants is not supported by evidence and is not advised by NICE CKS.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 10-week-old baby is brought to the Emergency department by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old baby is brought to the Emergency department by her mother. She has been extremely fussy for the past day, crying loudly and not feeding well. During the examination, her temperature is found to be 38.2C and her left tympanic membrane is red and inflamed. The diagnosis is acute otitis media without effusion. What is the most suitable course of action in the emergency department?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 5 day course of amoxicillin and discharge home

      Correct Answer: Admit for immediate paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      The management of an acutely unwell child requires the ability to identify whether the situation is low, medium, or high risk. The child in this scenario has one medium risk factor (poor feeding) and two high risk factors (high pitched cry and temperature greater than 38C in an infant under 3 months old). As per the guidelines, any child with a high risk factor should be urgently referred to the paediatric team for assessment. However, in some cases, a child may have a high risk factor but the diagnosis suggests a less serious outcome. In such situations, clinical judgement can determine the next step in management while still following the guidelines. Despite the child in this scenario having acute otitis media without an effusion, she is very young with multiple risk factors, and therefore, a paediatric referral would be the best course of action.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

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  • Question 19 - Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan report comes back with findings consistent with appendicitis. Her parents do not want her to undergo surgery.

      Sophie appears to be a mature and intelligent young woman and is currently in a stable condition. After extensive discussions with her parents and the surgical team, Sophie expresses her desire to undergo surgery. However, her parents are unhappy with her decision and threaten to sue the hospital if she goes through with the operation.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Obtain written consent for appendicectomy from Jessica and take her to theatre

      Explanation:

      Jessica is deemed to have Gillick competence by the medical team, as she is a bright young woman who has thoroughly discussed the situation and appears to comprehend it. Therefore, she can provide consent for the procedure, even if her parents disagree. As she is stable, written consent should be obtained instead of verbal consent, which could be used in an emergency. It is not advisable to try and persuade her parents of the advantages of surgery, as this could delay her treatment. If Jessica has given her own valid consent, there is no need to wait for her parents’ decision. According to GMC’s 0-18 years guidance, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person for treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, parental consent can be relied upon when a child lacks the capacity to provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old boy has started first grade and is struggling with reading and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has started first grade and is struggling with reading and writing. The teacher has expressed concerns that it may be due to his poor vision as he often squints and complains of headaches. He was a full-term, vaginal delivery infant who had a normal newborn screening, and progressed well throughout infancy on growth charts. He is up-to-date with his immunisations. As part of his school entry, what tests are likely to be conducted to assess the impairment that his teacher is concerned about?

      Your Answer: Distraction testing

      Correct Answer: Pure tone audiometry

      Explanation:

      In most areas of the UK, pure tone audiometry is conducted when children start school, typically at around 3-4 years of age. This test involves the child wearing headphones and indicating when they hear a beep of varying pitch in each ear. However, it can only be administered to children who are able to follow the test instructions.

      For infants who do not pass the otoacoustic emission test, auditory brainstem response testing is performed while they are asleep. This involves placing electrodes on the scalp and headphones over the ears to record the brain’s response to sound.

      Distraction testing is a subjective test used to assess the hearing ability of infants between 6-24 months. The test involves playing sounds of varying loudness and tone to the left and right of the infant to see if they can locate the source of the sound.

      Newborns are typically screened using otoacoustic emission testing, which does not require any cooperation from the infant. The test assesses the cochlea by playing a sound and detecting the echo it produces.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

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  • Question 21 - A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean...

    Incorrect

    • A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?

      Your Answer: subdural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 6-month-old infant, one of twins born at term, presents with central cyanosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant, one of twins born at term, presents with central cyanosis. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

      Correct Answer: Transposition of great arteries

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Diseases and their Association with Cyanosis

      Congenital heart diseases can be classified into cyanotic and acyanotic types. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, which is not associated with cyanosis. On the other hand, tricuspid atresia and transposition of the great arteries are both cyanotic congenital heart diseases that present in the immediate newborn period. Transposition of the great arteries is more common than tricuspid atresia and is therefore more likely to be the cause of cyanosis in newborns.

      It is important to note that some congenital heart diseases involve shunting of blood from the left side of the heart to the right side, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventually causing cyanosis. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are examples of such left-to-right shunts. However, these conditions are not considered cyanotic congenital heart diseases as they do not present with cyanosis in the immediate newborn period.

      In summary, the presence of cyanosis in a newborn can be indicative of a cyanotic congenital heart disease such as tricuspid atresia or transposition of the great arteries. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, while PDA and VSD are left-to-right shunts that do not typically present with cyanosis.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and is worried that she may have passed it on to her children. The father of the children does not have the disease. What is the probability that each of her children has inherited the condition?

      Your Answer: 100% if male and 0% if female

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition, which implies that the patient has one normal and one faulty copy of the gene. The faulty copy is dominant and causes the disease. If an affected patient has a child, the child has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene and developing the condition, and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal gene and not developing the disease.

      Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant comes for a routine antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant comes for a routine antenatal check-up. During her last visit, she was advised to get vaccinated but cannot recall which ones. She has received all her childhood and school vaccinations but has not had any immunizations since becoming pregnant. What vaccines should be offered to her?

      Your Answer: Pertussis and influenzae vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should be offered both influenzae and pertussis vaccines to protect the foetus and prevent the spread of pertussis. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

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  • Question 25 - An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann syndrome

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

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  • Question 26 - A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of...

    Correct

    • A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of jaundice. The mother gave birth at home and has been breastfeeding, but is concerned about the baby's skin color. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Referral for paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Since the infant is just 15 hours old, the jaundice is considered pathological. This implies that it is not related to breastfeeding, and the appropriate course of action would be to promptly seek a paediatric evaluation.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

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  • Question 27 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her cheeks, neck, and trunk. The rash does not appear on her palms. The texture of the rash is rough and it appears red. The child's mother reports that she has been experiencing a sore throat for the past 48 hours. The child has no known allergies. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Calamine lotion and school exclusion until scabs have crusted over

      Correct Answer: Oral penicillin V for 10 days and he is safe to return to school after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for scarlet fever in patients who do not require hospitalization and have no penicillin allergy is a 10-day course of oral penicillin V. Patients should also be advised not to return to school until at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is characterized by a red, rough, sandpaper-textured rash with deep red linear appearance in skin folds and sparing of the palms and soles. Calamine lotion and school exclusion until scabs have crusted over is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for chicken pox. High-dose aspirin is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for Kawasaki disease. No medication is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, as it is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotic therapy. Oral acyclovir for 10 days is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for shingles caused by herpes varicella zoster virus.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
      On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
      A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
      White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film thrombocytopenia
      Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.

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  • Question 29 - A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father. He noticed this morning that she was very drowsy and not feeding very much. When he measured her temperature it was 38.5ºC. She was born at 37 weeks gestation with an uncomplicated delivery. There is no past medical history or family history and she does not require any regular medications.

      On examination she is lethargic but responds to voice by opening her eyes. She is mildly hypotonic and febrile. There is a non-blanching rash on her torso that her father says was not there this morning.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone + IV amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: IV amoxicillin + IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms

      Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

      Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

      Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.3
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