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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man was brought into the Emergency Department with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man was brought into the Emergency Department with sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 20 min. The pain was constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing. On examination, the patient was in shock, with a palpable 8-cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. His past medical history includes a 6-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed 2 years ago at the time of cholecystectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks 2 pints of beer a week.
      Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain

      When a patient presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This is especially true if there is associated shock and a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium. Blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space, causing severe back pain, before blowing out into the peritoneal cavity. Acute cholecystitis is unlikely if the patient has had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may present with epigastric pain, but this patient does not have other symptoms consistent with the condition. Herniated lumbar disc pain is usually worsened by coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, which is not the case here. Aortic dissection could present similarly, but given the known history of a large aortic aneurysm, a rupture is more likely. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible diagnoses and take appropriate action to manage the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain came on suddenly. Examination of the abdomen reveals a central mass. You note that he has become clinically shocked.
      He has a blood pressure of 76/45, heart rate 150, respiratory rate 28.
      Which of these is the most important step in the definitive management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administer blood transfusion

      Correct Answer: Arrange for surgery

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of a Ruptured Aortic Aneurysm

      When a patient presents with symptoms of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate action is necessary to save their life. The first step is to prepare the patient for surgery by informing the theatre, a vascular surgeon, and an anaesthetist. Without surgery, the mortality rate for a ruptured aneurysm is 100%. During surgery, a Dacron graft is inserted after clamping the aorta above the rupture.

      While waiting for surgery, a blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood. However, surgery is the definitive treatment. It is also important to crossmatch blood and transfuse as needed.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan may be useful in diagnosing the condition, but it should not be performed until the patient is haemodynamically stable. In the meantime, obtaining an amylase level is necessary to rule out acute pancreatitis, although the presence of a mass suggests an aneurysm.

      In summary, emergency management of a ruptured aortic aneurysm requires prompt action to prepare the patient for surgery, administer blood transfusions, and obtain necessary diagnostic tests. Without immediate intervention, the patient’s life is at risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for her varicose veins in the distribution of the long and short saphenous veins. She experienced difficulty walking after the surgery because she could not dorsiflex or evert her foot. The surgeon had warned her beforehand that nerve damage was a possibility.
      What nerve was affected during the patient's varicose vein surgery?

      Your Answer: Medial plantar nerve

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Foot Drop: Common Peroneal Nerve Damage

      Foot drop, the inability to dorsiflex the foot, is often caused by damage to the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is commonly damaged during varicose vein surgery when the short saphenous vein is avulsed around the head and neck of the fibula. The nerve divides to innervate the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, and paralysis of these compartments causes foot drop. Patients compensate for the loss of dorsiflexion by adopting a high-stepping gait, resulting in a loud slap with each step. Other nerves, such as the sciatic, medial plantar, lateral plantar, and tibial nerves, may cause different symptoms and pain locations. Understanding the specific nerve damage is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 4 - A 43-year-old man presents with intermittent claudication. He has a body mass index...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents with intermittent claudication. He has a body mass index of 32 kg/m2 and smokes 40 cigarettes a day. He admits that he has an extremely unhealthy diet. There is no family history of cardiovascular disease but his father died of complications of diabetes. His blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg.
      What is the most likely cause of the claudication?

      Your Answer: Atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Atherosclerosis, a disease commonly associated with the elderly, is now being observed in younger patients. This patient exhibits all the risk factors for atherosclerosis, which is the leading cause of intermittent claudication. While diabetes is not a direct cause of limb ischaemia, it is a risk factor for atherosclerosis, which this patient may have. Buerger’s disease, an arthritis that affects young male smokers, is rare and unlikely in this patient who is obese, hypertensive, and has a family history of diabetes. Coarctation of the aorta, which is characterized by hypertension and radiofemoral delay, should be considered in young patients with intermittent claudication, but there are no other signs in this patient. Takayasu’s disease, a rare arthritis that causes claudication and neurological signs, is more common in women and often presents with pulseless upper limbs due to arterial occlusion caused by intimal fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with severe back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with severe back pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He is an ex-smoker with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and has undergone multiple surgeries for Crohn's disease in the past. An urgent abdominal ultrasound is ordered, which reveals a 5.1 cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Emergency endovascular repair of the aneurysm

      Correct Answer: Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Options for Treating an Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm in a Symptomatic Patient

      When faced with an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) in a symptomatic patient, there are several treatment options to consider. In this case, the aneurysm is located infra-renally and is not large enough to warrant surgical intervention based on size alone. However, the patient’s symptoms require action.

      Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm is the best option in this scenario. The patient can be sent home with analgesia and scheduled for endovascular repair in approximately one week. This approach is particularly suitable for patients over 70 years old, who tend to have better outcomes with endovascular repair than with open surgery. Additionally, the patient’s history of Crohn’s surgery puts them at risk for abdominal adhesions, which could complicate open surgery.

      Emergency repair of the aneurysm, whether endovascular or open, is generally not recommended in this case since the aneurysm has not ruptured. Monitoring the aneurysm with ultrasound scans at 3-monthly intervals is a reasonable option for asymptomatic patients, but surgical intervention is necessary for symptomatic patients.

      Overall, elective endovascular repair is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient’s unruptured AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 6 - An 84-year-old woman presents with intermittent claudication.
    Which investigation will be most useful in...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman presents with intermittent claudication.
      Which investigation will be most useful in determining whether she is a suitable candidate for bypass surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digital subtraction arteriography

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Investigations for Vascular Surgery

      Before undergoing vascular surgery, patients may need to undergo several preoperative investigations to assess their condition and determine the best course of treatment. These investigations include digital subtraction arteriography, urea and electrolyte testing, ankle-brachial pressure index measurement, and electrocardiogram (ECG) testing.

      Digital Subtraction Arteriography
      Digital subtraction arteriography is a type of angiography that uses an iodine-based dye to compare images before and after injection. This investigation is important to assess the patient’s run-off, or the adequacy of blood supply to distal arteries. Patients with poor run-off may not be good candidates for bypass surgery.

      Urea and Electrolytes
      Urea and electrolyte testing is particularly important for patients with hypertension, diabetes, and a history of renal disease. These tests can help assess the patient’s kidney function and electrolyte balance.

      Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index
      The ankle-brachial pressure index is a non-invasive test that measures the blood pressure in the ankle and compares it to the blood pressure in the arm. This test can provide an early indication of the severity of the patient’s ischaemia, or reduced blood flow. A value of 0.9-1.2 is considered normal, while values below 0.3 indicate critical ischaemia.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG)
      An ECG is a non-invasive test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. It is mandatory for all patients over 60 years of age undergoing surgery of any kind. This test can help identify any underlying heart conditions that may affect the patient’s ability to undergo surgery.

      Contrast Arteriography
      If digital subtraction arteriography is not available, contrast arteriography may be used to assess the patient’s blood vessels. This test involves injecting a contrast dye into the blood vessels and taking X-ray images to visualize the blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 7 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe pain in his left leg, below the knee. This pain came on suddenly an hour ago, after walking to his bathroom. He knows that he gets claudication on walking over 250 metres, and is unsure if this pain is the same. His medical history includes hypertension, controlled with amlodipine 5 mg od. On examination, his left leg below the knee is pale, cold and numb, with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, but present pulses on his right leg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Embolectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Limb Ischaemia: Embolectomy and Thrombolysis

      Acute limb ischaemia can be caused by either an embolus or a thrombosis. The diagnosis is clinical and can be remembered using the 6Ps: Pale, Pulseless, Paraesthesia, Pain, Paralysis, and Perishingly cold. In the case of an embolic cause, urgent embolectomy using a Fogarty catheter to retrieve the clot is the appropriate treatment. Post-embolectomy, patients should be anticoagulated with IV heparin and then switched over to warfarin.

      Thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment if the ischaemia is caused by a thrombosis. However, based on the clinical history, if the patient has an embolic cause, thrombolysis is not recommended. Thrombosis tends to present over hours to days, with a history of claudication and is less severe as collateral blood supply develops. Contralateral pulses tend to be absent.

      Amputation below the right knee is an effective treatment but should only be considered by experienced consultants as it will have serious long-term implications for patients. Because the man has presented relatively quickly, it is unlikely that amputation will be required.

      High dose warfarin is not a treatment for acute limb ischaemia. The clot needs to be removed.

      Angiography is not performed when complete occlusion is suggested by the clinical picture, as it introduces a delay in revascularisation. In an incomplete occlusion, angiography is used to place stents to open the vessels.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for acute limb ischaemia caused by an embolus is embolectomy, while thrombolysis is the appropriate treatment for ischaemia caused by a thrombosis. Amputation should only be considered as a last resort, and high dose warfarin is not a treatment option. Angiography and stenting are only used in cases of incomplete occlusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is being evaluated in the Emergency Department after a car accident at high speed. He has several fractures in his lower limbs and a posterior dislocation of his right hip. The doctor examining him wants to determine if he has any vascular damage. He starts by checking the pulses in his limbs.
      What is accurate about arteries in the lower limbs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior tibial artery lies between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the anterior compartment of the leg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lower Limb Pulse Points and Arteries

      The lower limb has several pulse points that are commonly examined. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid-inguinal point, while the popliteal artery can be felt in the popliteal fossa with the knee in semi-flexion. The posterior tibial pulse is best appreciated below the medial malleolus, and the dorsalis pedis pulse is typically palpable between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus medially and the extensor digitorum laterally on the dorsum of the foot.

      It’s important to note that the dorsalis pedis pulse is only palpable medial to the tendon of the extensor hallucis longus. Additionally, the anterior tibial artery lies on the tibia between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus in the lower anterior compartment of the leg, and the dorsalis pedis artery is a terminal branch of the anterior tibial artery.

      Lastly, the fibular (peroneal) artery is not a direct branch of the popliteal artery. Instead, it is a branch of the tibioperoneal trunk, which is a branch of the popliteal arch. Understanding these pulse points and arteries can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of lower limb conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a burning sensation in her legs. She reports that her legs are very sore and uncomfortable. Upon examination, there is a hard, tender, bulging of veins in both her thighs and the calf region, with hyperpigmentation and eczema of both the legs and an ulcer over the medial malleolus. What would prevent radiofrequency ablation from being performed as an initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Interventional Treatment for Varicose Veins and Associated Complications

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, interventional treatment for varicose veins during pregnancy is not recommended. However, compression hosiery can be used to alleviate leg swelling symptoms.

      Eczema of the lower limbs in varicose veins may indicate chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.

      Hard, painful veins are a sign of superficial venous thrombosis, a complication of varicose veins. Immediate intervention is required if there is evidence of this condition.

      Hyperpigmentation of the lower limbs in varicose veins also suggests chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, radiofrequency ablation is indicated.

      An ulcer over the medial malleolus, particularly a chronic, non-healing ulcer in varicose veins, is a strong indication of chronic venous insufficiency. If eczema, non-healing leg ulcers, or hyperpigmentation are present, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
      Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger’s disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (1/5) 20%
Passmed