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  • Question 1 - Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Peroxisome

      Correct Answer: Proteasome

      Explanation:

      Delivery of ubiquitinated substrates to the proteasome.
      Ubiquitinated proteins are delivered to the proteasome by various routes and the complete picture of how these pathways fit together has yet to emerge, reviewed in. Some substrates bind directly to the proteasome by interacting with the 19S regulatory particle subunits Rpn1028 or Rpn1329, and probably Rpt530. Alternatively, ubiquitinated substrates can be brought to the proteasome by adaptors that bind both the proteasome and the ubiquitin chain on the substrate to deliver it for degradation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.

      MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.
      Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state.
      Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.

      Treatment of MDMA overdose:
      Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.
      Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.
      For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.
      Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube.
      Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents with a three month history of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss. She has tried excluding gluten from her diet for the past 4 weeks and feels much better. She requests to be tested so that a diagnosis of coeliac disease can be confirmed. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Check anti-endomysial antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      The patient likely has celiac’s disease, but if she has been avoiding gluten, a biopsy may be negative. Even though a biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis, she will need to re-introduce gluten into her diet prior to undergoing the biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 44-year-old hairdresser with a history of myasthenia gravis is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old hairdresser with a history of myasthenia gravis is admitted to the Emergency Department. She is currently taking pyridostigmine, but there has been a significant worsening of her symptoms following antibiotic treatment for a chest infection. On examination she is dyspnoeic and cyanotic with quiet breath sounds in both lungs. Other than respiratory support, what are the two other treatments of choice?

      Your Answer: Plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This patient is having a myasthenic crisis. Opinions vary as to whether plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins should be given first-line. Plasmapheresis usually works much faster, but is more costly due to equipment.
      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder resulting in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors are seen in 85-90% of cases. Myasthenia gravis is more common in women (2:1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar disorder is placed on Lithium. How often should his Lithium levels be checked once a stable dose has been achieved?

      Your Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Lithium acts by:
      – I inhibiting postsynaptic D2 receptor super sensitivity
      – Altering cation transport in nerve and muscle cells and influencing reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
      – Inhibiting phosphatidylinositol cycle second messenger systems

      The NICE guidelines for depression and bipolar disorder both recommend Lithium as an effective treatment; patients who take lithium should have regular blood tests to monitor the amount of lithium in their blood (every 3 months), and to make sure the lithium has not caused any problems with their kidneys or thyroid (every 6 months).

      Lithium adverse effects include:
      – Leucocytosis (most patients) which is when the white cells are above the normal range in the blood.
      – Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      – Dry mouth (20-50%)
      – Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Confusion (40%)
      – Decreased memory (40%)
      – Headache (40%)
      – Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      – Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      – Hyperreflexia (15%)
      – Muscle twitch (15%)
      – Vertigo (15%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards between his scapulae. He didn't have difficulty in breathing and the pain wasn't exacerbated by deep inspiration or a change in position. His father had died due to a heart disease when he was small. He also has a cardiac murmur which was never properly investigated. On examination he was tachycardic with a BP of 165/60 mmHg. There was a diastolic murmur at lower left sternal border which is best heard with the patient sitting forward. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his chest pain?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Marfan’s syndrome because of a family history of cardiac death and heart murmurs. A characteristic feature is pain which radiates to the back. A wide pulse pressure and a diastolic heart murmur is suggestive of aortic dissection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      70.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, watering eye, complaining of a severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a red, watering eye, complaining of a severe left sided headache and vision distortion with coloured haloes. What would be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Measure Intraocular pressure

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma can manifests itself with severe headache, nausea or vomiting, very blurry or hazy vision, seeing rainbows or halos around lights and redness in the white part of the affected eye. It is caused by a rapid or sudden increase in pressure inside the eye – intraocular pressure (IOP). In order to establish the diagnosis and start treatment immediately, IOP should first be measured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days. On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal: FBC: Normal U&E: Normal Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6) Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence: ...

    Incorrect

    • Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence:

      Your Answer: IIb

      Correct Answer: Ib

      Explanation:

      1B: Individual Randomised Control Trial (with narrow confidence intervals)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of palpitations, which are fast and regular. She doesn't complain of any episodes of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECH showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected because of the  physiological changes which occur in the boy during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness and lethargy. Admission bloods show the following: Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 6.6 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, An ECG is done which shows no acute changes. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to lower the serum potassium level?

      Your Answer: Insulin/dextrose infusion

      Explanation:

      Insulin/dextrose infusion will increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cells, which will in turn decrease serum potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering...

    Correct

    • Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering from pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 35/min

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score estimates the mortality of community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment.
      Select Criteria:
      Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) The CURB-65 scores range from 0 to 5. Clinical management decisions can be made based on the score:
      Score Risk Disposition
      0 or 1 – 1.5% mortality – Outpatient care
      2 – 9.2% mortality – Inpatient vs. observation admission
      ≥ 3 – 22% mortality – Inpatient admission with consideration for ICU admission with score of 4 or 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month...

    Correct

    • A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month history of progressive weakness and shortness of breath. He finds it difficult to stand from sitting, and struggles climbing stairs. He is an ex-smoker with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He had a recent exacerbation one month ago for which he was treated by the GP with a course of oral prednisolone, during which time his weakness transiently improved. On examination, you note a left-sided monophonic wheeze and reduced breath sounds at the left lung base. Blood tests and a chest x-ray are requested. Hb 145 g/L WCC10.5 109/L, Na+136 mmol/L, K+ 4.3 mmol/L, Urea 6.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 93 mmol/L, Calcium 2.62 mmol/L, Phosphate 1.44 mmol/L, Chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lungs, left lower lobe collapse and a bulky left hilum What is the most likely cause of this patient's weakness?

      Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Explanation:

      This man has a small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and associated Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – a well-recognized paraneoplastic manifestation of SCLC. This classically affects the proximal muscles, especially in the legs, causing difficulty in standing from a seated position and climbing stairs. In contrast to myasthenia gravis, eye involvement is uncommon. Treatment with steroids is often helpful, which explains his transient symptomatic improvement during treatment for his COPD exacerbation. Steroid myopathy does not fit as the symptoms started well before his course of prednisolone. Although the patient is mildly hypercalcaemic, this would not be sufficient to produce his presenting symptoms, although it does reinforce the suspicion of lung malignancy. Motor neurone disease would be unlikely in this context and would not improve with steroids. Myasthenia gravis could produce these symptoms, but in the context of a new lung mass is a less viable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      69.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily diarrhoea and malaise. Blood testing reveals folate and iron deficiency. There is also mild hypocalcaemia on biochemistry screening. She has type-1 diabetes of 10 years’ duration and is stable on a basal bolus insulin regime, otherwise her past medical history is unremarkable. Which of these antibody tests is most specific for making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of celiac disease as an aetiology. The antibody that is used primarily to suggest this diagnosis is anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. You can also check anti-gliadin and anti-endomyseal antibodies, although anti-TTG antibodies are now the preferred test. To get an official diagnosis you must have a tissue diagnosis (biopsy). Anti-smooth muscle antibodies would be seen in autoimmune hepatitis. Anti-thyroid antibodies are not at all related to this, and are associated with thyroid. Anti-nuclear antibodies are non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a...

    Correct

    • Which is the best source of vitamin D per average serving for a woman with suspected Osteomalacia?

      Your Answer: Cod liver oil

      Explanation:

      Serum vitamin D levels are influenced by sun exposure and diet. Cod liver oil is an important dietary vitamin D source in high-latitude countries like Norway where there is no sun-induced vitamin D production during the winter. 14 Norwegian Health Authorities have recommended 5 ml of cod liver oil daily (400 IU of vitamin D) for more than 60 years to prevent diseases like rickets, formerly more prevalent in areas with little access to vitamin D-rich fatty fish.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed...

    Correct

    • A 36 year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of headache which progressed to him collapsing. Upon arrival in A&E, he has a heart rate of 76 bpm, blood pressure 220/140, and Glasgow Coma Score of 9 (E2, M5, V2). Which of the following should be done immediately?

      Your Answer: Give high flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask

      Explanation:

      This man is likely suffering from a subarachnoid haemorrhage or intracerebral bleed. The priority is to prevent a secondary brain injury. Important first steps include ensuring a secure airway, normalizing cardiovascular function, and treating seizures. His airway is likely to be protected with a GCS of 9, although he may benefit from a nasal or oral airway, and close attention should be paid to his airway if going for a CT scan. He should receive high flow oxygen and his blood pressure should not be treated acutely, as i is often appropriate to compensate for a rise in intracranial pressure. Nimodipine should be given if a subarachnoid haemorrhage is proven. Attention should also be given to maintaining a normal blood sugar, as hyperglycaemia worsens outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
      – Psoriasis
      – Atopic eczema
      – Erythema multiforme
      – Seborrheic dermatitis
      – Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
      – Mycosis fungoides
      – Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
      – Porphyria cutanea tarda
      Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
      – Systemic lupus erythematosus
      – Sjögren’s syndrome
      – Sinear Usher syndrome
      – Rosacea
      – Dermatomyositis
      – Darier’s disease
      – Kindler-Weary syndrome
      Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years,...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Choose the correct statement regarding interferon: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:

      Your Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old soldier presented with a painless, erythematous crusted plaque over the dorsum of his hand, after serving in a hilly area of Columbia for 2 months. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      The chief presentation in Leishmaniasis is a non healing, ulcerated, painless and non pruritic plaque, which does not respond to oral antibiotics. It can be classified into cutaneous and visceral forms and is caused by the sand fly. It is more prevalent in the hilly areas. Fusobacterium causes a tropical ulcer which is painful and shallow, while Troanasomiasis causes sleeping sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following: Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L, Urea 10.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 176 µmol/L, Hb 10.4 g/dL, MCV 90 fl Plt 91 * 109/L, WBC 14.4 * 109/L, Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her left arm. This came on suddenly during a migrainous attack while out shopping. The paraesthesia appeared to effect the entire left arm and in the last few hours, has spread to involve the left side of the face. She had had a similar episode several months ago whereby she developed some right-sided leg and arm weakness while at work. The weakness lasted several minutes and subsequently abated. At the time, she was also having one of her migraines. She has a long-standing history of migraines, which typically start with a prolonged aura and fortification spectra. Other then migraines, for which she has been taking pizotifen, she has no other past medical history. Her sister also suffers from migraines, and her mother has a history of dementia in her 50s. She is a non-smoker and drinks minimal alcohol. On examination she was orientated but apathetic. Her blood pressure was 130/65 mmHg, pulse 62/min, and temperature 36.2ºC. There were no carotid bruits and heart sounds were entirely normal. There was reduced sensation to all modalities over the left side of the face extending to the vertex and the entire left arm. Tone and reflexes appeared intact; however, handgrip was reduced on the left due to numbness. The lower limb appeared entirely normal. Magnetic resonance (MR) scan showed bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery ) hyperintensities in the deep white matter. MR Spinal cord was normal. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial disease (MELAS)

      Correct Answer: CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

      Explanation:

      CADASIL is the most common form of hereditary stroke disorder. This case has a strong history of migraine with aura with stroke-like episodes, characteristic of CADASIL. Additionally, there is positive family history of migraine and early dementia but no other vascular risk factors like hypertension, diabetes, or hypercholesterolaemia, which all confirm the suspicion of CADASIL, an arteriopathy where there is thickening of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      148.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back.   Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3).   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type I

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Correct

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.   Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 80 year old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium....

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is accompanied by her daughter who noticed the acute change. The patient has had a nagging cough with purulent sputum and haemoptysis for the last few days. Previous history includes a visit to her GP two weeks back because of influenza. On examination, the patient appears markedly agitated with a respiratory rate of 35/min. Blood gases reveal that she is hypoxic. White blood cell count is 20 x 109/l, and creatinine is 250mmol/l. Chest X-ray is notable for patchy areas of consolidation, necrosis and empyema formation. Which of the following lead to the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Though a common community pathogen, Staphylococcus Aureas is found twice as frequently in pneumonias in hospitalized patients. It often attacks the elderly and patients with CF and arises as a co-infection with influenza viral pneumonia. The clinical course is characterized by high fevers, chills, a cough with purulent bloody sputum, and rapidly progressing dyspnoea. The gross pathology commonly reveals an acute bronchopneumonia pattern that may evolve into a necrotizing cavity with congested lungs and airways that contain a bloody fluid and thick mucoid secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23 year old male medical student presents to the A&E department with...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest pain. He does not have productive cough nor is he experiencing shortness of breath. He has no past medical history. A chest x-ray which was done shows a right-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air and no mediastinal shift. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Discharge with outpatient chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity (called the pleural space) that can result in the partial or complete collapse of a lung. This type of pneumothorax is described as primary because it occurs in the absence of lung disease such as emphysema. Spontaneous means the pneumothorax was not caused by an injury such as a rib fracture. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is likely due to the formation of small sacs of air (blebs) in lung tissue that rupture, causing air to leak into the pleural space. Air in the pleural space creates pressure on the lung and can lead to its collapse. A person with this condition may feel chest pain on the side of the collapsed lung and shortness of breath. Patients are typically aged 18-40 years, tall, thin, and, often, are smokers.

      In small pneumothoraxes with minimal symptoms, no active treatment is required. These patients can be safely discharged with early outpatient review and should be given written advice to return if breathlessness worsens. Patients who have been discharged without intervention should be advised that air travel should be avoided until a radiograph has confirmed resolution of the pneumothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?

      Your Answer: 40% of normal

      Explanation:

      Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.

      Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
      The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
      •PiMM: 100% (normal)
      •PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
      •PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
      •PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
      •PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 mg

      Explanation:

      1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

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