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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old woman is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit after being diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit after being diagnosed with an inferior myocardial infarction. On day 2, she complains of sudden onset of severe pain in her left leg that started 30 minutes ago and is increasing in intensity. She has never had this kind of pain before and, prior to this admission, claims to have been extraordinarily well for her age. On examination, the leg is cool and pale in comparison to the right leg. Femoral pulses are present and of good volume; however, the pulse rhythm is noted to be irregular. The pulses in her right leg are all palpable. There are no pulses felt below the groin on the left leg.
      Select the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Acute ischaemic limb due to an embolus from a proximal site

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Limb Ischaemia

      Acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. There are several possible causes of this condition, including embolism from a proximal site, muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy, chronic ischaemic limb, acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque, and extensive deep vein thrombosis.

      The most common cause of acute limb ischaemia is embolism from a proximal site. This occurs when a clot forms in the heart or a blood vessel and travels down to block a smaller artery in the leg. The classical symptoms of acute limb ischaemia are known as the 6 Ps, which include sudden onset of severe pain, absence of pulses, paraesthesiae, paralysis, pain on passive movement, and a pale, cold limb. Urgent referral to vascular surgeons is required, and angiography should be performed to determine the site and extent of the obstruction. If the limb is threatened by severe ischaemia, urgent revascularisation within 4 hours is necessary.

      Muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy is another possible cause of limb ischaemia, but it would not present with sudden-onset pain and absence of pulses. Chronic limb ischaemia would not present with sudden-onset severe pain either. Acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque typically gives a more gradual onset of increasing pain and may be preceded by a history of intermittent claudication. Finally, extensive deep vein thrombosis would cause a warm, swollen limb with pulses present.

      In conclusion, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The underlying cause of the condition will determine the appropriate management, and urgent referral to vascular surgeons is necessary in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 2 - A patient with risk factors for atherosclerosis presents with pain (even when resting)...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with risk factors for atherosclerosis presents with pain (even when resting) in the leg.
      About which sign or symptom are you most concerned in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Pulseless limb

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesiae

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Six Ps of Limb Ischaemia

      Limb ischaemia is a serious condition that can lead to the loss of a limb if not treated promptly. To diagnose acute limb ischaemia, doctors look for the six Ps: pain, paraesthesiae, paralysis, pulselessness, pallor, and coldness. Of these, paraesthesiae and paralysis are the most concerning, as they indicate that the limb is at risk of being lost within 24 hours without intervention.

      It’s important to note that pulselessness, pain, pallor, and coldness are also symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, but they don’t necessarily indicate the severity of the condition. For example, a patient may have a pulseless limb but still have time to save the limb with proper treatment. Similarly, a patient may experience pain, pallor, or coldness, but these symptoms alone don’t necessarily mean that the limb is in immediate danger.

      In summary, understanding the six Ps of limb ischaemia is crucial for diagnosing and treating this serious condition. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, seek medical attention immediately to prevent the loss of the limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old woman without significant medical history experiences a paradoxical embolic stroke after...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman without significant medical history experiences a paradoxical embolic stroke after developing a deep vein thrombosis.
      What embryological issue is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Correct Answer: Patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects and Their Risks

      Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the heart’s structure that are present at birth. These defects can cause serious health problems and even death if left untreated. Here are some common congenital heart defects and their associated risks:

      Patent Foramen Ovale: This defect occurs when the septum primum and secundum fail to fuse, resulting in a hole in the heart. This can lead to paradoxical emboli, where venous thrombosis enter the systemic circulation and cause serious health problems.

      Tetralogy of Fallot: This is a form of congenital cyanotic heart disease that can cause premature cardiac failure and death if not surgically corrected in childhood.

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: This defect is a common cause of premature aortic stenosis, but it cannot cause a venous thrombosis to enter the systemic circulation.

      Transposition of the Great Arteries: This is another form of congenital cyanotic heart disease that can cause premature cardiorespiratory failure and death if not surgically corrected in childhood.

      Tricuspid Atresia: This defect results in a hypoplastic right ventricle and requires both an atrial and ventricular septal defect to allow pulmonary and systemic blood flow. It must be corrected in childhood to prevent death.

      It is important to diagnose and treat congenital heart defects early to prevent serious health problems and premature death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided swelling in his right leg. He reports that this is more noticeable in the evenings. During clinical examination, the right leg is swollen, but there is no redness or excessive warmth upon touch. He is in good health otherwise. He had undergone surgery in the past to treat prostate cancer.

      What is the initial investigation that should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Lymphoscintigram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Lymphoedema: Choosing the Right One

      Lymphoedema is a condition characterized by swelling in the limbs due to the accumulation of lymphatic fluid. While clinical examination can often diagnose lymphoedema, further investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other possible causes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be requested and their relevance in diagnosing lymphoedema:

      Lymphoscintigram: This is the first-line investigation to confirm lymphoedema. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the affected limb and then imaging the lymphatic system to assess the flow of lymphatic fluid.

      Blood smear: A blood smear may be requested if filariasis is suspected as a cause of lymphoedema. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of microfilariae, which are the larvae of filarial worms.

      Computed tomography (CT) scan: CT scans are less useful in evaluating lymphoedema as they do not provide specific information about soft tissues.

      Genetic testing: Genetic testing is useful in diagnosing primary lymphoedema, which can be caused by genetic mutations. However, it is less likely to be relevant in cases of secondary lymphoedema, which is more commonly caused by surgery, infection, or trauma.

      Ultrasound: While not useful in diagnosing lymphoedema, ultrasound may be helpful in ruling out other possible causes of limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis.

      In summary, the choice of diagnostic test for lymphoedema depends on the suspected cause and the clinical presentation of the patient. A lymphoscintigram is the most useful test for confirming lymphoedema, while other tests may be requested to rule out other possible causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
      Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Buerger’s disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which his general practitioner could find no reason. After your assessment, you organise an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to rule out any pathology and incidentally find out that the patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      Which statement best applies to an AAA?

      Your Answer: Patients presenting with a leak should be taken to theatre immediately without assessment by computed tomography (CT) scan

      Correct Answer: Surveillance is carried out with CT scanning or ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Diagnosis, Monitoring, and Treatment

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious medical condition that require careful monitoring and prompt treatment. Diagnosis is typically done through ultrasound screening, with men being invited for screening during their 65th year. Once an AAA is detected, monitoring is done through CT scanning or ultrasound, with the frequency of scans increasing as the aneurysm grows in size. If a leak is suspected, immediate surgical intervention is necessary, although a CT scan may be performed first to assess the extent of the leak. Surgery is typically done when the aneurysm reaches a diameter of 5.5 cm or greater, with repair options including open surgery with a synthetic graft or endovascular repair. Patients may present with central and upper abdominal pain radiating to their back, and misdiagnosis as renal colic can be fatal. Understanding the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of AAAs is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia

      Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 8 - As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a patient who is experiencing severe abdominal pain. The patient is unable to localise the pain, and reports feeling faint. Upon examination, you observe a pulsatile expansile mass above their umbilicus, along with generalised abdominal tenderness. The patient's blood pressure is 95/51 mmHg, and their pulse is 114 bpm. While awaiting a surgical review, the patient is receiving fluid resuscitation for their low blood pressure. In this scenario, which of the following would provide the most useful information for planning the patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Imaging Options for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Clinical diagnosis may be possible based on the presence of a pulsatile expansile mass and severe shock, but a computerised tomography (CT) scan is needed to assess the dimensions and anatomical relations of the aneurysm. This information is crucial in determining the most suitable type of surgical repair, such as endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).

      X-rays are not useful for visualising soft tissue structures, while intravenous arteriograms are completely inappropriate as the contrast can cause peritonitis and worsen the patient’s condition. Ultrasound scans are good for confirming suspected AAAs in stable patients, but they cannot provide accurate information for surgical planning.

      In summary, a CT scan is the most appropriate imaging option for diagnosing and planning treatment for AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a burning sensation in her legs. She reports that her legs are very sore and uncomfortable. Upon examination, there is a hard, tender, bulging of veins in both her thighs and the calf region, with hyperpigmentation and eczema of both the legs and an ulcer over the medial malleolus. What would prevent radiofrequency ablation from being performed as an initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Interventional Treatment for Varicose Veins and Associated Complications

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, interventional treatment for varicose veins during pregnancy is not recommended. However, compression hosiery can be used to alleviate leg swelling symptoms.

      Eczema of the lower limbs in varicose veins may indicate chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.

      Hard, painful veins are a sign of superficial venous thrombosis, a complication of varicose veins. Immediate intervention is required if there is evidence of this condition.

      Hyperpigmentation of the lower limbs in varicose veins also suggests chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, radiofrequency ablation is indicated.

      An ulcer over the medial malleolus, particularly a chronic, non-healing ulcer in varicose veins, is a strong indication of chronic venous insufficiency. If eczema, non-healing leg ulcers, or hyperpigmentation are present, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’ on her legs. While examining the patient’s legs, you note the presence of tortuous, dilated veins, accompanied by brown patches of pigmentation and dry, scaly plaques of skin. A diagnosis of varicose veins is made.
      Which vein is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Venous System and Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are a common condition that affects the superficial venous system. The long saphenous vein, which ascends the medial side of the leg and passes anteriorly to the medial malleolus of the ankle, is the most common cause of varicose veins. However, insufficiencies in the deep venous system, such as the femoral vein and popliteal vein, can also contribute to chronic venous insufficiency.

      It is important to note that not all superficial veins are affected by varicose veins. The cephalic vein, for example, is an upper limb vein and is not likely to be affected. The short saphenous vein, which ascends the posterior side of the leg and passes posteriorly to the lateral malleolus of the ankle, can also cause varicose veins but is not the most common distribution.

      Understanding the different veins in the venous system and their potential for insufficiency can help in the diagnosis and treatment of varicose veins and other venous conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Vascular (2/6) 33%
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