00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is a smoker but has no history of respiratory disease and regularly plays football. Upon admission, a chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax with a 3 cm rim of air. Aspiration is successful, and he is discharged. Two weeks later, a follow-up chest x-ray shows complete resolution. What is the most crucial advice to minimize his risk of future pneumothoraces?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      For non-smoking men, successful drainage can lead to a decrease in the risk of pneumothorax recurrence. The CAA recommends waiting for 2 weeks after drainage before flying if there is no remaining air. The British Thoracic Society previously advised against air travel for 6 weeks, but now suggests waiting only 1 week after a follow-up x-ray.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      153
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have been asked to advise whether the household contacts of a case...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to advise whether the household contacts of a case of pertussis need further management apart from antibiotics.
      The household consists of the case who is a 2-year-old child, his siblings, who are 4 and 6 (and have had their immunisations to date), parents aged 31 and 33 and grandmother aged 63. There is also a lodger, a student aged 19, who is out of the house for much of the time.
      You are aware that the case and his siblings should all complete their primary immunisation course and preschool boosters as planned. The mother did not receive the vaccine during pregnancy.
      Which of the adults should be offered post-exposure immunisation?

      Your Answer: All of them: the lodger, parents and grandmother

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Immunisation for Pertussis: Guidelines and Recommendations

      According to The Green Book, post-exposure immunisation with pertussis-containing vaccine should be offered to all household contacts over 10 years of age who have not received a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine in the last five years and no Td-IPV vaccine in the preceding month. This is a new recommendation in guidelines published in February 2011. The rationale for this is that the duration of immunity conferred by immunisation is increased by the addition of the preschool booster, which was only introduced in October 2001.

      Children born before November 1996 would have been eligible for only three primary doses of (whole cell) pertussis-containing vaccine during infancy, and immunity is likely to have waned in these individuals. Therefore, contacts over 10 may benefit from a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine. Studies have shown the safety and immunogenicity of a tetanus/low dose diphtheria/low dose acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine in adolescents and adults up to 65.

      It is important to note that all household contacts aged 10-64 should be offered post-exposure immunisation, not just those in closest contact with the case. This includes the lodger, parents, and grandmother in the given scenario. The 6-month-old case should complete their course of primary immunisation and have the preschool booster dose as planned, while the 3- and 5-year-old contacts should complete their normal course of primary vaccination and preschool booster as planned to prolong the duration of immunity.

      In summary, understanding and implementing key national guidelines for respiratory problems, such as post-exposure immunisation for pertussis, is important for healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      79.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old man with hypertension and obesity has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with hypertension and obesity has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnoea after a visit to the sleep clinic. His AHI falls under the mild category with 12 apnoea/hypopnoea events/hour, and his Epworth score indicates mild excessive daytime sleepiness. As a group 1 driver, he is concerned about the impact on his driving and when he should inform the DVLA. When is it necessary to notify the DVLA?

      Your Answer: They do not need to be notified currently as it is mild

      Correct Answer: All stages

      Explanation:

      If a person has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) and is a group 1 driver, they must inform the DVLA if they experience excessive daytime sleepiness (measured by an Epworth score of 11 or higher). However, if the OSA is mild (with an apnoea/hypopnoea index score of 5-15/hour) and doesn’t cause excessive daytime sleepiness, there is no need to notify the DVLA. For those with moderate or severe OSA, the DVLA must be informed and the individual must ensure that their symptoms are under control before driving.

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing frequent episodes of shortness of breath and a productive cough with purulent sputum. What is the most common trigger for these exacerbations?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with increasing fatigue and shortness of breath despite inhaled therapies. She denies chest pain or cough and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. There are no notable occupational exposures. On examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal. Blood tests and chest x-ray are unremarkable, but spirometry reveals the following results:

      FEV1 (L): 3.5 (predicted 4.5)
      FVC (L): 3.8 (predicted 5.4)
      FEV1/FVC (%): 92

      What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mixed obstructive and restrictive lung disease

      Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      173.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.

      What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?

      Your Answer: Three readings should be obtained where two of them are within 5% of each other

      Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded

      Explanation:

      Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers

      To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.

      It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      134.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 40%. He has not sought medical attention for his chest in several years and only uses salbutamol as inhaled therapy. He reports using at least two puffs of salbutamol four times a day, but his breathlessness is limiting his ability to engage in enjoyable activities. Despite his current treatment, he continues to experience persistent breathlessness. He has no history of asthma and is a former smoker. What is the appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Add in a regular inhaled corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Continue the same inhaled treatment but use short courses of oral steroid when he exacerbates

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for suboptimal control in COPD patients

      To determine the appropriate treatment for suboptimal control in COPD patients, it is recommended to consult the NICE guidance on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG115). If a patient has suboptimal control despite using a regular short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA), oral theophylline may be considered at a later stage in the treatment ladder. However, LAMA+LABA should be offered to patients who have spirometrically confirmed COPD, do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness, and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using a short-acting bronchodilator. It is important to note that adding a regular inhaled steroid is not recommended in the treatment ladder as it is inferior to LABA/ICS combination or LAMA. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide optimal treatment for COPD patients with suboptimal control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      169.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is the recommended vaccination protocol for this population?

      Your Answer: Annual influenza + pneumococcal every 5 years

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 63-year-old woman, is seen accompanied by her daughter. Her daughter explains that Sarah lives alone and had problems getting to the clinic without assistance.

      Whilst out running errands together earlier today Sarah briefly passed out with what seems to be a fainting episode. She recovered quickly but her daughter is concerned as Sarah seems to be quite breathless on walking on the flat and has to keep stopping every 50 metres. Her face has also become rather puffy. Sarah has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      On examination you notice prominent veins over the upper chest and her face is mildly oedematous. There is a harsh fixed wheeze in the right upper lung.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital as a medical emergency

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of steroids and review in one day

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Cava Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external venous compression due to a tumour, enlarged lymph nodes, or other enlarged mediastinal structures. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause symptoms of dizziness and even result in syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. The presence of any stridor or laryngeal oedema makes SVCO a medical emergency. Treatment typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      100.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from his records that over the last couple of months, he has had three courses of antibiotics for chest infections. He confirms that despite the recent treatments his symptoms have persisted and he continues to bring up sputum. He tells you that he has come to see you today because over the last week he has felt more unwell with increased shortness of breath, headache and dizziness.

      On examination, he has obvious oedema of the face and upper body with facial plethora. There is marked venous distention affecting the upper chest and face. Soft stridor is audible.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncope, and headache due to pressure effect. This gentleman is an ex-smoker and has a persistent productive cough that has not responded to repeated antibiotic use, which is suspicious of an underlying lung malignancy.

      Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week. He has a history of COPD and smokes around 15 cigarettes a day. He has had a chronic cough for several years, which has not changed in character recently. On chest auscultation, he has reduced air entry throughout, diffuse wheeze, and no focal crepitations. His respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, his temperature is 37.50ºC, and his oxygen saturations are 94% on air. His heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase use of bronchodilator inhaler and prescribe a five day course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be given to patients with acute exacerbation of COPD if they have purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. Since the patient in question doesn’t exhibit any signs of bacterial pneumonia, such as a change in cough or clinical signs of consolidation, NICE recommends a trial of steroids with increased inhaler use as the first line of treatment.

      Based on the information provided, the patient’s observations are reasonable, and hospital admission is not necessary. However, she should be monitored for any deterioration, and a tool like CURB65 can be used to guide decisions regarding hospital admission.

      If there are specific markers of infection clinically, such as focal consolidation or purulent sputum, a combination of amoxicillin and prednisolone may be indicated. It is important for patients with COPD to continue using their inhalers, especially when they are unwell.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as required, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler and breathing out before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. However, he immediately repeats this process for the second dose without taking a break.

      How could he improve his technique?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a hair salon six months ago and has been experiencing an increasing cough and wheeze during the day. She wonders if it could be related to her work as her symptoms improved during a recent two-week vacation to Hawaii. You decide to give her a peak flow meter and the average results are as follows:

      Average peak flow
      Days at work 480 l/min
      Days not at work 600 l/min

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to respiratory

      Explanation:

      Referral to a respiratory specialist is recommended for patients who are suspected to have occupational asthma.

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year old patient with well-controlled asthma presents to his general practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year old patient with well-controlled asthma presents to his general practitioner with a one-week history of a cough productive of green sputum. He is slightly more short of breath than usual but not needing to use any more of his salbutamol. He feels feverish but doesn't describe any chest pains. He takes oral Aminophylline and inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate for his asthma and uses salbutamol as needed. He is allergic to penicillin.

      On examination, he is talking in full sentences and his peak flow is 80% of his predicted. His temperature is 37.8 degrees and oxygen saturations are 98% in air. His pulse is 86 and he has right basal crackles on his chest but no wheeze.

      Which of the following antibiotics would you prescribe for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Process of Elimination in Tricky Questions

      When faced with a tricky question, it is important to stay calm and think through the options. One useful technique is the process of elimination. For example, in a question about the best antibiotic for a patient with a penicillin allergy who is taking aminophylline, you can immediately eliminate options that contain penicillin. Macrolides and ciprofloxacin can interact with aminophylline, increasing its plasma concentration, so you can eliminate those options as well. By process of elimination, you can arrive at the best answer, which in this case is doxycycline. Practicing this approach can help you tackle tricky questions and improve your performance in exams. Remember to take your time, read the question carefully, and eliminate options that do not fit the criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What statement about cough is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement about cough is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis is usually associated with purulent sputum

      Explanation:

      Cough Characteristics and Associated Conditions

      A bovine cough, resembling the sound of cattle, is often heard in cases of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is commonly caused by lung cancer. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by the production of large amounts of purulent sputum. In women, chronic cough without airways disease is more common, and reflux is often the underlying cause. In cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a productive cough is typical, but it may become non-productive in the end stages of the disease. These distinct cough characteristics can provide valuable clues in diagnosing and managing various respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires the use of his salbutamol inhaler three times daily, most days for breathlessness. He could not tolerate a LAMA inhaler due to side effects. His most recent FEV1 was 45% predicted. He stopped smoking several years ago and tries to keep active. He reports no weight loss, no haemoptysis, no leg swelling and is otherwise well. Examination is unremarkable.

      SABA = short-acting beta agonist
      LABA = long-acting beta agonist
      SAMA = short-acting muscarinic antagonist
      LAMA = long-acting muscarinic antagonist
      ICS = inhaled corticosteroid.

      What would be the most appropriate change to his treatment regime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a regular LABA+ICS inhaler

      Explanation:

      Step-Up Treatment for COPD Patients

      When a patient with COPD is only taking salbutamol inhalers and their FEV1 is less than 50%, it may be necessary to step up their treatment. One option is to add a LABA+ICS, which can help improve lung function and reduce symptoms. However, it’s important to note that a LAMA should not be used in combination with an ICS. While adding a regular ICS may be considered in asthma treatment, it is not typically part of the step-up approach for COPD. Additionally, a SAMA can be an alternative to salbutamol inhalers, but it is not intended as a step-up treatment. By carefully considering the best options for each patient, healthcare providers can help manage COPD symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical history would decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral tingling during episodes of dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society, if a patient experiences peripheral tingling, it is less likely that they have asthma. However, the patient’s smoking history doesn’t rule out asthma as a diagnosis, and given his age, it is highly unlikely that he has COPD.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a teenager and has never been suicidal, nor suffered with any other form of mental illness.

      Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in their management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline

      Bupropion and Varenicline are two drugs commonly used for smoking cessation. However, they both have specific contraindications that need to be considered before prescribing them to patients.

      Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, seizures, central nervous system tumors, and acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal. Additionally, certain factors can increase the risk of seizures in patients taking Bupropion, such as the use of medications that lower the seizure threshold, diabetes, alcoholism, history of cranial trauma, and use of stimulants and anorectics.

      On the other hand, Varenicline is listed as a caution rather than a contraindication in patients with a history of mental health problems. While patients with psychiatric illnesses should be closely monitored while taking Varenicline, it is not specifically contraindicated in this population.

      In summary, when considering the contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline, it is important to note that Bupropion is specifically contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, while Varenicline is cautioned in patients with a history of mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

    As per the NICE guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

      As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture

      Explanation:

      Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.

      What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD

      Explanation:

      Spirometry and Management of COPD

      In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.

      What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a follow-up appointment. His FEV1 is 60% of the predicted value. He has successfully quit smoking and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, he still experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing. There is no indication of asthma, eosinophilia, or FEV1 fluctuations.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a combined long-acting beta2-agonist and long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and doesn’t exhibit any features that suggest responsiveness to steroids or asthma, the recommended course of action according to the 2018 NICE guidelines is to introduce a combination of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.

      Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.

      Understanding Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.

      Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.

      Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

      Which symptom according to NICE guidance supports the diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Childhood asthma

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Risk Factors for COPD

      A diagnosis of COPD should be considered in patients who are over 35 years old and have a risk factor, typically smoking. If a patient presents with one or more of the following symptoms, they should be evaluated for COPD: exertional breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, or wheeze. However, chest pain and haemoptysis are uncommon and should lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis. It is important to recognize these symptoms and risk factors in order to diagnose and treat COPD early, which can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old man presents with a three day history of hearing a noise...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a three day history of hearing a noise when he breathes. He has been feeling fatigued and has had a dry cough for a week, but upon further questioning he admits to coughing up blood and losing weight for several months. He is a heavy smoker of over 20 cigarettes per day for 45 years and has COPD with a high degree of reversibility, for which he is taking full doses of his bronchodilator inhalers. Initially, he thought he was developing a throat infection, but now the noise has become quite loud and he is experiencing shortness of breath. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry in the left lung and obvious stridor present. His oxygen saturation on air is 88%. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Understanding Stridor and its Association with Lung Cancer

      Stridor is a respiratory sound characterized by a loud, harsh, and high-pitched noise. It is usually heard during inspiration and is caused by a partial obstruction of the airway, particularly in the trachea, larynx, or pharynx. In severe cases of upper airway obstruction, stridor may also occur during expiration, indicating tracheal or bronchial obstruction within the thoracic cavity.

      Lung cancer is one of the conditions that can cause stridor, particularly small cell carcinomas that grow rapidly and metastasize to mediastinal lymph nodes early in the disease’s course. Patients with lung cancer may present with large intra-thoracic tumors, making it difficult to distinguish the primary tumor from lymph node metastases. The pressure on mediastinal structures can cause various symptoms, including hoarseness, hemi-diaphragm paralysis, dysphagia, and stridor due to compression of the major airways. Understanding the association between stridor and lung cancer can help in the early detection and management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.

      Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.

      On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness

      Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.

      The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.

      Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.

      In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.

      Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath for several months. He has a history of hay fever and eczema. On examination, the patient appears well at rest with normal vital signs. Mild expiratory wheezing is noted, and his peak expiratory flow rate is 85% of predicted. A recent spirometry test was negative.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for this patient is asthma with a mild exacerbation, even if the spirometry test result is negative. Further investigation is necessary, and a fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A FeNO result of >35ppb would be diagnostic for this patient. Another spirometry test is unlikely to provide more clarity. Treatment for this patient includes a salbutamol reliever inhaler and a preventer inhaler. A respiratory referral is not necessary at this time since there are no complications to the diagnosis or treatment. Although the patient is atopic, there are no concerning risk factors in the history or examination that warrant a chest x-ray.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects

      Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.

      While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels

      Explanation:

      According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently only using a short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA). In what situations does NICE recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being woken by asthma symptoms once weekly or more

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommendations for Prescribing Inhaled Corticosteroids in Asthma Patients

      NICE advises prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid in patients with asthma who use an inhaled SABA three times a week or more, experience asthma symptoms three times a week or more, or are woken up by asthma symptoms once a week or more. Additionally, NICE recommends considering an ICS if the patient has had an asthma attack requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. These recommendations aim to improve asthma control and reduce the risk of exacerbations. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that their patients receive appropriate treatment for their asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and two episodes of haemoptysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and two episodes of haemoptysis over the past six weeks. She is an ex-smoker who quit 10 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years. A chest x-ray four weeks ago was normal, but her symptoms have persisted. On examination, she appears well and is not short of breath. Blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse rate is 70 bpm regular, and oxygen saturations are 98% in room air. Lung fields are clear, and there is no cyanosis, anaemia, or peripheral oedema. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital immediately as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Lung Cancer Patients

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines for the recognition and referral of suspected lung cancer patients. According to the guidelines, patients aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred urgently for an appointment within two weeks, even if their chest x-ray is normal. Additionally, patients with two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, or those with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be offered an urgent chest x-ray within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These guidelines aim to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of lung cancer, which is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.

      On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough

      Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has been a publican for 35 years. He is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      He did not worry too much about his symptoms because he is a non-smoker, the amount of blood was very small and he also has a cold with a productive cough.

      He has no abnormality in his chest on examination.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      Lung Cancer and Passive Smoking

      According to NICE NG12 guidelines, individuals with chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or those aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred for an appointment within two weeks. While smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, a small but significant proportion of cases are not linked to smoking. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) evaluates evidence on the carcinogenic risk to humans of various exposures, including tobacco, alcohol, infections, radiation, occupational exposures, and medications. The World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research (WCRF/AICR) evaluates evidence for other exposures, such as diet, overweight and obesity, and physical exercise.

      Living with someone who smokes increases the risk of lung cancer in non-smokers by about a quarter. Exposure to passive smoke in the home is estimated to cause around 11,000 deaths every year in the UK from lung cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease. This patient, who is not a smoker, has worked for many years in an environment where he would have been exposed to significant levels of smoke over a prolonged period (passive smoking), which is a risk factor for lung cancer. It is important to note that the smoking ban in public places was only introduced in the UK over the period 2006 to 2007, so individuals like this patient would have been exposed to passive smoke for many years before this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old female presents with a two month history of malaise and slight...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a two month history of malaise and slight shortness of breath, together with tender erythematous lesions on the fronts of both shins. She is a non-smoker and drinks little alcohol.

      On examination she has erythema nodosum on her shins and some minor wheeze and inspiratory crackles on auscultation of the chest. You arrange some spirometry tests, which reveal a mild restrictive defect.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Erythema Nodosum and Sarcoidosis: An Overview

      Erythema nodosum is a type of inflammation that affects the fat tissue, commonly seen in adult females. It has a higher incidence rate in women, with a female to male ratio of up to three to one. On the other hand, sarcoidosis is a disease that affects multiple systems in the body, characterized by the formation of granulomas. It is more prevalent in adults aged 20-40, with acute cases more common in white patients and chronic cases more common in Afro-Caribbean patients.

      Around 30% to 40% of erythema nodosum cases are associated with sarcoidosis. To confirm the diagnosis, chest x-ray, high-resolution CT, and transbronchial biopsy are the main investigations employed. Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for both erythema nodosum and sarcoidosis. With proper management, patients can achieve a good prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.

      What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She has been experiencing a productive cough for the past 3 days and is coughing up brown-green sputum. She feels feverish and lethargic. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which she has been dealing with for over 30 years. She has been taking etanercept for the past 3 years, and her condition is well controlled.

      During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.5 degrees Celsius, her respiratory rate is 17 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 98%. Slight crackles are heard in the base of her left lung.

      You prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin for her lower respiratory tract infection and provide her with advice on how to manage her worsening condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A patient with RA taking etanercept who develops an infection needs to stop the etanercept until the infection is cleared

      Explanation:

      Patients with RA who are taking etanercept are at a higher risk of developing infections, including chest infections and sepsis. If an infection does occur, it is important to discontinue the use of etanercept until the infection has been cleared. Additionally, biologic therapy can increase the risk of TB or reactivation of latent TB, and patients on this type of therapy require regular blood monitoring. This includes a full blood count, urea and electrolytes (with creatinine), and liver function tests initially, followed by monitoring every 6 months once stable, unless there is a clinical need for more frequent monitoring.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the hospital a month ago due to an exacerbation of COPD. He reports feeling well with no cough or breathing issues. Over the past year, he has experienced four exacerbations that required steroid treatment, including his recent hospitalization. The patient inquires about any potential interventions to decrease the frequency of his exacerbations.

      Currently, the patient is taking a combination inhaler of fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium/vilanterol and salbutamol.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment is the recommended option for COPD patients who meet certain criteria and continue to have exacerbations. NICE suggests considering prophylactic oral macrolide therapy, such as azithromycin, for individuals who have had more than three exacerbations requiring steroid therapy and at least one exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year.

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of nebulisers is not appropriate for this patient as they are not experiencing distressing or disabling breathlessness despite maximal therapy using inhalers.

      Referral to secondary care for consideration of phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors is not applicable for this patient as they do not have severe disease with persistent symptoms and exacerbations despite optimal inhaled and pharmacological therapy.

      Starting the patient on long term corticosteroids is not recommended in primary care and requires referral to a respiratory specialist.

      Starting the patient on oral mucolytic therapy is not necessary as they do not have a chronic cough productive of sputum.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Health (2/10) 20%
Passmed