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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man visits his doctor with a painless erythematous rash in the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man visits his doctor with a painless erythematous rash in the shape of a target on his ankle. He mentions being bitten by a tick during a hiking trip a week ago. The doctor suspects lyme disease and prescribes doxycycline.

      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline is a type of tetracycline antibiotic that works by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. It is effective against both gram positive and gram negative infections and is considered bacteriostatic.

      Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that works by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. It is effective against both gram positive and gram negative infections.

      Benzylpenicillin is a type of penicillin antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall formation. It is effective against gram positive infections.

      Trimethoprim is a folate antagonist that works by binding to dihydrofolate reductase, inhibiting folate metabolism. It is effective against both gram positive and gram negative infections.

      Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that works by causing DNA strand breaks. It is effective against anaerobic infections.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense crushing chest pain....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with intense crushing chest pain. His ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4, and troponin levels are positive, indicating a provisional diagnosis of STEMI.

      The following morning, nursing staff discovers that the patient has passed away.

      Based on the timeline of his hospitalization, what is the probable cause of his death?

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of sudden death within the first 24 hours following a STEMI is ventricular fibrillation (VF). Histology findings during this time period include early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibers, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. Patients with these findings are at high risk of developing ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock. Acute mitral regurgitation, left ventricular free wall rupture, and pericardial effusion secondary to Dressler’s syndrome are less likely causes of sudden death in this time frame.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      81.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 8-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother who is worried that her daughter may be starting puberty too early. The mother reports an enlargement in nipple size, some breast development, and the appearance of light hairs on the edge of the labia majora.

      At what Tanner stage is the girl currently?

      Your Answer: III

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Ulnar artery

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ulnar Nerve

      The ulnar nerve travels behind the medial epicondyle before entering the forearm. In contrast, other structures such as the radial nerve and musculocutaneous nerve pass over the lateral epicondyle, while the radial and ulnar arteries originate in the forearm. This unique pathway of the ulnar nerve is important to understand in clinical settings, as it can be susceptible to injury or compression at the elbow. Proper knowledge of the anatomy of the ulnar nerve can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as cubital tunnel syndrome or ulnar nerve entrapment. By studying the intricate details of the human body, healthcare professionals can better understand the complexities of the nervous system and provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer: Mesentery of the transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Ligament of Trietz

      Explanation:

      The ligament of Trietz, also known as the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, holds great significance. On the other hand, the ligament of Treves is situated between the caecum and ileum.

      Anatomy of the Duodenum

      The duodenum is the first and widest part of the small bowel, located immediately distal to the pylorus. It is around 25 cm long and comprises four parts: superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending. The horizontal part is the longest segment and passes transversely to the left with an upward deflection. The duodenum is largely retroperitoneal, except for the first 2-3 cm of the superior part and the final 1-2 cm.

      The medial relations of the duodenum include the superior pancreatico-duodenal artery and the pancreatic head. The descending part is closely related to the commencement of the transverse colon, while the horizontal part crosses in front of the right ureter, right psoas major, right gonadal vessels, and IVC. The ascending part runs to the left of the aorta and terminates by binding abruptly forwards as the duodenojejunal flexure.

      The region of the duodenojejunal flexure is fixed in position by the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, which blends with the musculature of the flexure and passes upwards deep to the pancreas to gain attachment to the right crus of the diaphragm. This fibromuscular band is known as the ligament of Treitz. The duodenum has important anterior and posterior relations, including the superior mesenteric vessels, the root of the small bowel, the left sympathetic trunk, the left psoas major, the left gonadal vessels, the left kidney, and the uncinate process of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      122
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old obese woman has recently been diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old obese woman has recently been diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension and is experiencing blurred vision. Her blood tests are normal, and a CT scan of her head shows no signs of bleeding, tumors, or hydrocephalus. During a lumbar puncture, her opening pressure is measured at 30cmH2O. Her vision continues to deteriorate, and she is transferred to a neurosurgical center where her intracranial pressure is measured at 40mmHg. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure of this patient?

      Your Answer: 53

      Explanation:

      The calculation for cerebral perfusion pressure involves subtracting the intracranial pressure from the mean arterial pressure, resulting in a value of 53mmHg.

      Understanding Raised Intracranial Pressure

      As the brain and ventricles are enclosed by a rigid skull, any additional volume such as haematoma, tumour, or excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP). The normal ICP in adults in the supine position is 7-15 mmHg. Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain, and it is calculated by subtracting ICP from mean arterial pressure.

      Raised intracranial pressure can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic intracranial hypertension, traumatic head injuries, infection, meningitis, tumours, and hydrocephalus. Its features include headache, vomiting, reduced levels of consciousness, papilloedema, and Cushing’s triad, which is characterized by widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.

      To investigate raised intracranial pressure, neuroimaging such as CT or MRI is key to determine the underlying cause. Invasive ICP monitoring can also be done by placing a catheter into the lateral ventricles of the brain to monitor the pressure, collect CSF samples, and drain small amounts of CSF to reduce the pressure. A cut-off of > 20 mmHg is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP.

      Management of raised intracranial pressure involves investigating and treating the underlying cause, head elevation to 30Âş, IV mannitol as an osmotic diuretic, controlled hyperventilation to reduce pCO2 and vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries, and removal of CSF through techniques such as drain from intraventricular monitor, repeated lumbar puncture, or ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off a roof and has been diagnosed with a Colles' fracture by the radiologist. The medical team plans to perform a closed reduction of the fracture, and they intend to use a haematoma block with lidocaine to facilitate a quick and painless reduction. What is a potential side effect that may occur after a haematoma block with lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Mental status change

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine has been known to affect mental status by crossing the blood-brain barrier quickly and blocking inhibitory neurons in the brain. This can lead to a decrease in seizure threshold and a decline in mental function. While hypertension is a recognized side effect of lidocaine, it does not cause hypotension. While constipation can be a side effect of lidocaine, it is not known to cause diarrhea. While there is no evidence to suggest that lidocaine causes sexual dysfunction, it is used in the treatment of premature ejaculation. Lidocaine is a class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and does not cause them.

      Overview of Local Anaesthetic Agents

      Local anaesthetic agents are drugs that block nerve impulses and provide pain relief in a specific area of the body. Lidocaine is a commonly used amide local anaesthetic that is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug. It is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and excreted in the urine. Toxicity can occur with excessive administration or in patients with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Acidosis can also cause lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity involves the use of IV 20% lipid emulsion. Drug interactions with lidocaine include beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, and phenytoin. Cocaine is another local anaesthetic agent that is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and is useful for topical wound infiltration. However, it is cardiotoxic and contraindicated in regional blockage. Levobupivacaine is a less cardiotoxic alternative. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic than other local anaesthetic agents and is preferred for intravenous regional anaesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anaesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants. The maximum total doses of local anaesthetic agents depend on the type of drug and are based on ideal body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - How would you define vigorous exercise? ...

    Correct

    • How would you define vigorous exercise?

      Your Answer: Exercising at 80% of maximal individual capacity

      Explanation:

      Exercise Intensity Levels

      Exercise intensity can be determined by comparing it to your maximum capacity or your typical resting state of activity. It is important to note that what may be considered moderate or intense for one person may differ for another based on their fitness and strength levels. Mild intensity exercise involves working at less than 3 times the activity at rest and 20-50% of your maximum capacity. Moderate intensity exercise involves working at 3-5.9 times the activity at rest or 50-60% of your maximum capacity. Examples of moderate intensity exercises include cycling on flat ground, walking fast, hiking, volleyball, and basketball. Vigorous intensity exercise involves working at 6-7 times the activity at rest or 70-80% of your maximum capacity. Examples of vigorous intensity exercises include running, swimming fast, cycling fast or uphill, hockey, martial arts, and aerobics. exercise intensity levels can help you tailor your workouts to your individual needs and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 69-year-old man is admitted to the medical assessment unit with reduced urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man is admitted to the medical assessment unit with reduced urine output and nausea. He has a complex medical history, including heart failure, hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and hypothyroidism. Among his regular medications are bisoprolol, furosemide, simvastatin, insulin, and levothyroxine. The medical team suspects that he is currently experiencing an acute kidney injury.

      Which of his usual medications should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      In cases of AKI, it is advisable to discontinue the use of diuretics as they may aggravate renal function. Loop diuretics like Furosemide should be stopped. Additionally, drugs that have the potential to harm the kidneys, such as aminoglycoside antibiotics (e.g. gentamicin), non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (e.g. ramipril), angiotensin II receptor antagonists (e.g. losartan), and diuretics, should also be discontinued.

      Fortunately, the remaining drugs are generally safe to continue as they are not typically considered nephrotoxic. Insulin, a peptide hormone drug used in treating type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, is cleared from the body through enzymatic breakdown in the liver and kidneys and is not usually harmful to the kidneys.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy.

    Can...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy.

      Can you explain the mechanism behind a urinary pregnancy test?

      Your Answer: PCR

      Correct Answer: ELISA

      Explanation:

      Techniques in Biochemistry

      Over-the-counter urine pregnancy tests use ELISA to detect beta-HCG in a woman’s urine. The test stick contains antibodies that react with beta-HCG, producing a color change that confirms pregnancy. The urinary pregnancy test is a solid-phase ELISA, where the antibody is immobilized on a specialized filter paper. The fluid travels laterally across the paper to bind with the antibody, and if beta-HCG is present, the line turns blue. Electrophoresis characterizes the electrical charge and size of substances, while PCR identifies specific sequences of DNA or RNA. Radioimmunoassay uses radioactivity to identify specific proteins. Enzymatic degradation breaks down large proteins into smaller subunits for which target antibodies may already exist. This method is used to characterize large proteins for which the structure has not yet been described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of renal colic. Upon conducting tests,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of renal colic. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:
      Corrected Calcium 3.84 mmol/l
      PTH 88 pg/ml (increased)
      Her serum urea and electrolytes are within normal range.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this scenario is primary hyperparathyroidism, as serum urea and electrolytes are normal, making tertiary hyperparathyroidism less likely.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, fever, and photosensitivity....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, fever, and photosensitivity. He has a history of HIV and is compliant with his antiretroviral therapy. Over the past month, he has been experiencing watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, fevers, and fatigue.

      Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 97% on room air, respiratory rate is 18/min, heart rate is 98/min, blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, and temperature is 38.4ÂşC. A CT head scan reveals meningeal enhancement and recommends a lumbar puncture.

      The patient is admitted under the medical team and undergoes a lumbar puncture, which is positive for India ink. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of meningitis and a lumbar puncture has revealed the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans, the most common CNS fungal infection in HIV patients. Treatment involves administering IV amphotericin B and flucytosine for two weeks, followed by oral fluconazole for eight weeks. Fluconazole can also be used for relapse prophylaxis until the patient’s immunity recovers. In cases where the patient has high opening pressures on LP, daily LPs may be performed to reduce intracranial pressure during the acute phase.

      AIDS dementia complex is a chronic complication that can occur in late stages of HIV infection, resulting in changes in cognitive function, movement, and learning. CT scans may reveal cortical and subcortical atrophy.

      Herpes simplex encephalitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus infection or the HIV virus itself, and presents with symptoms such as headache, fever, seizures, and confusion. CT scans may show generalised brain oedema, while LPs may reveal the presence of herpes simplex virus on PCR.

      Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer that can affect the skin, respiratory system, and GI tract of immunocompromised patients. The lesions of those affected will contain human herpesvirus 8.

      Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.

      Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
      Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
      Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
      Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
      Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old male is recovering from a community acquired pneumonia in hospital. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is recovering from a community acquired pneumonia in hospital. He has undergone some blood tests that morning which indicate that he is experiencing AKI stage 2. The results are as follows:

      - Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Over the past 12 hours, he has only produced 360ml of urine. In light of this, what is the most crucial medication to discontinue from his drug chart?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial to discontinue the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can potentially worsen renal function. Ibuprofen, being an NSAID, falls under this category.

      NSAIDs work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for vasodilation. Inhibiting their production can lead to vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal perfusion and a decline in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR).

      To prevent further damage to the kidneys, all nephrotoxic medications, including NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, gentamicin, vancomycin, and metformin (which should be discussed with the diabetic team), should be discontinued in cases of AKI.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are participating in a cardiology ward round with a senior consultant and...

    Incorrect

    • You are participating in a cardiology ward round with a senior consultant and encounter an 80-year-old patient. Your consultant requests that you auscultate the patient's heart and provide feedback.

      During your examination, you detect a very faint early-diastolic murmur. To identify additional indications, you palpate the patient's wrist and observe a collapsing pulse.

      What intervention could potentially amplify the intensity of the murmur?

      Your Answer: Asking the patient to breathe in

      Correct Answer: Asking patient to perform a handgrip manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The intensity of an aortic regurgitation murmur can be increased by performing the handgrip manoeuvre, which raises afterload by contracting the arm muscles and compressing the arteries. Conversely, amyl nitrate is a vasodilator that reduces afterload by dilating peripheral arteries, while ACE inhibitors are used to treat aortic regurgitation by lowering afterload. Asking the patient to breathe in will not accentuate the murmur, but standing up or performing the Valsalva manoeuvre can decrease venous return to the heart and reduce the intensity of the murmur.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of breathlessness at rest....

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of breathlessness at rest. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension, for which he takes metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol. He also smokes five cigarettes a day. On examination, he has a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 128/90 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 26 with oxygen saturation of 88% on 2l/minute. He has a regular, slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur, crepitations at both lung bases, and oedema at the ankles and sacrum.

      What investigation is most crucial for his immediate management?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Managing Pulmonary Edema from Congestive Cardiac Failure

      Pulmonary edema from congestive cardiac failure requires prompt investigation and management. The most crucial investigation is an ECG to check for a possible silent myocardial infarction. Even if the ECG is normal, a troponin test may be necessary to rule out a NSTEMI. Arterial blood gas analysis is also important to guide oxygen therapy. Additionally, stopping medications such as metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol, and administering diuretics can help manage the condition.

      It is likely that the patient has aortic stenosis, which is contributing to the cardiac failure. However, acute management of the valvular disease will be addressed separately. To learn more about heart failure and its management, refer to the ABC of heart failure articles by Millane et al. and Watson et al.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly...

    Correct

    • A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly shoots his buddy in the stomach. The injured friend is rushed to the ER where he is examined. The bullet has entered just to the right of the rectus sheath at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebrae. Which of the following structures is the most probable to have been harmed by the bullet?

      Your Answer: Fundus of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The most superficially located structure is the fundus of the gallbladder, which is found at this level.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment. She is currently taking paracetamol and NSAIDs for pain relief on a regular basis. The consultant suggests that she may benefit from ciclosporin to improve her symptom control.

      Before starting this medication, what are the important counselling points that the patient should be aware of?

      Your Answer: Requirement of MMR vaccine within first month of administration

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Nephrotoxicity is a potential side effect of Ciclosporin.

      Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant that works by blocking certain T cell immune responses and suppressing the release of IL-2. However, it is important to note that this drug can be harmful to the kidneys. In the first few weeks of treatment, patients may experience an increase in serum urea and creatinine levels, which are typically dose-dependent. These effects can be reversed by reducing the dosage.

      Patients should be informed about the possible adverse effects of Ciclosporin, including benign gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, tremors, headaches, paraesthesia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle cramps, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances (such as hyperkalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hyperuricemia), and the risk of nephrotoxicity.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Referral for genetic counselling

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole, metronidazole and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori and Peptic Ulceration

      The bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is classified as a gram-negative curved rod, has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the healing process. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be infected with Helicobacter. To treat this infection, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of the bacterium. Triple therapy, which involves a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be the most effective treatment. This therapy should be administered for one week, with proton pump therapy continuing thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - While on clinical placement, you attend a presentation by a pharmaceutical company representative...

    Incorrect

    • While on clinical placement, you attend a presentation by a pharmaceutical company representative who is promoting a new anticoagulant. They claim that a meta-analysis shows it to be superior to the current option at your hospital. However, you have reservations about publication bias and decide to review the paper cited by the representative.

      What method of data presentation can reveal the presence of this bias in the study?

      Your Answer: Kaplan–Meier curve

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are a type of graph that can reveal publication bias in meta-analyses. They plot trial size against reported effect size, and smaller trials may be more likely to show bias due to the pressure to publish significant results. If publication bias is present, the smaller trials may show a larger effect size than the larger trials. Flow diagrams show relationships between ideas, while forest plots combine data from multiple reports to give an overall value. Kaplan-Meier curves estimate survival over time, and pie charts show the relative proportions of different categories in a data set.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (2/5) 40%
Cardiovascular System (2/3) 67%
Endocrine System (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (2/2) 100%
Renal System (0/2) 0%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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