00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two months. Her vital capacity is 3 litres when sitting and 1.4 litres when lying. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral ptosis. There are no other abnormal neurological findings.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that affects both eyes and respiratory muscles, causing bilateral ptosis and respiratory muscle weakness. Unlike other disorders, initial weakness is not limited to a single muscle group. Guillain–Barré syndrome, on the other hand, presents with an ascending pattern of progressive symmetrical weakness, starting in the lower extremities and progressing to involve the arms, trunk, cranial nerves, and muscles of respiration. Motor neurone disease typically affects the upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is a chronic, slowly progressive disease that affects muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes, and myotonia. Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower limbs, with involvement of the thighs, trunk, shoulders, hips, and upper arms over time. Ocular muscles are never involved in the generalised type of the disease.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.

      He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.

      What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients

      When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.

      Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.

      Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of her left lower lip. She reports that she had a similar episode before and that topical hydrogen peroxide did not help.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man admits to drinking 40-50 units of alcohol per week, sometimes more.
      Which of the following would suggest a diagnosis of alcohol dependence?

      Your Answer: Drinking alcohol early in the morning after waking

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Signs of Alcohol Dependence

      The patient is consuming alcohol in excess of the recommended safe level and is likely to have at least two positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire, indicating potential alcohol dependence. Abnormal liver function tests may also be present. According to DSMV-IV criteria, at least three of the following must be present over the preceding 12 months to diagnose alcohol dependence: tolerance to alcohol, withdrawal symptoms, increased use, unsuccessful attempts to cut down, spending time obtaining or recovering from alcohol, giving up social/occupational/recreational pursuits, and continued use despite knowledge of potential harm. The need for an Eye-opener (CAGE) suggests dependence and withdrawal symptoms in the morning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
      Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Embolus

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.

      If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.

      In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature.

      The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or indications of overdose. However, her partner reports that she recently began taking a new medication prescribed by her general practitioner. It is suspected that this medication may have interacted with her regular medication.

      Which medication is the most likely culprit for this interaction?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor...

    Incorrect

    • The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor were measured. The average potassium level was found to be 4.6 mmol/l with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/l. What is the correct statement regarding this study?

      Your Answer: 99.7% of values lie between 4.0 and 5.2 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The range of values within 1 standard deviation of the mean for a normally distributed variable is 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/l.

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to you after discovering she is pregnant. She has a medical history of high cholesterol, asthma, constipation, and hay fever. She is currently taking multiple medications, including atorvastatin, a combination beclomethasone-formoterol inhaler, montelukast, nasal steroids, and lactulose. She seeks guidance on how to manage her regular medication during pregnancy.

      What recommendations would you provide to her?

      Your Answer: Stop montelukast but continue her regular medication

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin but continue her regular medication

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital anomalies and potential impact on fetal development. Atorvastatin, in particular, is contraindicated during pregnancy and should be avoided three months prior to attempting pregnancy. However, lactulose and nasal steroids are considered safe for use during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant individuals with asthma to continue taking their medication to maintain good symptom control.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits your clinic. He recently returned from a trip to Africa and is experiencing feelings of depression. He believes that his friends who accompanied him on the trip turned against him during the vacation. Since returning, he has been having unusual dreams and is feeling anxious. He reports taking malaria prophylaxis. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Mefloquine and antimalarial Medication

      Mefloquine is a commonly prescribed antimalarial medication that can cause side effects such as abnormal dreams, depression, psychosis, and panic attacks. As a GP, it is important to inform patients of the risks of malaria and the potential side effects of the medication so that they can make an informed decision.

      When it comes to prescribing antimalarial medication, there are administrative issues to consider. For example, GPs can charge a private fee for prescribing or providing drugs for malaria chemoprophylaxis or for drugs that a patient requires solely in anticipation of an ailment while outside the UK. Some antimalarial medications can also be purchased from chemists without a prescription, which may be financially advantageous for patients.

      It is important to follow national guidance when issuing prescriptions for travel abroad, and to not prescribe medication for longer than a period of three months for extended stays. By being familiar with these administrative issues, GPs can provide the best care for their patients traveling to areas with a high risk of malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements concerning toddler colic is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements concerning toddler colic is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is most common at around 6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Babies who are under 3 months old are usually the ones who experience infantile colic.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports that her biological family is known to have ‘health problems’ and has heard the term ‘polygenic inheritance’ mentioned. She is concerned about passing any conditions on to her child and asks for more information about inheritance patterns.
      Which of the following conditions demonstrates a polygenic mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns of Various Disorders

      Many disorders have a familial tendency that cannot be explained by Mendelian inheritance patterns. Polygenic inheritance, also known as quantitative inheritance, is when a single phenotype is controlled by multiple genes. This type of inheritance can result in a range of phenotypes depending on the number of genes involved and their interactions. Examples of disorders with polygenic inheritance include congenital malformations and acquired diseases such as asthma, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bipolar disorder.

      Cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern, meaning that two copies of the abnormal gene are necessary for the condition to appear. Fragile X syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by a dominant X-linked gene, but it’s penetrance is only 50% in females. Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern and is characterized by progressive ataxia, dysarthria, decreased proprioception/vibration sense, muscle weakness, and late-onset cardiomyopathy. The average life expectancy for individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia is 40-50 years. Finally, Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern, meaning that only one copy of the gene is necessary to produce the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man presents to you with his wife due to infertility issues...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to you with his wife due to infertility issues after being married for 8 years. Upon examination, you notice that he is tall, thin, and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Your colleague has conducted some initial tests, and one of them has come back with elevated levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and Andropause

      Gaucher’s and Marfan syndrome are genetic disorders that do not typically present with infertility. Noonan’s syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with short stature. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder that affects approximately 1 in 400 to 1 in 600 male births, typically with 47 XXY, XXXYY, or XXYY.

      Andropause is a term used to describe the gradual decrease in serum testosterone concentration that occurs with age. However, this decrease usually doesn’t occur until after the age of 50. It is important to note that while these conditions may affect fertility and hormone levels, there are various treatments and management options available to individuals who may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits his GP complaining of milky discharge from his nipples. His blood test results show a prolactin level of 700 mu/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      There are several causes of raised prolactin, which can be remembered using the letter P. These include pregnancy, prolactinoma (a type of pituitary tumor), physiological changes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, primary hypothyroidism, and the use of certain medications such as phenothiazines, metoclopramide, and domperidone. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like fluoxetine have been linked to hyperprolactinemia in rare cases, the most likely culprit in this patient is metoclopramide. It’s worth noting that cimetidine is typically associated with gynecomastia rather than galactorrhea, although this side effect is considered very rare according to the British National Formulary.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Sophie is 25 years old and has just received treatment from you for...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is 25 years old and has just received treatment from you for bacterial vaginosis after consulting with you about her vaginal discharge. Her chlamydia and gonorrhoea swabs came back negative. She contacts you again to ask if she should inform her partner about her condition and if he needs to be treated.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No, bacterial vaginosis is not classed as an STI so no partner notification is necessary

      Explanation:

      Partner notification is not necessary for bacterial vaginosis as it is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old woman seeks guidance on contraception options. She has a new partner...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman seeks guidance on contraception options. She has a new partner but is certain she doesn't want to have any more children. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the heaviness of her periods and has experienced some intermenstrual bleeding. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Referral to gynaecology is necessary to rule out endometrial cancer due to the patient’s past experience of intermenstrual bleeding.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old male is undergoing treatment for hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male is undergoing treatment for hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and has been living with type 2 diabetes for fifteen years. He was diagnosed with microalbuminuria a few years ago and has had an elevated creatinine level for some time. Ultrasound scans have ruled out any other causes of renal failure apart from diabetes. Currently, he is taking ramipril 10 mg and amlodipine 5 mg to manage his blood pressure, which is at 130/79 mmHg. His most recent creatinine level is 105 µmol/L, up from 97 µmol/L twelve months ago. What is the best course of action regarding his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue his BP medication unchanged

      Explanation:

      Management of Diabetic Nephropathy and Creatinine Rise

      The key to managing a patient with diabetic nephropathy is to reduce the progression of renal failure. In this case, continuing the patient’s ramipril has a positive effect on his condition. As long as his blood pressure is adequately controlled, his medication should remain unchanged.

      However, if there is a significant rise in creatinine levels, further investigation is necessary. According to NICE guidance, a rise of 30% or more should prompt further investigation. Other references suggest that a rise of 20% is also cause for concern. It is important to monitor creatinine levels closely and take appropriate action to manage any significant changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is a common symptom of delirium tremens? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common symptom of delirium tremens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dyspnoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Hallucinations

      Visual hallucinations are a common symptom that individuals may experience. These hallucinations involve seeing things that are not actually present in the environment. While visual hallucinations are typical, experiencing other symptoms alongside them would be unusual. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing visual hallucinations or any other unusual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.

      It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.

      What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.

      Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.

      It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.

      Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children

      Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.

      It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is...

    Incorrect

    • A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is a pressure sore down below which is not getting better. There is an associated itch and occasionally she sees blood spots on her underwear.

      She has been using over-the-counter antifungal creams from the chemist for the last six weeks but it is not helping. On examination there is a shallow ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, on the labia majora. The rest of the examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Vulval Lump or Non-Responsive Ulceration

      Any woman who discovers a new, unexplained lump or experiences ulceration that doesn’t respond to treatment should be referred urgently. It is important to note that the term pressure sore should be used with caution, as it may not accurately describe the condition.

      If the ulcer appears to be caused by thrush, fluconazole may be considered. However, if the ulcer doesn’t arise from typical intertriginous areas and lacks satellite lesions or white discharge, a fungal infection is unlikely.

      While primary syphilis can cause a solitary painless genital ulcer, it tends to resolve within four to eight weeks. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be the first presentation of a lady with primary syphilis.

      If the condition is suspected to be a pressure ulcer on the sacrum or another pressure point, a tissue viability nurse may be consulted. However, based on the given history, this seems unlikely. Referring to dermatology is not appropriate for a strongly suspected case of vulval carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.

      What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic

      Explanation:

      Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.

      For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of a persistent cold sore despite using over-the-counter topical medication. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe, frequent, persistent, or recurrent gingivostomatitis (a rare form of oral herpes simplex infection), antivirals may be considered as a treatment option. Immunocompromised patients may benefit from oral aciclovir for cold sore management.

      Continuing to use over-the-counter topical medication is not recommended for this patient as it has not been effective. It is important to explore other treatment options to alleviate their ongoing symptoms.

      It would be inappropriate to not offer any further treatment options to this patient as there are options available.

      Referral to dermatology is not necessary for the management of cold sores in most cases. However, if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, a referral may be appropriate.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy

      Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a vocabulary of approximately 50 single words, some two-word phrases and many of the words can be easily understood by strangers.
      Which of the following is the most likely age range for this child if development is normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-24 months

      Explanation:

      Speech Development Milestones in Children: From 12-42 Months

      Speech development in children is a gradual process that varies from child to child. It starts with responding to sounds and progresses to babbling and saying simple words like mama and dada. By 18-24 months, children have a vocabulary of 50 or more words and can use some two-word phrases. By 24-30 months, their vocabulary expands to about 300 words, including names. Between two and three years, children can form sentences of three to five words and use pronouns, plurals, and past tense. By three to four years, they can use three to six words per sentence, ask and answer questions, and tell stories. It’s important to note that speech delay affects between 6% and 19% of children, and early detection and intervention can prevent educational, emotional, and social problems. Serious causes of delayed speech include deafness, learning disability, and autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in her ears. She had previously sought medical attention for her lower back pain and was prescribed naproxen and paracetamol. However, the paracetamol was later substituted with co-codamol and then with co-dydramol. Which medication is the probable cause of her recent symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      High doses of aspirin and other NSAIDs can lead to tinnitus, although the frequency of this side effect is unknown. Co-codamol and co-dydramol are not known to cause tinnitus, but they can cause other side effects such as drowsiness, respiratory depression, and addiction. Melatonin is generally well-tolerated, but it can cause side effects such as changes in behavior, headaches, and sleep disturbances. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

      Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.

      To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed