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  • Question 1 - What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the management of dyslipidemia patients?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Facial flushing

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, they can also cause side effects. The most common side effects of NSAIDs include facial flushing, which is caused by changes in prostaglandin metabolism. NSAIDs can also cause gastritis, peptic ulcer formation, hepatitis, gout, hyperglycemia, and rhabdomyolysis, especially when combined with statins. These side effects can be serious and should be monitored closely by a healthcare provider. It is important to discuss any concerns or questions about NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before taking them. Proper use and monitoring can help minimize the risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking...

    Incorrect

    • You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking notes indicate that her mother is worried about her daughter's growth compared to her peers. Before the appointment, you quickly review the patient's medical records. The patient's past medical history includes asthma, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and being born prematurely at 35 weeks. The patient is taking methylphenidate, a beclomethasone inhaler during the winter months, and a salbutamol inhaler. The patient's family history shows that both parents are of average height, and a blood test conducted a year ago revealed borderline low ferritin levels. What is the most relevant information for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Prematurity

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      The most important information in the patient’s records is that he is taking methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which can lead to stunted growth. Therefore, his height and weight should be monitored every six months. Although corticosteroid inhalers like beclomethasone can also cause growth reduction in children who use them regularly, this is less likely to be relevant in this case since the patient only uses it intermittently. The patient’s blood test results indicating borderline low ferritin levels may suggest a poor diet, which could potentially affect growth, but this was a while ago and limits any conclusions that can be drawn. While familial height can be helpful, it is not as significant as the patient’s medication history, especially since both parents have average heights.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

      Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury. He is advised by his medical team that he will need an extended period of rest and physiotherapy before he resumes competitive basketball. Following the surgery, he says he feels better and discharges himself. He later goes out with his friends and tells them that he will be back on the court next week.

      What type of coping is this?

      Your Answer: Avoidance

      Explanation:

      Coping Mechanisms: Understanding Different Approaches to Dealing with Stress

      When faced with stress, individuals often employ coping mechanisms to manage their emotions and reactions. Here are some common coping mechanisms and their definitions:

      Avoidance: This coping mechanism involves denying the existence of a stressor and continuing with one’s usual behavior without making any changes. It is often used when the stressor is too overwhelming to deal with immediately.

      Appraisal: Appraisal involves assessing past events and experiences to make decisions for future arrangements. This coping mechanism can help individuals feel more in control of their situation.

      Projection: Projection is when an individual attributes unwanted thoughts and feelings onto someone else. This can be a way to avoid dealing with one’s own emotions.

      Problem-focused: This coping mechanism involves identifying the causes of a stressor and taking action to reduce or eliminate it. It is a proactive approach to dealing with stress.

      Emotion-focused: Emotion-focused coping involves managing the emotions that a stressor creates. This can involve using drugs or other methods to regulate one’s emotional response.

      Understanding these coping mechanisms can help individuals choose the most effective approach for dealing with stress in their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His...

    Correct

    • A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His main reason for attendance is that his wife is concerned about his loud snoring and the fact that he stops breathing during the night for periods of up to 8–10 seconds, followed by coughing, snoring or waking. Recently he has become hypertensive and is also on treatment for impotence. His 24-hour urinary free cortisol level is normal.
      Which diagnosis best fits this picture?

      Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and Other Conditions

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s health and well-being. Symptoms of OSA include memory impairment, daytime somnolence, disrupted sleep patterns, decreased libido, and systemic hypertension. When investigating potential causes of these symptoms, it is important to rule out other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA.

      For example, thyroid function testing should be conducted to rule out hypothyroidism, and the uvula and tonsils should be assessed for mechanical obstruction that may be treatable with surgery. Diagnosis of OSA is typically made using overnight oximetry. The mainstay of management for OSA is weight loss, along with the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation during sleep.

      When considering potential diagnoses for a patient with symptoms of OSA, it is important to distinguish between other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA. For example, Cushing’s disease can be identified through elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol levels. Essential hypertension may contribute to OSA, but it does not fully explain the symptoms described. Simple obesity may be a contributing factor, but it does not account for the full clinical picture. Finally, simple snoring can be ruled out if apnoeic episodes are present. By carefully considering all potential diagnoses, healthcare providers can provide the most effective treatment for patients with OSA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They...

    Correct

    • A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They have sustained significant burns to both upper limbs, as well as the front of their torso.
      Estimate the size of the burn in terms of percentage of body surface area.

      Your Answer: 36%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines for Estimating Burn Size

      The Wallace Rule of Nines is a widely used method for estimating the size of a burn. It involves dividing the body into regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to this rule, each arm represents 9%, each leg represents 18%, the head represents 9%, the front and back of the torso represent 18% each, and the genitals and the area of the patient’s palm represent 1% each.

      Once the percentage of burn is estimated using the rule of nines, it can be used in formulae such as the Parkland formula to calculate the amount of fluid replacement required for the patient. The Parkland formula is used to determine the total amount of fluid required in the first 24 hours following a burn.

      It is important to note that an accurate assessment of the percentage of body surface area affected by burns is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and fluid replacement. Any overestimation or underestimation can lead to inadequate or excessive fluid replacement, which can have serious consequences for the patient’s recovery.

      In conclusion, understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the management of burn injuries. It provides a quick and reliable method for estimating the size of a burn and determining the appropriate fluid replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job,...

    Incorrect

    • In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings

      Atrial Septal Defect:
      Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.

      Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
      Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.

      Mitral Stenosis:
      Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.

      Aortic Stenosis:
      Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.

      Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of central chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 129/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 81. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his chest.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (130-180)
      - White cell count: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelet: 197 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
      - Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
      - Creatinine: 123 µmol/L (79-118)
      - Glucose: 12.3 mmol/L (<7.0)
      - ECG: Anterolateral ST depression

      The patient is given sublingual GTN. What is the next most appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 300 mg and unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for High-Risk Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      This patient, who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, is considered high risk and requires immediate treatment. The recommended treatment plan includes loading the patient with both aspirin and clopidogrel to reduce the risk of further complications. If the patient experiences further chest pain or if ECG signs do not improve, additional interventions such as angiography may be necessary.

      In addition to aspirin and clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin is also recommended as an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission. If the patient does not progress to angiogram, screening for ischaemia should be considered prior to discharge.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor this high-risk patient and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
      What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?

      Your Answer: Urine and tears may become orange in colour

      Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old woman has been prescribed metformin for her type II diabetes and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman has been prescribed metformin for her type II diabetes and wants to know about potential side effects. What is the most common adverse effect associated with metformin treatment?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Potential Adverse Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Diabetes medications can be effective in managing blood sugar levels, but they also come with potential adverse effects. One such effect is lactic acidosis, which can be severe or even fatal in cases of intentional metformin overdose. Metformin works by inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis and lactate dehydrogenase in the gut and liver. In cases of lactic acidosis, haemodialysis may be necessary to clear lactate and correct acidosis, but mortality rates remain high due to coexisting organ failures.

      Another potential adverse effect is cardiotoxicity, which can lead to fluid retention and cardiac failure in patients receiving glitazone therapy. However, anaphylaxis and pulmonary fibrosis are not recognised features of metformin therapy. Rhabdomyolysis, a breakdown of muscle tissue, is more likely to occur in conjunction with statin or fibrate therapy, or with the combination of the two.

      Understanding the Risks of Diabetes Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary retention. You select a 6-Fr catheter.
      Which of the following is the most accurate description of the size of this catheter?

      Your Answer: The size of the internal drainage canal of the catheter is approximately 24mm

      Correct Answer: The external circumference of the catheter is approximately 24mm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Catheter Sizes: A Guide to the French Gauge System

      Catheters are medical devices used to drain urine from the bladder when a patient is unable to do so naturally. The size of a catheter is an important factor in ensuring proper placement and function. The French gauge system is commonly used to describe catheter sizes, with the size in French units roughly equal to the circumference of the catheter in millimetres.

      It is important to note that the French size only describes the external circumference of the catheter, not its length or internal diameter. A catheter that is too large can cause discomfort and irritation, while one that is too small can lead to kinking and leakage.

      For male urethral catheterisation, a size 14-Fr or 16-Fr catheter is typically appropriate. Larger sizes may be recommended for patients with haematuria or clots. Paediatric sizes range from 3 to 14-Fr.

      In summary, understanding the French gauge system is crucial in selecting the appropriate catheter size for each patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?

      Your Answer: Aged between 3-6 months

      Correct Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 13-year-old girl and her mother visit the GP to discuss the HPV...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl and her mother visit the GP to discuss the HPV vaccine, Gardasil. The mother has concerns and wants to know which strains of HPV the vaccine targets.

      Your Answer: HPV 45

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Strains of HPV and Their Association with Cervical Cancer

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various health issues, including cervical cancer. However, not all strains of HPV are equally dangerous. Here is a breakdown of some of the most common strains and their association with cervical cancer:

      HPV 16 and 18 are the most concerning strains as they have the strongest association with cervical cancer. In fact, 70% of cervical cancers are caused by these two strains. This is why the HPV vaccination programme targets these strains.

      HPV 1 and 2 are associated with warts on the feet and hands, respectively, and are not strongly linked to cervical cancer.

      HPV 45 is a rare strain, and the current HPV vaccine provides protection against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18 strains.

      HPV 31 and 33 are linked to cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia and have a high correlation with genital and oral cancers, but their link to cervical cancer is not as strong as HPV 16 and 18.

      HPV 52 and 58 are also linked to cancer, but their association with cervical cancer is not as strong as HPV 16 and 18.

      Understanding the different strains of HPV and their association with cervical cancer is crucial in preventing and managing this disease. Regular cervical cancer screenings and getting vaccinated against HPV can help reduce the risk of developing cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.

      Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Among workers aged 18 to 30, which substance is most commonly associated with...

    Correct

    • Among workers aged 18 to 30, which substance is most commonly associated with causing occupational accidents and injuries?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Consumption and Occupational Injuries

      Workers who consume alcohol are almost twice as likely to experience an occupational injury compared to non-users. This is according to a study conducted by researchers who found that the personal and societal costs of even light and moderate drinking are significant. The study also revealed that most alcohol-related problems in the workplace are caused by light and moderate drinkers, not just those who drink on the job.

      Aside from on-the-job drinking, heavy drinking outside of work also contributes to workplace problems. Hangover-related health issues such as an elevated risk of heart attacks, reduced cognitive abilities, and a psychiatric disorder called Elpenor syndrome, which is characterized by irrational behavior, are also associated with alcohol consumption.

      In conclusion, alcohol consumption poses a significant risk to occupational safety and health. It is important for employers to implement policies and programs that promote responsible alcohol use and provide support for employees who may be struggling with alcohol-related issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A man who is 53 years old has been referred to the outpatient...

    Correct

    • A man who is 53 years old has been referred to the outpatient clinic as his renal function is declining. After diagnosis, it is found that he has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). His mother passed away at the age of 50 due to a stroke, and his father is still alive. He is worried about the possibility of passing on the disorder to his son. What is the likelihood of his son inheriting ADPKD?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. Patients with ADPKD experience a decline in renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, they may also develop hepatic and berry aneurysms, which may be relevant if there is a maternal history of the disease. ADPKD is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.

      The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.

      Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).

      What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Correct Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Complications of Chronic Paronychia

      Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.

      To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
      What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 30 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 30 weeks gestation. She reports feeling well and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. Her vital signs are as follows:
      Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
      Heart rate: 70 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 130/88 mmHg
      Temperature: 37.2ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      Urinalysis results show:
      Protein: +
      Glucose: -
      Nitrites: -

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic aspirin

      Correct Answer: Routine management

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman has new-onset BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks AND ≥ 1 of proteinuria, organ dysfunction, she is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. However, if a patient presents to a routine antenatal appointment at 28 weeks gestation and her blood pressure does not meet the threshold of ≥ 140/90 mmHg, she should continue with routine management even if her urine is positive for protein. Therefore, commencing nifedipine and fluid restriction is incorrect as they are only used in the management of severe pre-eclampsia. Similarly, commencing prophylactic aspirin, prophylactic aspirin and labetalol, or prophylactic aspirin and nifedipine is incorrect as they are only used if the patient is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public speaking and in informal social settings. She avoids situations where she might have to enter into conversations with strangers. She reports that she thinks others are frustrated by her inability in casual social interactions and that she ‘feels stupid and awkward’. Her social problems are also affecting her academic performance. She is considering leaving university for a less stressful environment.
      Which is the most appropriate form of psychotherapy for this woman?

      Your Answer: Network therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Treatment for Social Phobia: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

      Social phobia is a type of anxiety disorder that can cause panic and avoidance of social situations. For patients with this condition, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is often the best treatment option. CBT can help patients identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to their anxiety, and it often includes exposure therapy as a component.

      Other treatment options, such as vocational counselling or psychoanalytic psychotherapy, may not be as effective for social phobia. Suggesting these options could reinforce the patient’s belief that their symptoms cannot be treated therapeutically. Network therapy is designed for substance abusers, and self-help groups may be helpful for some patients, but only if they can manage their anxiety enough to participate effectively.

      In summary, for patients with social phobia, cognitive behavioural therapy is the most effective treatment option. It can help patients overcome their anxiety and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.7
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old male patient complains of a tender swelling in the natal cleft...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient complains of a tender swelling in the natal cleft that has been present for two days. Upon examination, three midline pits are observed, and there is a fluctuant swelling to the right of the natal cleft. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perianal abscess

      Correct Answer: Pilonidal abscess

      Explanation:

      Pilonidal and Perianal Abscesses

      Pilonidal abscesses are a type of inflammatory condition that occurs when hair produces a sinus. These abscesses are typically found in or near the midline of the body, close to the natal cleft. They are more common in Caucasian males who are in their thirties, particularly those who are obese or have a lot of body hair.

      When someone presents with a pilonidal abscess, they will typically undergo an incision and drainage procedure. However, if the disease becomes non-healing or recurrent, a more definitive procedure such as excision may be required.

      Perianal and ischiorectal abscesses, on the other hand, are caused by an infection of the anal glands found in the intersphincteric space. These abscesses can also be treated with incision and drainage procedures, but may require more extensive treatment if they become chronic or recurrent.

      Overall, the causes and treatments of pilonidal and perianal abscesses is important for anyone who may be at risk for these conditions. By seeking prompt medical attention and following a proper treatment plan, individuals can manage these conditions and prevent them from becoming more serious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.8
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer and four days later presents with vomiting, a distended abdomen, and absent bowel sounds. Her blood results show a CRP of 124 mg/l and a WBC count of 5.2 * 109/l. Nursing notes reveal no bowel movements since surgery. What is the probable cause of her clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Peritonitis

      Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Simple constipation is unlikely in this patient due to the presence of vomiting and absent bowel sounds, which suggests paralytic ileus, especially so soon after surgery. Additionally, constipation alone would not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and signs. As the patient underwent a right hemicolectomy, the caecum would have been removed, making caecal volvulus an unlikely diagnosis. The raised CRP is a normal response to surgery. While peritonitis is a possibility, it would typically present with severe abdominal pain, tenderness, guarding, and more significantly elevated inflammatory markers and fever. Hirschsprung’s disease, a congenital condition, is highly unlikely to present for the first time in a 67-year-old patient.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and...

    Incorrect

    • When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and harms to the patient. Among radiographic investigations, which ones are associated with the highest radiation exposure?

      Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Correct Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Explanation:

      Radiation Doses from Medical X-Rays: A Comparison

      Medical X-rays are a common diagnostic tool used to detect and diagnose various medical conditions. However, they also expose patients to ionizing radiation, which can increase the risk of cancer and other health problems. Here is a comparison of the radiation doses from different types of X-rays:

      Abdominal X-ray: The radiation dose from an abdominal X-ray is equivalent to 5 months of natural background radiation.

      Chest X-ray: The radiation dose from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 10 days of natural background radiation.

      Abdomen-Pelvis CT: The radiation dose from an abdomen-pelvis CT is equivalent to 3 years of natural background radiation.

      DEXA Scan: The radiation dose from a DEXA scan is equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      Extremity X-rays: The radiation dose from X-rays of extremities, such as knees and ankles, is similar to that of a DEXA scan, equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      It is important to note that while the radiation doses from medical X-rays are relatively low, they can still add up over time and increase the risk of cancer. Patients should always discuss the risks and benefits of any medical imaging procedure with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      9.8
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone to discuss her back pain...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone to discuss her back pain that has been ongoing for three months. She reports that the pain is most severe in the morning and is accompanied by stiffness, which gradually improves throughout the day with physical activity. The pain is primarily located in her lumbar spine, and she has been struggling to complete her daily tasks. Despite not having examined the patient, the GP suspects an inflammatory cause, specifically ankylosing spondylitis. What aspect of this history would raise the GP's suspicion the most?

      Your Answer: Pain improves with exercise

      Explanation:

      Exercise is known to improve inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. This type of pain is typically worse in the morning or with rest, but eases with physical activity. Other causes of inflammatory back pain include rheumatoid arthritis. Difficulty with activities of daily living and insidious onset are non-specific and may be seen in other types of back pain. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in men, but can still occur in women.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
      During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur

      Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction

      The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.

      The results of her blood tests are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
      - ALP: 240 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - AST: 430 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - INR: 1.8
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 331 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.5 * 109/l

      An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left base has a stony dull percussion note. A chest x-ray reveals opacification in the lower lobe of the left lung. What is the most suitable test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration

      Explanation:

      Left Pleural Effusion Diagnosis

      A left pleural effusion is present in this patient, which is likely to be significant in size. To diagnose this condition, a diagnostic aspiration is necessary. The fluid obtained from the aspiration should be sent for microscopy, culture, and cytology to determine the underlying cause of the effusion. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, it is essential to perform a diagnostic aspiration and analyze the fluid obtained to provide the best possible care for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old man presents with symptoms of urinary colic. He has suffered from...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents with symptoms of urinary colic. He has suffered from recurrent episodes of frank haematuria over the past few days. On examination he has a right loin mass and a varicocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis

      Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal Adenocarcinoma, also known as a Grawitz tumour, can present with symptoms such as haematuria and clot colic. It has the potential to metastasize to bone.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management

      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.

      Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.

      Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      33.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Plastics (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/3) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Passmed