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Question 1
Correct
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A 22-year-old traveler returns from a recent backpacking trip to Africa with headaches and intermittent fevers. He describes intense chills, followed by feeling hot and then sweating profusely.
On examination, he is drowsy and has a temperature of 39.4°C. You perform a bedside blood glucose measurement, which is 1.9 mmol/l. There are no palpable lymph nodes or rash, but examination of his abdomen reveals hepatosplenomegaly. Intravenous glucose is administered, and his blood glucose improves to 4.4 mmol/l.
His blood tests today are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 7.8 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
Platelets: 46 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
White blood cell count: 10.7 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
Sodium: 134 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
Potassium: 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
Urea: 11.5 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
Creatinine: 278 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
What is the SINGLE most appropriate first-line treatment?Your Answer: Artemisinin-based combination therapy
Explanation:Malaria is an infectious disease caused by the female Anopheles mosquito. It is caused by the Plasmodium parasite and there are five species that can infect humans. These species are Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.
The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a cyclical occurrence of cold chills, followed by intense heat, and then profuse sweating. Upon examination, patients with malaria may show signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen. The full blood count often reveals a combination of anemia and low platelet count.
Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and is responsible for most deaths. Severe malaria is indicated by symptoms such as impaired consciousness, seizures, low blood sugar, anemia, kidney problems, difficulty breathing, and spontaneous bleeding. Given the presentation, it is likely that this patient has Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
Thick and thin blood films are the gold-standard diagnostic tests for malaria. However, it is possible for a patient to have malaria even if the blood film is negative. In such cases, at least two additional blood films should be obtained within 48 hours to confirm or exclude the diagnosis.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) is currently recommended for the treatment of Plasmodium falciparum malaria. ACT involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based drugs with another drug from a different class. Some companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. If ACT is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used. Quinine should be combined with another drug, usually oral doxycycline, for prolonged treatment.
Severe or complicated cases of Plasmodium falciparum malaria should be managed in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated malaria, or those at high risk of developing severe disease. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous treatment, and when the patient
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male with schizophrenia is brought to the emergency department by the CPN after admitting to ingesting approximately 100 aspirin tablets one hour ago. He is now experiencing tinnitus. When would you initially measure salicylate levels in this patient?
Your Answer: 4 hours post ingestion
Correct Answer: 2 hours post ingestion
Explanation:If a person shows symptoms after ingesting salicylate, their salicylate levels should be measured 2 hours after ingestion. However, if the person does not show any symptoms, the levels should be measured 4 hours after ingestion. It is important to note that if enteric coated preparations are taken, salicylate levels may continue to increase for up to 12 hours. Therefore, it is necessary to regularly check the levels every 2-3 hours until they start to decrease.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Incorrect
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After reviewing the management of a pediatric patient who recently presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), your consultant has scheduled a teaching session to assess the trainee's understanding of DKA management. You are tasked with determining the target minimum rate of blood glucose reduction in a pediatric patient receiving fluid and insulin therapy.
Your Answer: 1 mmol/L/hr
Correct Answer: 3 mmol/L/hr
Explanation:Patients who are being treated with insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should expect their plasma glucose levels to decrease by at least 3 mmol/L per hour. The purpose of the insulin infusion is to correct both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. It is important to regularly review and check the insulin infusion to ensure it is working effectively. If any of the following are observed, the infusion rate should be adjusted accordingly: capillary ketones are not decreasing by at least 0.5 mmol/L per hour, venous bicarbonate is not increasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, or plasma glucose is not decreasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 4
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.
What is the first test to be done in this case?Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.
The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.
The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.
Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.
Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.
The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’. She hears the voice at the exact same time as thinking the thoughts.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?Your Answer: Echo de la pensée
Correct Answer: Gedankenlautwerden
Explanation:Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is brought in by his parents with a history of breathing difficulties, fever, and a cough. He is irritable and having trouble with feeding. On examination, his temperature is 38.6°C, and you hear fine inspiratory crackles across his chest.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a short-term infection of the lower respiratory tract that primarily affects infants aged 2 to 6 months. It is commonly caused by a viral infection, with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) being the most prevalent culprit. RSV infections are most prevalent during the winter months, typically occurring between November and March. In the UK, bronchiolitis is the leading cause of hospitalization among infants.
The typical symptoms of bronchiolitis include fever, difficulty breathing, coughing, poor feeding, irritability, apnoeas (more common in very young infants), and wheezing or fine inspiratory crackles. To confirm the diagnosis, a nasopharyngeal aspirate can be taken for RSV rapid testing. This test is useful in preventing unnecessary further testing and facilitating the isolation of the affected infant.
Most infants with acute bronchiolitis experience a mild, self-limiting illness that does not require hospitalization. Treatment primarily focuses on supportive measures, such as ensuring adequate fluid and nutritional intake and controlling the infant’s temperature. The illness typically lasts for 7 to 10 days.
However, hospital referral and admission are recommended in certain cases, including poor feeding (less than 50% of usual intake over the past 24 hours), lethargy, a history of apnoea, a respiratory rate exceeding 70 breaths per minute, nasal flaring or grunting, severe chest wall recession, cyanosis, oxygen saturations below 90% for children aged 6 weeks and over, and oxygen saturations below 92% for babies under 6 weeks or those with underlying health conditions.
If hospitalization is necessary, treatment involves supportive measures, supplemental oxygen, and nasogastric feeding as needed. There is limited or no evidence supporting the use of antibiotics, antivirals, bronchodilators, corticosteroids, hypertonic saline, or adrenaline nebulizers in the management of bronchiolitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 52-year-old businessman returns from a visit to Los Angeles with difficulty breathing and chest pain that worsens with deep breaths. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:
pH: 7.48
pO2: 7.4 kPa
PCO2: 3.1 kPa
HCO3-: 24.5 mmol/l
Which ONE statement about his ABG is correct?Your Answer: He has a respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is crucial in evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. While the normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analysers, they generally fall within the following ranges: pH of 7.35 – 7.45, pO2 of 10 – 14 kPa, PCO2 of 4.5 – 6 kPa, HCO3- of 22 – 26 mmol/l, and base excess of -2 – 2 mmol/l.
In this particular case, the patient’s medical history raises concerns about a potential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The relevant ABG findings are as follows: significant hypoxia (indicating type 1 respiratory failure), elevated pH (alkalaemia), low PCO2, and normal bicarbonate levels. These findings suggest that the patient is experiencing primary respiratory alkalosis.
By analyzing the ABG results, healthcare professionals can gain valuable insights into a patient’s respiratory function and acid-base status, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
Which specific beta-blocker is approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure?Your Answer: Nebivolol
Explanation:Currently, there are three beta-blockers that have been approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol.
Chronic HF is a common clinical syndrome resulting from coronary artery disease (CAD), HTN, valvular heart disease, and/or primary cardiomyopathy. There is now conclusive evidence that β-blockers, when added to ACE inhibitors, substantially reduce mortality, decrease sudden death, and improve symptoms in patients with HF. Despite the overwhelming evidence and guidelines that mandate the use of β-blockers in all HF patients without contraindications, many patients do not receive this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore throat that has been bothering them for the past 10 days. After conducting a physical examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they may have glandular fever. You proceed to order blood tests.
Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of glandular fever?Your Answer: Eosinophilia
Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis
Explanation:In the blood tests, certain findings can support a diagnosis of glandular fever. One of these findings is lymphocytosis, which refers to an increased number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. In glandular fever, the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is the most common cause, and it primarily infects and activates lymphocytes, leading to their increased numbers in the blood.
On the other hand, neutropenia (a decreased number of neutrophils) and neutrophilia (an increased number of neutrophils) are not typically associated with glandular fever. Neutrophils are another type of white blood cell that helps fight off bacterial infections. In glandular fever, the primary involvement is with lymphocytes rather than neutrophils.
Monocytosis, which refers to an increased number of monocytes, can also be seen in glandular fever. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. Their increased numbers can be a result of the immune system’s response to the Epstein-Barr virus.
Eosinophilia, an increased number of eosinophils, is not commonly associated with glandular fever. Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, and their elevation is more commonly seen in those conditions.
In summary, the presence of lymphocytosis and possibly monocytosis in the blood tests would support a diagnosis of glandular fever, while neutropenia, neutrophilia, and eosinophilia are less likely to be associated with this condition.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.
Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.
It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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