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Question 1
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A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?
Your Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
2. Increased vascular permeability.
3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years. Investigations reveal: Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110), Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4). Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?
Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D
Explanation:This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1
Explanation:Type 1 diabetes is a chronic illness characterized by the body’s inability to produce insulin due to the autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas. Approximately 95% of patients with type 1 DM have either HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4. Although the genetic aspect of type 1 DM is complex, with multiple genes involved, there is a high sibling relative risk. Whereas dizygotic twins have a 5-6% concordance rate for type 1 DM, monozygotic twins will share this diagnosis more than 50% of the time by the age of 40 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone 40 mg
Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg
Explanation:The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in the measured site?
Your Answer: A T score of -2.6
Explanation:Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
Z-score values of –2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above –2.0 SD as within the expected range for age. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: Free T4
Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan
Explanation:Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On examination, her pulse is 120 bpm and regular and BP is 90/60. Her JVP is not seen, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. There is evidence of a right mastectomy. Abdominal and neurological examination is normal. Short synacthen test was ordered and the results came as follows: Time (min): 0, 30, 60. Cortisol (nmol/l): 90, 130, 145. Which two of the following would be your immediate management?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 50 mg iv tds
Correct Answer: Intravenous normal saline 1l in first hour
Explanation:Synacthen test interpretation:
– Basal Cortisol level should be greater than 180nmol/L
– 30min or 60min Cortisol should be greater than 420nmol/L (whatever the basal level)
– The increment should be at least 170nmol/L, apart from in severely ill patients where adrenal output is already maximal.
The patient’s results show that she has Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
The guidelines include the following recommendations for emergency treatment:
Administer hydrocortisone: Immediate bolus injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously or intramuscularly followed by continuous intravenous infusion of 200 mg hydrocortisone per 24 hours (alternatively, 50 mg hydrocortisone per intravenous or intramuscular injection every 6 h)
Rehydrate with rapid intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of isotonic saline infusion within the first hour, followed by further intravenous rehydration as required (usually 4-6 L in 24 h; monitor for fluid overload in case of renal impairment and elderly patients)
Contact an endocrinologist for urgent review of the patient, advice on further tapering of hydrocortisone, and investigation of the underlying cause of the disease, including the diagnosis of primary versus secondary adrenal insufficiency
Tapering of hydrocortisone can be started after clinical recovery guided by an endocrinologist; in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement must be initiated (starting dose 100 μg fludrocortisone once daily) as soon as the daily glucocorticoid dose is below 50 mg of hydrocortisone every 24 hours -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand. What is the treatment of choice in this case?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
Short stature
Stocky habitus
Obesity
Developmental delay
Round face
Dental hypoplasia
Brachymetacarpals
Brachymetatarsals
Soft tissue calcification/ossification
The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describes it?
Your Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERM) that has been approved for use in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
A SERM interacts with oestrogen receptors, functioning as an agonist in some tissues and an antagonist in other tissues. Because of their unique pharmacologic properties, these agents can achieve the desired effects of oestrogen without the possible stimulatory effects on the breasts or uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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