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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and two episodes of haemoptysis over the past six weeks. She is an ex-smoker who quit 10 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years. A chest x-ray four weeks ago was normal, but her symptoms have persisted. On examination, she appears well and is not short of breath. Blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse rate is 70 bpm regular, and oxygen saturations are 98% in room air. Lung fields are clear, and there is no cyanosis, anaemia, or peripheral oedema. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
Your Answer: Send sputum for AAFBs
Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital immediately as a medical emergency
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Lung Cancer Patients
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines for the recognition and referral of suspected lung cancer patients. According to the guidelines, patients aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred urgently for an appointment within two weeks, even if their chest x-ray is normal. Additionally, patients with two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, or those with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be offered an urgent chest x-ray within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These guidelines aim to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of lung cancer, which is crucial for improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.
On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.
He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.
When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Treat with another course of antibiotics and review in two weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently
Explanation:Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis
Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You assess a 68-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and observe signs of cor pulmonale with notable pedal edema. His FEV1 is 43%, and during his recent hospitalization, his pO2 on room air was 7.5 kPa. What intervention would be the most effective in improving this patient's survival?
Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid
Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:One of the few interventions that has been proven to increase survival in COPD after quitting smoking is long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT). Patients with a pO2 level below 7.3 kPa should be offered LTOT, as well as those with a pO2 level between 7.3 – 8 kPa who have secondary polycythemia, nocturnal hypoxemia, peripheral edema, or pulmonary hypertension.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of increasing shortness of breath, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. She has a medical history of hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and is a former smoker. On physical examination, there are no significant findings. The following investigations were obtained:
Chest x-ray: Hyperinflated lung fields, normal heart size
Bloods: Sodium 131 mmol/l, Potassium 3.4 mmol/l, Urea 7.2 mmol/l, Creatinine 101 µmol/l, Hb 10.4 g/dl, MCV 91 fl, Plt 452 * 109/l, WBC 3.7 * 109/l
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent gastroscopy
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic
Explanation:If an ex-smoker experiences shortness of breath, weight loss, and hyponatremia, urgent investigation for lung cancer is necessary, even if their chest x-ray appears normal. This recommendation is in line with the current guidelines from NICE. Although gastrointestinal cancer cannot be ruled out, the absence of chronic blood loss indicated by a normal MCV is not entirely conclusive.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?
Your Answer: Increase inhaled steroid to maximum dose
Correct Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS
Explanation:BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment
According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.
This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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As the duty doctor, you encounter a 59-year-old woman who complains of increased cough and wheeze for the past 3 days. The patient has a history of COPD and is currently taking salbutamol and umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta). She has no other medical conditions, has not taken antibiotics for 2 years, and has not been admitted for acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient smokes 10 cigarettes daily and denies any changes in sputum production, colour, and thickness. Upon examination, she has mild wheezing and no focal chest signs. Her cardiovascular examination and vital signs are normal.
Which of the following options should be excluded from your management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Review in 6 weeks if no rapid or significant worsening of symptoms
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be prescribed in cases of acute exacerbation of COPD if there is purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. As this patient doesn’t exhibit these symptoms, prescribing oral antibiotics is not recommended.
Instead, increasing the frequency of inhaled bronchodilators is a suitable step in managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient’s mild wheeze should improve with this treatment.
NICE recommends a review in 6 weeks if there is no rapid or significant worsening of symptoms. However, if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, the patient should be reviewed sooner by the appropriate healthcare provider.
Prescribing oral steroids is appropriate for managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD as it can reduce inflammation and improve symptoms.
It is also appropriate to discuss smoking cessation with the patient, as they are still smoking. However, it should be documented if the patient is not interested in considering smoking cessation. Any opportunity for smoking cessation advice should be utilized.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.8ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.
Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.
T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.
Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.
To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.
CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)
What test should be done before starting azithromycin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECG
Explanation:An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old heavy smoker complains of morning cough and difficulty in breathing. Upon conducting a chest x-ray, hyperinflated lung fields are observed. Spirometry is arranged. Which of the following spirometry results would be indicative of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - reduced
Explanation:The spirometry results indicate an obstructive pattern, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
To determine airflow obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio must be less than 0.7.
NICE utilizes the FEV1 (compared to the expected value based on age, height, and gender) to classify the severity of COPD.
Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.
It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old gentleman presents for review. His notes indicate that he was recently treated with furosemide for heart failure after presenting with gradually increasing shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations. Despite taking the medication for the last week, he reports feeling no better and has marked exertional breathlessness. On examination, he is centrally cyanosed with finger clubbing and fine bibasal inspiratory crepitations. There is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Identifying the Correct Diagnosis for Breathlessness
A variety of conditions can cause breathlessness, making it difficult to arrive at a correct diagnosis. For instance, someone with shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations may be misdiagnosed with heart failure. However, a normal ECG and BNP can rule out cardiac failure.
To identify the correct diagnosis, a thorough clinical examination is necessary. In this case, the presence of finger clubbing narrows the options down to bronchiectasis, carcinoma, and pulmonary fibrosis. The additional features of cyanosis and bibasal fine crepitations strongly suggest that pulmonary fibrosis is the underlying diagnosis.
By carefully considering all the symptoms and conducting a comprehensive examination, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with breathlessness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to complete full sentences
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with a three day history of hearing a noise when he breathes. He has been feeling fatigued and has had a dry cough for a week, but upon further questioning he admits to coughing up blood and losing weight for several months. He is a heavy smoker of over 20 cigarettes per day for 45 years and has COPD with a high degree of reversibility, for which he is taking full doses of his bronchodilator inhalers. Initially, he thought he was developing a throat infection, but now the noise has become quite loud and he is experiencing shortness of breath. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry in the left lung and obvious stridor present. His oxygen saturation on air is 88%. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent chest x ray
Explanation:Understanding Stridor and its Association with Lung Cancer
Stridor is a respiratory sound characterized by a loud, harsh, and high-pitched noise. It is usually heard during inspiration and is caused by a partial obstruction of the airway, particularly in the trachea, larynx, or pharynx. In severe cases of upper airway obstruction, stridor may also occur during expiration, indicating tracheal or bronchial obstruction within the thoracic cavity.
Lung cancer is one of the conditions that can cause stridor, particularly small cell carcinomas that grow rapidly and metastasize to mediastinal lymph nodes early in the disease’s course. Patients with lung cancer may present with large intra-thoracic tumors, making it difficult to distinguish the primary tumor from lymph node metastases. The pressure on mediastinal structures can cause various symptoms, including hoarseness, hemi-diaphragm paralysis, dysphagia, and stridor due to compression of the major airways. Understanding the association between stridor and lung cancer can help in the early detection and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old teacher comes to the clinic complaining of cough and pleuritic chest pain that has been going on for 4 days. The patient has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, the patient's temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and pulse is 80/min. Upon auscultation of the chest, bronchial breathing is heard in the right base and the same area is dull to percussion. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral amoxicillin
Explanation:Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough. He has no past medical history of any cardiorespiratory disease and is a lifelong non-smoker. He reports that his cough is not improving and that he is now coughing up some 'thick green phlegm'. He denies any coughing up blood.
Upon examination, he is alert and oriented, with a temperature of 37.6°C, a regular pulse rate of 94 bpm, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 124/68 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals coarse crepitations in the left lower zone with some bronchial breath sounds.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No immediate treatment, send him for a chest x ray to guide the need for antibiotics
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, it is important to differentiate between non-pneumonic and pneumonic infections. In cases of non-pneumonic infections, antibiotics should not be given unless the patient is showing signs of severity. However, if chest signs are present, a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia should be made, and early administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent the development of severe illness.
While chest radiography and CRP levels are not useful in the acute setting of pneumonia, they may be indicated in certain cases. A chest x-ray may be necessary if treatment response is unsatisfactory or in smokers during the convalescent period. CRP levels can be helpful in making a decision about antibiotic treatment for individuals with symptoms of LRTI but no signs.
According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic therapy should not be routinely offered if the CRP concentration is less than 20 mg/litre. A delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered if the CRP concentration is between 20 mg/litre and 100 mg/litre, and antibiotic therapy should be offered if the CRP concentration is greater than 100 mg/litre. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively diagnose and manage community-acquired pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidance on the diagnosis of asthma in children, which of the following results constitute a positive THRESHOLD for diagnosing asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow variability of less than 20%
Explanation:Diagnostic Thresholds for Asthma Tests
FeNO tests, which measure nitric oxide levels in breath, are used to detect lung inflammation and asthma. The positive test threshold for adults is 40 ppb, while for children and young people it is 35 ppb or more. Obstructive spirometry, which measures FEV1/FVC ratio, has a positive test threshold of less than 70% for all age groups. Peak flow variability, which measures the difference between the highest and lowest peak flow readings, has a positive test threshold of over 20% for all age groups. While a peak flow variability of 50% is indicative of asthma, a threshold of 20% is used for diagnosis. It is important to note that some GP practices may not have access to FeNO testing equipment, which is a relatively new development in asthma diagnosis. Familiarizing oneself with these diagnostic thresholds is crucial in the context of NICE guidance, as the RCGP may test changes to guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has been a publican for 35 years. He is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week.
He did not worry too much about his symptoms because he is a non-smoker, the amount of blood was very small and he also has a cold with a productive cough.
He has no abnormality in his chest on examination.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:Lung Cancer and Passive Smoking
According to NICE NG12 guidelines, individuals with chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or those aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred for an appointment within two weeks. While smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, a small but significant proportion of cases are not linked to smoking. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) evaluates evidence on the carcinogenic risk to humans of various exposures, including tobacco, alcohol, infections, radiation, occupational exposures, and medications. The World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research (WCRF/AICR) evaluates evidence for other exposures, such as diet, overweight and obesity, and physical exercise.
Living with someone who smokes increases the risk of lung cancer in non-smokers by about a quarter. Exposure to passive smoke in the home is estimated to cause around 11,000 deaths every year in the UK from lung cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease. This patient, who is not a smoker, has worked for many years in an environment where he would have been exposed to significant levels of smoke over a prolonged period (passive smoking), which is a risk factor for lung cancer. It is important to note that the smoking ban in public places was only introduced in the UK over the period 2006 to 2007, so individuals like this patient would have been exposed to passive smoke for many years before this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with hypertension and obesity has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnoea after a visit to the sleep clinic. His AHI falls under the mild category with 12 apnoea/hypopnoea events/hour, and his Epworth score indicates mild excessive daytime sleepiness. As a group 1 driver, he is concerned about the impact on his driving and when he should inform the DVLA. When is it necessary to notify the DVLA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All stages
Explanation:If a person has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) and is a group 1 driver, they must inform the DVLA if they experience excessive daytime sleepiness (measured by an Epworth score of 11 or higher). However, if the OSA is mild (with an apnoea/hypopnoea index score of 5-15/hour) and doesn’t cause excessive daytime sleepiness, there is no need to notify the DVLA. For those with moderate or severe OSA, the DVLA must be informed and the individual must ensure that their symptoms are under control before driving.
Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of psoriasis complains of dyspnoea during physical activity. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 94% on room air, heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and his chest reveals diffuse fine inspiratory crackles. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.8. Which medication could be responsible for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate can lead to pulmonary fibrosis, while there is no evidence to suggest that terbinafine, paracetamol, montelukast, and tramadol have this side effect. The onset of pulmonary fibrosis due to low-dose methotrexate use can occur within weeks to months.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels
Explanation:According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test
Explanation:It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, including cough, shortness of breath, confusion, and diarrhea. He has recently returned from a long-term stay at a hotel in Spain. During the examination, you note a temperature of 39.2°C and signs of consolidation in the right lower lobe. Blood tests reveal an elevated white count and a sodium level of 128. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this man's pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long-term lung damage is common
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacillus. The disease is usually acquired from infected water supplies in cooling towers and air conditioning units. Although it is difficult to acquire, with a low attack rate of 5%, elderly individuals, smokers, and those with pre-existing chest disease are at a higher risk of developing the condition.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease are similar to those of the flu, including high fever (usually above 40°C), myalgias, and confusion. Treatment involves the use of ciprofloxacin or macrolides, and recovery is usually complete. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can be as high as 15-20%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1: FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made following the spirometry.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' requiring antibiotics two to three times a year.
According to NICE guidance, which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe an emergency oral steroid prescription to keep at home and use at the first signs of an exacerbation
Explanation:A patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular SABA use needs inhaled treatment added to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. The options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder. A regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA can be used in some patients with COPD but is not the priority here. A LABA is usually indicated in patients with an FEV1 of ≥ to 50%. NICE CKS COPD guidelines recommend inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line drugs for the treatment of COPD.
For reference:
SABA – short acting beta agonist
LABA – long acting beta agonist
SAMA – short acting muscarinic antagonist
LAMA – long acting muscarinic antagonist
ICS – inhaled corticosteroid. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Liam, a 19-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as required, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler and breathing out before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. However, he immediately repeats this process for the second dose without taking a break.
How could he improve his technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained sputum, shortness of breath on exertion, and a dull ache in the right side of his chest for the past two weeks. He used to smoke 10 cigarettes per day for many years but quit five years ago. He works as a heating engineer and admits to having worked with asbestos in the past before safety measures were mandatory. On examination of the respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings, and he is apyrexial. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine chest x ray and review in two weeks
Explanation:Understanding Asbestos Exposure and Mesothelioma
Asbestos is a group of minerals that occur naturally in the environment as bundles of fibres. Exposure to asbestos can lead to various health problems, including asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and other cancers. Smokers who are also exposed to asbestos have a higher risk of developing lung cancer. If you suspect that you have been exposed to asbestos, it is important to inform your physician and report any symptoms.
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that is commonly associated with asbestos exposure. Symptoms of mesothelioma may include chest pain, breathlessness, weight loss, fatigue, and sweats. In some cases, there may be evidence of effusion or pleural thickening on a chest X-ray. An occupational history is important in identifying potential exposure to asbestos.
According to NICE guidelines, individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss should be offered an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks to assess for mesothelioma. This is especially important for those who have been exposed to asbestos or have a history of smoking. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for those with mesothelioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.
On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough
Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old ex-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath. You can see from his records that over the last couple of months, he has had three courses of antibiotics for chest infections. He confirms that despite the recent treatments his symptoms have persisted and he continues to bring up sputum. He tells you that he has come to see you today because over the last week he has felt more unwell with increased shortness of breath, headache and dizziness.
On examination, he has obvious oedema of the face and upper body with facial plethora. There is marked venous distention affecting the upper chest and face. Soft stridor is audible.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)
Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.
The typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncope, and headache due to pressure effect. This gentleman is an ex-smoker and has a persistent productive cough that has not responded to repeated antibiotic use, which is suspicious of an underlying lung malignancy.
Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You have been asked to advise whether the household contacts of a case of pertussis need further management apart from antibiotics.
The household consists of the case who is a 2-year-old child, his siblings, who are 4 and 6 (and have had their immunisations to date), parents aged 31 and 33 and grandmother aged 63. There is also a lodger, a student aged 19, who is out of the house for much of the time.
You are aware that the case and his siblings should all complete their primary immunisation course and preschool boosters as planned. The mother did not receive the vaccine during pregnancy.
Which of the adults should be offered post-exposure immunisation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of them: the lodger, parents and grandmother
Explanation:Post-Exposure Immunisation for Pertussis: Guidelines and Recommendations
According to The Green Book, post-exposure immunisation with pertussis-containing vaccine should be offered to all household contacts over 10 years of age who have not received a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine in the last five years and no Td-IPV vaccine in the preceding month. This is a new recommendation in guidelines published in February 2011. The rationale for this is that the duration of immunity conferred by immunisation is increased by the addition of the preschool booster, which was only introduced in October 2001.
Children born before November 1996 would have been eligible for only three primary doses of (whole cell) pertussis-containing vaccine during infancy, and immunity is likely to have waned in these individuals. Therefore, contacts over 10 may benefit from a dose of pertussis-containing vaccine. Studies have shown the safety and immunogenicity of a tetanus/low dose diphtheria/low dose acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine in adolescents and adults up to 65.
It is important to note that all household contacts aged 10-64 should be offered post-exposure immunisation, not just those in closest contact with the case. This includes the lodger, parents, and grandmother in the given scenario. The 6-month-old case should complete their course of primary immunisation and have the preschool booster dose as planned, while the 3- and 5-year-old contacts should complete their normal course of primary vaccination and preschool booster as planned to prolong the duration of immunity.
In summary, understanding and implementing key national guidelines for respiratory problems, such as post-exposure immunisation for pertussis, is important for healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is a smoker but has no history of respiratory disease and regularly plays football. Upon admission, a chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax with a 3 cm rim of air. Aspiration is successful, and he is discharged. Two weeks later, a follow-up chest x-ray shows complete resolution. What is the most crucial advice to minimize his risk of future pneumothoraces?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:For non-smoking men, successful drainage can lead to a decrease in the risk of pneumothorax recurrence. The CAA recommends waiting for 2 weeks after drainage before flying if there is no remaining air. The British Thoracic Society previously advised against air travel for 6 weeks, but now suggests waiting only 1 week after a follow-up x-ray.
Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he has visited you today because one of the partners is unwilling to modify his inhaler treatment until he quits smoking. He is presently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed, but he is experiencing frequent wheezing episodes and has developed a cough at night. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alter his inhaler treatment and speak to the doctor concerned
Explanation:It is important to note that a patient’s decision to continue smoking should not be a reason to deny them treatment for their asthma. As a healthcare professional, it is your responsibility to bring this to the attention of the doctor involved and discuss the situation with them. This will also give the doctor an opportunity to explain their perspective on the matter. It is not recommended to bring this up during a practice meeting as it may come across as confrontational.
Simply changing the patient’s inhaler treatment will not address the issue of treatment being withheld. It is not acceptable to refuse to adjust their inhalers until they agree to seek smoking cessation treatment, as this can be seen as blackmail. Additionally, removing the patient from the practice list for not quitting smoking is not an appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease which has been relatively stable for the past two years since she quit smoking. Prior to quitting, she smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years. She denies any recent increase in cough or sputum production.
Upon examination, coarse wheezes are heard throughout both lung fields, consistent with previous findings. Additionally, finger clubbing is noted, which has not been documented in her medical records before.
What is the most appropriate course of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for an urgent chest x ray (report within five days)
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Chest X-Ray in Patients with Chronic Respiratory Problems
Unexplained changes in existing symptoms in patients with underlying chronic respiratory problems should prompt an urgent referral for chest x-ray. According to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered to assess for lung cancer in people aged 40 and over with specific unexplained symptoms or risk factors.
In patients with known COPD, the recent onset of finger clubbing should not be automatically assumed to be due to the pre-existing lung disease. Finger clubbing can occur in various types of lung cancer and mesothelioma, and it is less common in COPD alone. Therefore, an urgent referral for chest x-ray is necessary to assess for possible underlying malignancy. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd
Explanation:If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a chronic non-productive cough. She quit smoking 5 years ago and reports no weight loss. On examination, you note clubbing and fine bilateral crackles.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Consider Pulmonary Fibrosis in Patients with Persistent Breathlessness and Clubbing
It is crucial to consider a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis in patients who present with persistent breathlessness, dry cough, bilateral inspiratory crackles, and clubbing of the fingers. While COPD may be a possibility, it would not explain the presence of clubbing. Heart failure typically presents with other features such as orthopnoea, peripheral oedema, and a raised JVP. Bronchiectasis usually has a productive cough, and a pulmonary embolism typically presents more acutely with chest pain and without clubbing or bi-basal crackles. Therefore, it is essential to consider pulmonary fibrosis as a potential diagnosis in patients with these symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is worried about having asthma. What factor in his medical history would decrease the likelihood of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral tingling during episodes of dyspnoea
Explanation:According to the British Thoracic Society, if a patient experiences peripheral tingling, it is less likely that they have asthma. However, the patient’s smoking history doesn’t rule out asthma as a diagnosis, and given his age, it is highly unlikely that he has COPD.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction
Explanation:Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a follow-up appointment. His FEV1 is 60% of the predicted value. He has successfully quit smoking and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, he still experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing. There is no indication of asthma, eosinophilia, or FEV1 fluctuations.
What would be the best course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a combined long-acting beta2-agonist and long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler
Explanation:If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and doesn’t exhibit any features that suggest responsiveness to steroids or asthma, the recommended course of action according to the 2018 NICE guidelines is to introduce a combination of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone 400 micrograms daily for her asthma. She is currently using her salbutamol more often than normal. Over the past two weeks she has been suffering with a 'cold' and feels her breathing has worsened. She is bringing up a small amount of white phlegm but doesn't complain of fevers. She tends to become wheezy (particularly at night). There are no associated chest pains but she does feel her chest is tight.
On examination, she is afebrile and her oxygen saturations of 95% in air. Her peak flow is 340 L/min (usually 475 L/min). She is able to speak in full sentences. Her respiratory rate is 20 respirations per minute and pulse is 88 bpm.
What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe 40 mg prednisolone daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma Symptoms
Several important points should be considered when managing a patient with acute asthma symptoms. Firstly, it is important to note if the patient is already taking preventative treatment for asthma. If they are, an increase in the use of their salbutamol inhaler may indicate that their symptoms are worse than usual. Secondly, recent viral infections can trigger asthma symptoms. Additionally, the absence of discoloured thick phlegm and fever makes it less likely that the patient has a bacterial infection and therefore doesn’t require antibiotic therapy.
When managing acute asthma symptoms, it is important to note that changing inhalers may not be appropriate at this stage. Oxygen therapy is not necessary if the patient’s oxygen saturations are above 94% in air. A nebuliser may not be indicated if the patient’s breathing rate is not compromised and they are clinically stable. It may be beneficial to initially try a salbutamol inhaler before ipratropium bromide. These considerations can help guide the management of acute asthma symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.
She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.
She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.
Blood tests show:
Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)
WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.
Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a three month history of wheezing and dyspnoea whilst at work. His symptoms improve significantly when at home and at weekends.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simple coal worker's lung
Explanation:Occupational Asthma and Common Causative Substances
Occupational asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects individuals who are exposed to certain substances in their workplace. The most likely causative substance is isocyanate, which is commonly used in the manufacture of foams and plastics. Other substances that are commonly implicated in occupational asthma include flour/grain, adhesives, metals, resins, colophony, fluxes, latex, animals, aldehydes, and wood dust. Although cotton dust can also be associated with occupational asthma, it is less recognized than isocyanates.
Each year, there are an estimated 1500 to 3000 cases of occupational asthma reported. Symptoms of occupational asthma typically include coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath. It is important for individuals who work in industries where these substances are present to be aware of the potential risks and to take appropriate precautions to protect their respiratory health.
It is important to note that asbestos exposure is associated with a range of respiratory conditions, including pleural plaques, pleural thickening, pleural effusions, interstitial lung disease, mesothelioma, and lung carcinoma, but not occupational asthma. Silica exposure, which is found in coal dust, can result in pulmonary fibrosis. Simple coal worker’s disease is a nodular interstitial lung disease that is also associated with coal dust exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Liam is a 20-year-old man who presents to you with difficulty breathing. He has a medical history of asthma since childhood and uses steroid inhalers regularly.
During the examination, Liam appears breathless but can complete his sentences in one breath. His heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and his respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. You measure his peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which is 35% of his predicted PEFR. There is a widespread wheeze heard on auscultation of his chest.
Liam's symptoms have been rapidly worsening for the past 2 hours.
Based on the history and examination, which of the following features indicates that Liam has severe acute asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Explanation:Understanding Acute Asthma: Symptoms and Severity
Acute asthma is a condition that is typically observed in individuals who have a history of asthma. It is characterized by worsening dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing that doesn’t respond to salbutamol. Acute asthma attacks may be triggered by respiratory tract infections. Patients with acute severe asthma are classified into three categories: moderate, severe, or life-threatening.
Moderate acute asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value, normal speech, a respiratory rate (RR) of less than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of less than 110 beats per minute. Severe acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, inability to complete sentences, an RR of more than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of more than 110 beats per minute. Life-threatening acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of less than 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation levels of less than 92%, a silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension, and exhaustion, confusion, or coma.
It is important to note that a normal pCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should be classified as life-threatening. Understanding the symptoms and severity of acute asthma can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients experiencing an acute asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised by one week of catarrhal illness, followed by a dry hacking cough, which is now paroxysmal, and she has vomited twice after coughing.
On examination, she is afebrile, and her chest sounds clear. She was previously well, but she is unsure of her vaccination history as she lived abroad as a child.
She lives with her husband and two children, aged 18 months and 8. The children have not been immunised against pertussis. You suspect she may have pertussis.
While awaiting confirmation, who should be offered antibiotics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nobody
Explanation:Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Pertussis
When managing a suspected or confirmed case of pertussis, it is important to offer prophylactic antibiotics to reduce transmission if the case presents within 21 days of onset and a vulnerable contact is present in the household. All household contacts, regardless of age or immunisation status, should be offered antibiotics. Antibiotics may not alter the clinical course of the illness, but they can eliminate the organism from the respiratory tract, reducing person-to-person transmission. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to 10 years, pregnant women, healthcare workers, immunocompromised individuals, and those with chronic illnesses. The maternal pertussis vaccine programme has been highly effective in preventing disease for infants less than 2 months of age. Therefore, the definition of vulnerable infants has been amended to include unimmunised infants born ≤32 weeks, unimmunised infants born >32 weeks whose mothers did not receive maternal pertussis vaccine after 16 weeks and at least 2 weeks before delivery, and infants aged 2 months or over who are unimmunised or partially immunised. It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, including the management of pertussis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to frequent episodes of shortness of breath and wheeze during physical education lessons at school and when out playing with friends. He also has been coughing and complaining of chest tightness at night. Examination and vital signs are within normal limits. Peak flow is slightly reduced based on height.
What is the most appropriate next step for diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of asthma in adults should include bronchodilator reversibility testing, while children aged 5-16 should also undergo this test if feasible. Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide (FeNO) testing is not recommended as the initial step for diagnosing asthma in children, but may be considered in cases of diagnostic uncertainty where spirometry is normal or obstructive with negative bronchodilator reversibility. Methacholine bronchial challenge is not used in children and should only be considered in adults if other tests have not provided a clear diagnosis. Peak flow readings may be offered in children aged 5-16 with normal or obstructive spirometry and positive FeNO. While symptoms may indicate asthma, further objective testing is necessary, starting with spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing in children aged 5-16. A diagnosis of asthma in this age group may be made with positive bronchodilator reversibility or positive FeNO with positive peak flow variability.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract infection, who is also housebound due to motor neurone disease, you review her medications. What regular medication/s should you consider initiating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:It is recommended to provide daily vitamin D supplements to all patients who are confined to their homes.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic
Explanation:As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a medical history of COPD, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism presented to your clinic for follow-up. He was recently released from the hospital after being diagnosed with pneumonia. According to his discharge summary, he had an allergic reaction to co-trimoxazole during his hospital stay, resulting in the discontinuation of one of his regular medications. He has been instructed to consult with his GP about this medication. Which medication is most likely to have been stopped due to the drug allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You review a 65-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) following clinical assessment and spirometry at your practice.
Which of the following tests should always be performed in addition to spirometry in the initial diagnosis of COPD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrocardiography
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for COPD
In addition to spirometry, it is recommended that patients with COPD undergo several diagnostic tests at the time of diagnosis. These tests include a chest x-ray to rule out other potential lung pathologies, a full blood count to assess for anemia or polycythemia, and a calculation of body mass index.
Depending on the patient’s history and examination findings, other diagnostic tests may be necessary. For example, if asthma is suspected, serial peak flow measurements may be indicated. If signs or symptoms of cor pulmonale are present, an ECG or echocardiogram may be necessary. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage COPD in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old lady with an acute exacerbation of asthma. She reports that she previously had a dry cough which has now become productive and is associated with increased difficulty in breathing. She is able to speak normally, has a PEFR 50% of her best. Her observations include: RR 24/min, O2 sats 95%, pulse 90 bpm and is apyrexial.
On examination, a wheeze is heard bilaterally. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles. She has already been given salbutamol nebulisers from the practice nurse. Three years ago, she had a life-threatening asthma exacerbation and reports this doesn't feel as bad as that.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss with on-call medical team
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Hospital Admission for Acute Asthma Exacerbations
When it comes to acute asthma exacerbations, it is important to know when hospital admission is necessary. According to NICE guidance, a life-threatening asthma exacerbation is an obvious reason for hospitalization. However, there are cases where a severe or even moderate attack may require hospital monitoring and treatment.
NICE advises clinicians to consider hospital admission for patients with severe asthma attacks that persist after initial bronchodilator treatment. This also applies to patients with moderate asthma exacerbations who have had a previous near-fatal asthma attack.
For example, if a patient is experiencing a moderate exacerbation that may be developing into an acute severe exacerbation, hospital referral should be considered. This is evidenced by a PEFR of 50%, which is the lower end of a moderate attack, along with a potentially rising respiratory rate and heart rate. Even if the patient is not bordering on an acute severe exacerbation, a referral should be considered if they have previously had a life-threatening attack and have not responded adequately to nebulizers.
While amoxicillin and prednisolone may be options, it is important to review the patient earlier than 48 hours if a referral to the hospital is not felt to be appropriate. Intramuscular methylprednisolone is considered as an alternative to oral prednisolone if the patient cannot swallow the medication. It is not recommended to increase the inhaled corticosteroid dose during an exacerbation as an alternative to oral corticosteroids.
In summary, understanding NICE guidance on hospital admission for acute asthma exacerbations is crucial for clinicians to provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old construction worker presents to your clinic as a temporary patient. He reports experiencing fever, malaise, and a dry cough that has gradually worsened over the past two weeks. Several other workers who are residing in the same dormitory as him have also fallen ill. On examination, he appears relatively healthy, but you note mild pharyngitis and scattered wheezing and crackles upon chest auscultation. Additionally, he has a rash that you suspect is erythema multiforme. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:Mycoplasma Infection and Treatment
The history of epidemic pneumonia, slow onset of symptoms, and erythema multiforme suggest the possibility of mycoplasma infection. In mycoplasma, the appearance on CXR is often worse than clinical examination, and the presence of cold agglutins or rising mycoplasma serology can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment with clarithromycin or erythromycin for 7-14 days is recommended, with doxycycline as an alternative and quinolones as an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old patient with multiple health problems has undergone a medication review at his GP surgery. He has a history of asthma and hypertension. He presents to the Emergency department with an episode of bronchospasm.
Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Most Likely Cause of Bronchospasm in a Patient with Asthma
Examiners often use terms like most likely to test a candidate’s ability to reason. In primary care, where there may be multiple causes, prioritizing treatment options is crucial. In a patient with a history of asthma experiencing bronchospasm, propranolol is the most likely cause, and its use should be avoided. While bronchospasm is reported in aspirin-sensitive patients and paradoxical bronchospasm in some patients treated with salmeterol, beta-blockers like propranolol can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma.
According to the British National Formulary, beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. However, in some cases, a cardioselective beta-blocker may be necessary for a co-existing condition like heart failure or following a myocardial infarction. In such situations, a specialist should initiate treatment with a low dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker like atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, or acebutolol. These drugs have a lesser effect on airways resistance but are not free of this side-effect.
ACE inhibitors like ramipril are inhibitors of the metabolism of bradykinin and can cause cough. Bronchospasm is also reported as an adverse event associated with ACE inhibition, although it is very rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man presents with a productive cough that has lasted for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath over the past two days and reports feeling weak and lethargic. He also has a fever and rigors. His wife brought him to the community Emergency Medical Unit (EMU) as she was concerned about his rapid deterioration.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused.
Initial investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 18 * 109/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal range, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/l and a potassium level of 3.7 mmol/l. His urea level is 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine level is 130 µmol/l. A chest X-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.
What is his CURB-65 score based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature, measuring 38.9º. Their blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg and they appear to be distressed, but not confused. Initial tests indicate that their hemoglobin level is 134 g/l and their platelet count is currently unknown.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.
As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture
Explanation:Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath for several months. He has a history of hay fever and eczema. On examination, the patient appears well at rest with normal vital signs. Mild expiratory wheezing is noted, and his peak expiratory flow rate is 85% of predicted. A recent spirometry test was negative.
What would be the most suitable course of action for diagnosing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for this patient is asthma with a mild exacerbation, even if the spirometry test result is negative. Further investigation is necessary, and a fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A FeNO result of >35ppb would be diagnostic for this patient. Another spirometry test is unlikely to provide more clarity. Treatment for this patient includes a salbutamol reliever inhaler and a preventer inhaler. A respiratory referral is not necessary at this time since there are no complications to the diagnosis or treatment. Although the patient is atopic, there are no concerning risk factors in the history or examination that warrant a chest x-ray.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with lip swelling and wheezing following the blowing up of a latex balloon.
During examination, she displays visibly swollen lips and an urticarial rash. Her respiratory rate is 40/min and bilateral wheezing is detected on auscultation.
What is the appropriate course of action for follow-up after initial emergency treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to a specialist allergy clinic
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic for proper management. In the case of this boy, specialist input and education for his caregivers and school may be necessary. Prescribing a 300 microgram adrenaline injector is not recommended as it is the incorrect dose for his age. Instead, he should be given two 150 microgram adrenaline injectors with appropriate training provided. Referral for patch testing may not be sufficient as more rigorous follow-up is needed after anaphylaxis. Regular antihistamines may be necessary if ongoing symptoms such as urticaria are present, but this is not indicated in the question.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Can carbon monoxide poisoning cause pink skin and mucosae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue skin and mucosae
Explanation:Pink skin and mucosae are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.
What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds
Explanation:To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.
For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.
To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. After receiving nebulised salbutamol, she stabilises and you are requested to assess her before discharge. She reports using only a salbutamol inhaler (100 mcg) as needed and identifies grass pollen as the most common trigger. Her current peak flow is 380 l/min (predicted 440 l/min) and her inhaler technique is satisfactory. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add inhaled beclomethasone 200mcg bd
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is safe to use short-acting/long-acting beta 2-agonists, inhaled and oral corticosteroids as recommended by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, even if the patient has asthma that is not well-controlled with a SABA.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.
The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.
It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You review a discharge summary from your local emergency department about a 40-year-old man on your practice list who presented to their department following an episode of haemoptysis. The patient smokes 20 cigarettes a day, there were no signs of infection and they have a past medical history of asthma. A chest X-ray, full blood count, and CRP were normal.
What course of action should be taken based on this discharge summary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to respiratory team
Explanation:If a patient who is 40 years old or older presents with unexplained haemoptysis, it is important to refer them using the suspected cancer pathway within 2 weeks to rule out lung cancer. Even if a chest X-ray appears normal, it should not be used to dismiss the referral.
While an asthma review may be necessary, it would not address the issue of unexplained haemoptysis. Similarly, advising the patient to quit smoking is important for reducing the risk of multiple malignancies, but it doesn’t address the immediate concern.
Delaying the referral for a face-to-face follow-up in 2 weeks is not appropriate, as it would only delay further investigation of the haemoptysis. Additionally, waiting 6 weeks to perform a repeat chest X-ray would be appropriate for pneumonia consolidation, but it would unnecessarily delay further investigation of the haemoptysis in this case.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What statement about cough is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis is usually associated with purulent sputum
Explanation:Cough Characteristics and Associated Conditions
A bovine cough, resembling the sound of cattle, is often heard in cases of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is commonly caused by lung cancer. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by the production of large amounts of purulent sputum. In women, chronic cough without airways disease is more common, and reflux is often the underlying cause. In cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a productive cough is typical, but it may become non-productive in the end stages of the disease. These distinct cough characteristics can provide valuable clues in diagnosing and managing various respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female complains of a chronic cough and sensation of wheezing following physical activity. What factor would increase the likelihood of an asthma diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen after taking aspirin
Explanation:A cough that produces sputum, symptoms only after an upper respiratory tract infection, and peripheral pins and needles are all factors that make a diagnosis of asthma less likely.
When considering asthma, it is important to take into account recurrent episodes of symptoms that may be triggered by viral infections, exposure to allergens, NSAIDs/beta-blockers, and exacerbated by exercise, cold air, and emotions/laughter in children. It is also important to note recorded observations of wheezing, which should be documented by a clinician due to varying use of language. Symptom variability is another factor to consider, as asthma is typically worse at night or early in the morning. A personal history of atopy, such as eczema or allergic rhinitis, should also be taken into account. Additionally, the absence of symptoms of alternative diagnoses, such as COPD, dysfunctional breathing, or obesity, should be considered. Finally, a historical record of variable peak flows or FEV1 can also be helpful in diagnosing asthma.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the hospital a month ago due to an exacerbation of COPD. He reports feeling well with no cough or breathing issues. Over the past year, he has experienced four exacerbations that required steroid treatment, including his recent hospitalization. The patient inquires about any potential interventions to decrease the frequency of his exacerbations.
Currently, the patient is taking a combination inhaler of fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium/vilanterol and salbutamol.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Explanation:Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment is the recommended option for COPD patients who meet certain criteria and continue to have exacerbations. NICE suggests considering prophylactic oral macrolide therapy, such as azithromycin, for individuals who have had more than three exacerbations requiring steroid therapy and at least one exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year.
Referral to secondary care for consideration of nebulisers is not appropriate for this patient as they are not experiencing distressing or disabling breathlessness despite maximal therapy using inhalers.
Referral to secondary care for consideration of phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors is not applicable for this patient as they do not have severe disease with persistent symptoms and exacerbations despite optimal inhaled and pharmacological therapy.
Starting the patient on long term corticosteroids is not recommended in primary care and requires referral to a respiratory specialist.
Starting the patient on oral mucolytic therapy is not necessary as they do not have a chronic cough productive of sputum.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.
Her medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis affecting the right leg eight years ago. She is not on any current regular medication.
On examination, her heart rate is 108 bpm, blood pressure is 104/68, respiratory rate is 24, oxygen saturations are 94% in room air and she is afebrile. She has no calf or leg swelling.
You suspect she might have a pulmonary embolism and there is nothing to find to suggest an alternative cause.
You calculate her two-level PE Wells score.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit as an emergency
Explanation:Calculating the Wells Score for Pulmonary Embolism
To determine the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE), healthcare professionals use the Wells score. This score is calculated based on several factors, including clinical examination consistent with deep vein thrombosis, pulse rate, immobilization or recent surgery, past medical history, haemoptysis, cancer, and the likelihood of an alternative diagnosis.
If the two-level Wells score is more than 4 points, hospital admission should be arranged for an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram. If the score is 4 or lower, a D-dimer blood test should be arranged. A negative result may indicate an alternative diagnosis, while a positive result should be managed the same way as a two-level Wells score of more than 4.
It is important to note that HASBLED and CHADS2VASC scoring are used in the management of patients with atrial fibrillation, not pulmonary embolism. By using the Wells score, healthcare professionals can quickly and accurately determine the likelihood of a patient having a PE and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of acute severe asthma in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60 mg daily for at least 10 days
Explanation:Effective Treatment for Acute Asthma
When it comes to treating acute asthma, steroid tablets and injected steroids are equally effective. A dose of oral prednisolone of 40-50 mg per day for at least five days or intravenous hydrocortisone 400 mg can be used. It is important to continue taking prednisolone until recovery, which should be a minimum of five days. Additionally, it is important to not stop inhaled corticosteroids during the prescription of oral corticosteroids. By following these key points, patients can effectively manage their acute asthma symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with a complaint of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic and you observe that his previous best peak flow readings were 400 L/min. What is the threshold that indicates acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >25
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Assessment and severity of acute asthma are common topics in exams. The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which should be familiar to healthcare professionals.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or an inability to complete sentences in one breath. The aim of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 94-98%.
In the case of this man, the only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack is a respiratory rate of >25. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these indicators and to follow the appropriate management guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.
What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What PEFR variation over a two-week period is indicative of asthma diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less than 10% variation or less than 30 litres per minute on any day
Explanation:Tests for Diagnosing Asthma
The diagnosis of asthma can be challenging, but there are several tests available to help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis. One such test is peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability, which involves measuring PEF readings four or more times per day. A variation of more than 20% is highly suggestive of asthma, although some patients may have lower variability.
Other tests include fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO), spirometry, and bronchodilator reversibility. FeNO levels of 40 parts per billion or more are considered positive for asthma in patients aged 17 and over. Obstructive spirometry, indicated by a forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio of less than 70%, is also a positive test. Bronchodilator reversibility is positive if there is an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more in patients aged 17 and over.
It is important to note that there are caveats and age limitations to these tests, and healthcare professionals should refer to the latest NICE guidance NG80 for more detailed information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.
Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varenicline
Explanation:Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent
Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.
The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that has been worsening over the past nine months. He quit smoking 30 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles and finger clubbing are noted, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on room air and respiratory rate is 14/min. The following investigations were conducted:
B-type natriuretic peptide 88 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)
ECG: sinus rhythm, 72/min
Spirometry
FEV1 1.57 L (50% of predicted)
FVC 1.63 L (39% of predicted)
FEV1/FVC 96%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. This is often accompanied by clubbing of the fingers and a spirometry test that shows a restrictive pattern. The absence of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide levels makes it highly unlikely that the patient is suffering from heart failure.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.
To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.
Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.
In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.
Which symptom according to NICE guidance supports the diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Childhood asthma
Explanation:Symptoms and Risk Factors for COPD
A diagnosis of COPD should be considered in patients who are over 35 years old and have a risk factor, typically smoking. If a patient presents with one or more of the following symptoms, they should be evaluated for COPD: exertional breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, or wheeze. However, chest pain and haemoptysis are uncommon and should lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis. It is important to recognize these symptoms and risk factors in order to diagnose and treat COPD early, which can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.
Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unilateral wheeze
Explanation:Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control
All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a two month history of malaise and slight shortness of breath, together with tender erythematous lesions on the fronts of both shins. She is a non-smoker and drinks little alcohol.
On examination she has erythema nodosum on her shins and some minor wheeze and inspiratory crackles on auscultation of the chest. You arrange some spirometry tests, which reveal a mild restrictive defect.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Erythema Nodosum and Sarcoidosis: An Overview
Erythema nodosum is a type of inflammation that affects the fat tissue, commonly seen in adult females. It has a higher incidence rate in women, with a female to male ratio of up to three to one. On the other hand, sarcoidosis is a disease that affects multiple systems in the body, characterized by the formation of granulomas. It is more prevalent in adults aged 20-40, with acute cases more common in white patients and chronic cases more common in Afro-Caribbean patients.
Around 30% to 40% of erythema nodosum cases are associated with sarcoidosis. To confirm the diagnosis, chest x-ray, high-resolution CT, and transbronchial biopsy are the main investigations employed. Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for both erythema nodosum and sarcoidosis. With proper management, patients can achieve a good prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 28-year old patient with well-controlled asthma presents to his general practitioner with a one-week history of a cough productive of green sputum. He is slightly more short of breath than usual but not needing to use any more of his salbutamol. He feels feverish but doesn't describe any chest pains. He takes oral Aminophylline and inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate for his asthma and uses salbutamol as needed. He is allergic to penicillin.
On examination, he is talking in full sentences and his peak flow is 80% of his predicted. His temperature is 37.8 degrees and oxygen saturations are 98% in air. His pulse is 86 and he has right basal crackles on his chest but no wheeze.
Which of the following antibiotics would you prescribe for him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Process of Elimination in Tricky Questions
When faced with a tricky question, it is important to stay calm and think through the options. One useful technique is the process of elimination. For example, in a question about the best antibiotic for a patient with a penicillin allergy who is taking aminophylline, you can immediately eliminate options that contain penicillin. Macrolides and ciprofloxacin can interact with aminophylline, increasing its plasma concentration, so you can eliminate those options as well. By process of elimination, you can arrive at the best answer, which in this case is doxycycline. Practicing this approach can help you tackle tricky questions and improve your performance in exams. Remember to take your time, read the question carefully, and eliminate options that do not fit the criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.
His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.
Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.
There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay
Explanation:Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.
Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with a four week history of cough and green sputum. He has also noticed some streaks of blood in the sputum on several occasions. He visited the clinic two weeks ago and was prescribed a seven day course of amoxicillin 500 mg tds, as well as a chest x-ray which came back normal. However, his symptoms have not improved and he reports a weight loss of around 7 pounds over the past three months. He used to smoke 15 cigarettes per day for 40 years but quit two years ago. On examination of his respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as a medical emergency
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral and Assessment of Lung Cancer
According to the NICE guidelines, urgent referral for suspected lung cancer should be made for individuals aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis or chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer. However, even with a normal chest X-ray, urgent referral is still warranted if there is ongoing haemoptysis in an ex-smoker.
In addition, NICE guidelines recommend offering an urgent chest X-ray to assess for lung cancer in individuals aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss. For those who have ever smoked, one or more of these symptoms should prompt an urgent chest X-ray.
Furthermore, consideration should be given to an urgent chest X-ray for individuals aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure timely and appropriate referral and assessment for individuals who may be at risk for lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.
You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.
How far should he be able to walk without shortness of breath to be able to fly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25 m
Explanation:Guidelines for Safe Air Travel
When it comes to air travel, there are certain guidelines that need to be followed to ensure a safe journey. One of the most important factors is the ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb one flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. This is usually indicative of being able to fly without any issues.
Another important consideration is the hypoxic challenge test, which mimics the conditions on the plane. If the PaO2 level is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly. At rest, the oxygen saturation level should be 95% or higher.
If you have had a pneumothorax, it is recommended to wait for at least two weeks before considering air travel. This is especially important if the pneumothorax has been conservatively managed. Only after there is evidence that the pneumothorax has resolved should you consider flying.
By following these guidelines, you can ensure a safe and comfortable air travel experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual shortness-of-breath?
FEV1/FVC 0.60
FEV1% predicted 60%Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)
Explanation:Investigating and Diagnosing COPD
To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.
He has recently been to the hospital for spirometry testing and these are his post bronchodilator results:
FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65
FEV1 (% predicted) 57%
A colleague has given him a short acting muscarinic antagonist but he has returned because he has persistent breathlessness.
Which of the following would be included in the next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antitussive therapy
Explanation:Management of Moderate COPD
Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for this condition is a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, a long acting beta agonist or a long acting muscarinic antagonist may be used. Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended, but may be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with FEV1 <50% and asthmatic features. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy is not recommended, and antitussive therapy should also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath. She has been prone to periodic chest infections but over the last 6 months has noticed slowly progressively worsening shortness of breath. She feels fatigued and reports generalised arthralgia.
She has a history of dry eyes and dry mouth for which she is prescribed lubricant medication. She is also treated for Raynaud's phenomenon.
On examination of the chest fine end inspiratory crepitations are heard at both lung bases.
Which of the following blood tests is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies
Explanation:Sjogren’s Syndrome: A Multi-System Diagnosis
This patient’s chest symptoms, along with systemic symptoms and dry eyes and mouth, suggest a possible multi-system diagnosis. Sjogren’s syndrome is a condition that should be considered, especially if the patient is a woman in her 5th or 6th decade. Men and younger people can also be affected.
Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by various symptoms, including pulmonary fibrosis, sicca symptoms (dry eyes and mouth), Raynaud’s phenomenon, and arthralgia. Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are useful diagnostic tools in identifying this condition.
It is important to recognize the potential for a multi-system diagnosis in patients presenting with a combination of symptoms. In this case, Sjogren’s syndrome should be considered and appropriate testing should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 57-year-old woman who has just joined the practice. She has come to see you for a prescription for inhalers for her 'smokers cough'.
Her last GP had prescribed her salbutamol as required and tiotropium once daily. She tells you that she has always had 'trouble with her chest' and as a child had pneumonia which required a prolonged stay in hospital. She expectorates a large amount of grey-green sputum every day and this has been the case for 'years'; there have been no recent changes in her symptoms.
She gave up smoking about 20 years ago having smoked five cigarettes a day from the age of 20. On examination she has coarse crepitations at the right base and has finger clubbing. There is no lymphadenopathy or peripheral oedema. Her weight is stable.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Overlapping Symptoms of COPD and Other Respiratory Diagnoses
There are several respiratory diagnoses that can present with similar symptoms to COPD, including asthma, bronchiectasis, congestive cardiac failure, and bronchial carcinoma. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
The basics of history and examination are crucial in forming a list of possibilities and guiding any investigation. In some cases, patients may have a rarer condition such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia or obliterative bronchiolitis.
In the case of this patient, the underlying diagnosis is bronchiectasis caused by childhood pneumonia. This has resulted in chronic sputum production and the presence of clubbing, ruling out asthma, COPD, and congestive cardiac failure. While bronchial carcinoma can also cause finger clubbing and focal chest signs, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history and other clinical features. Overall, healthcare professionals should always keep in mind the possibility of an alternative diagnosis when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma
This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week. He has a history of COPD and smokes around 15 cigarettes a day. He has had a chronic cough for several years, which has not changed in character recently. On chest auscultation, he has reduced air entry throughout, diffuse wheeze, and no focal crepitations. His respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, his temperature is 37.50ºC, and his oxygen saturations are 94% on air. His heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase use of bronchodilator inhaler and prescribe a five day course of oral prednisolone
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be given to patients with acute exacerbation of COPD if they have purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. Since the patient in question doesn’t exhibit any signs of bacterial pneumonia, such as a change in cough or clinical signs of consolidation, NICE recommends a trial of steroids with increased inhaler use as the first line of treatment.
Based on the information provided, the patient’s observations are reasonable, and hospital admission is not necessary. However, she should be monitored for any deterioration, and a tool like CURB65 can be used to guide decisions regarding hospital admission.
If there are specific markers of infection clinically, such as focal consolidation or purulent sputum, a combination of amoxicillin and prednisolone may be indicated. It is important for patients with COPD to continue using their inhalers, especially when they are unwell.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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After the 2014 National Review of Asthma Deaths, what is the minimum number of salbutamol prescriptions in the last 6 months that should trigger an immediate assessment of a patient's asthma management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12
Explanation:The National Review of Asthma Deaths (NRAD) found that only 23% of the 195 people who died from asthma had personal asthma action plans, and 43% had not had an asthma review in general practice in the year before their death. The report identified factors that could have avoided death in relation to the implementation of asthma guidelines by health professionals, including lack of specific asthma expertise and knowledge of UK asthma guidelines. The report recommended referral to secondary care for patients requiring BTS stepwise treatment 4 or 5, assessment of inhaler technique at annual review, monitoring of non-adherence to inhaled corticosteroids, and the use of combination inhalers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an intermittently wheezy chest at night, eight weeks after seeing the respiratory nurse at the surgery. She reports no fevers and no difficulties in breathing. Currently, she is taking Fostair (Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg) combination inhaler, 1 puff twice daily, and salbutamol as needed for shortness of breath. Previously, she was using Clenil (Beclomethasone 100 mcg), but feels that the new inhaler has helped slightly since her last appointment with the nurse. According to the latest SIGN/BTS guidance, what would be the next step in managing her asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the Fostair to two puffs twice daily
Explanation:Managing Chronic Asthma in Adults
When managing chronic asthma in adults, it is important to consider the patient’s current treatment plan and symptoms. In this scenario, the patient is already taking a combination inhaler and is experiencing suboptimal control of her asthma. It is important to note that this is not an acute attack and the children’s guidelines do not apply. Antibiotics are not recommended as the symptoms are not consistent with an infective exacerbation. Increasing the usage of salbutamol is also not recommended as the patient needs better overall control of her symptoms. Instead, the dose of the inhaled corticosteroid should be increased, which is in line with the next step in the treatment of asthma in adults according to the British Thoracic Society guidelines. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with both SIGN and NICE guidance and be able to compare and contrast their advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about pertussis infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: doesn't occur in the neonatal period
Explanation:Pertussis: Symptoms and Complications
Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a respiratory condition that can manifest at any time. Patients with pertussis experience paroxysms of coughing during waking hours, but unlike many respiratory conditions, sleep is usually undisturbed. An inspiratory whoop may not be present, and complete apnoea may occur. A useful feature in the history taking is that patients typically do not experience disturbed sleep. Additionally, there is typically a lymphocytosis present.
It is important to note that asthma in the mother is not a contraindication for pertussis. However, complications can arise from the disease, such as hemiplegia and convulsions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of not getting enough relief from his salbutamol inhaler and finds himself using it more frequently.
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates the steps of removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down the canister while inhaling slowly, and then exhaling.
What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should hold her breath for 10 seconds after delivering the dose
Explanation:To ensure adequate drug delivery, it is important to use proper inhaler technique, which includes shaking the inhaler, taking a slow breath in, holding the breath for 10 seconds, and waiting 30 seconds between doses.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 85
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of five to ten cigarettes per day since he was in his twenties.
During the physical examination, the patient exhibits clubbing, and chest auscultation reveals decreased air entry and dullness to percussion on the left side. A chest x-ray shows pleural thickening and a pleural effusion on the left side.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis
Explanation:Causes of Clubbing and Mesothelioma as a Differential Diagnosis
Clubbing can be caused by respiratory, gastroenterological, and cardiac conditions. Respiratory causes include cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, lung carcinoma, fibrosis, and mesothelioma. Gastroenterological causes include lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, and cirrhosis. Cardiac causes include cyanotic heart disease, atrial myxoma, and bacterial endocarditis.
In this case, the patient presents with clubbing and respiratory symptoms, making it difficult to determine the exact cause. However, the patient’s occupational history as a dock worker puts them at risk for mesothelioma, a type of cancer caused by exposure to asbestos. Mesothelioma is more likely than other options due to the patient’s age, clinical and chest x-ray findings of pleural thickening and effusion. It is important to consider mesothelioma as a differential diagnosis in patients with clubbing and a history of asbestos exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler
Explanation:Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness
Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.
The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.
Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.
In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.
Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Sara is a 26-year-old woman who has presented to her GP with difficulty breathing. She has a history of asthma and has been using her salbutamol inhaler regularly, but it has not been effective. Upon examination, bilateral wheezing is heard. Her oxygen saturation is 93%, and her peak expiratory flow is 190 L/min. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. After administering a nebulizer, her peak flow only increases to 200 L/min.
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to the medical registrar for admission
Explanation:The patient’s peak flow has dropped to 40% of normal, indicating a severe exacerbation of asthma. According to NICE guidelines, admission is recommended if severe attack features persist after a bronchodilator trial. As the peak flow has not improved, hospitalization is necessary.
Administering another nebulizer is not advisable as the patient requires close monitoring and may need multiple nebulizers. Increasing the inhaled steroid dose and sending the patient home is also not recommended as it may lead to adverse outcomes.
Prescribing 40 mg prednisolone for 5 to 7 days is suitable for patients who can be treated at home, but not for this patient with severe asthma requiring inpatient assessment and management.
Antibiotics are only prescribed if the patient has no severe or life-threatening asthma features and shows signs of infection. As the patient’s asthma has not improved despite initial treatment, sending them home with antibiotics is not appropriate.
Understanding Acute Asthma: Symptoms and Severity
Acute asthma is a condition that is typically observed in individuals who have a history of asthma. It is characterized by worsening dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing that doesn’t respond to salbutamol. Acute asthma attacks may be triggered by respiratory tract infections. Patients with acute severe asthma are classified into three categories: moderate, severe, or life-threatening.
Moderate acute asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value, normal speech, a respiratory rate (RR) of less than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of less than 110 beats per minute. Severe acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, inability to complete sentences, an RR of more than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of more than 110 beats per minute. Life-threatening acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of less than 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation levels of less than 92%, a silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension, and exhaustion, confusion, or coma.
It is important to note that a normal pCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should be classified as life-threatening. Understanding the symptoms and severity of acute asthma can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients experiencing an acute asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
She has recently seen the practice nurse for spirometry testing and these are her post bronchodilator results:
FEV1/FVC ratio 0.60
FEV1 (% predicted) 65%
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids
Explanation:Initial Management for COPD
The most appropriate initial management for COPD would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. According to the Guidelines in Practice summary, a LAMA+LABA combination should be offered to people with spirometrically confirmed COPD who do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite other treatments. LABA+ICS should be considered for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Antitussive therapy is not recommended, but a mucolytic can be considered for those with a chronic productive cough. In this breathless patient, a short acting muscarinic antagonist is the better choice. By optimizing non-pharmacological management and relevant vaccinations, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze, dry cough and chest tightness. She has been needing to use her salbutamol up to 5 times a day to relieve her symptoms.
She is alert and able to complete full sentences at rest. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC, pulse rate 120/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 26/min, oxygen saturation 94% in room air. On auscultation, she has polyphonic wheeze throughout. Her peak expiratory flow reading is 380 L/min (best 550 L/min).
How many features of acute severe asthma does she have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:To alleviate his symptoms, the patient is taking his medication three times daily. Despite his condition, he remains alert and capable of speaking in complete sentences while at rest. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.1ºC, pulse rate of 116/min, blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 2.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.
What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded
Explanation:Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers
To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.
It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the last couple of years, she has experienced approximately six asthma exacerbations that necessitated oral steroid treatment. Her current regimen consists of beclomethasone 200 mcg 1 puff bd and salbutamol 2 puffs prn. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m^2, is a non-smoker, and has demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add oral montelukast
Explanation:As per the NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, their treatment plan should include the addition of a LTRA instead of a LABA. In this case, since the patient is already taking a short-acting beta-agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, the recommended course of action would be to offer them an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist. This is in contrast to the previous BTS guidance which would have suggested the use of a long-acting beta-agonist in such a scenario.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.
The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.
It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing frequent episodes of shortness of breath and a productive cough with purulent sputum. What is the most common trigger for these exacerbations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza
Explanation:Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duration > 5 days
Explanation:In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature would indicate possible opioid overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotension
Explanation:Understanding Acute Opioid Toxicity
Acute opioid toxicity is a serious condition that can result in drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and respiratory depression. The severity of symptoms may be exacerbated if alcohol or other sedatives are also involved. Hypotension is a common occurrence, and both tachycardia and bradycardia may be observed. Hypoventilation can lead to hypoxia-induced cardiac arrhythmias, and pinpoint pupils may be present. Sweating is more commonly associated with acute opioid withdrawal. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect acute opioid toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A patient with anorexia nervosa attends for smoking cessation advice. She is a teenager and has never been suicidal, nor suffered with any other form of mental illness.
Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in their management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline
Bupropion and Varenicline are two drugs commonly used for smoking cessation. However, they both have specific contraindications that need to be considered before prescribing them to patients.
Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, seizures, central nervous system tumors, and acute alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal. Additionally, certain factors can increase the risk of seizures in patients taking Bupropion, such as the use of medications that lower the seizure threshold, diabetes, alcoholism, history of cranial trauma, and use of stimulants and anorectics.
On the other hand, Varenicline is listed as a caution rather than a contraindication in patients with a history of mental health problems. While patients with psychiatric illnesses should be closely monitored while taking Varenicline, it is not specifically contraindicated in this population.
In summary, when considering the contraindications of Bupropion and Varenicline, it is important to note that Bupropion is specifically contraindicated in patients with a history of eating disorders, while Varenicline is cautioned in patients with a history of mental health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She started working at a hair salon six months ago and has been experiencing an increasing cough and wheeze during the day. She wonders if it could be related to her work as her symptoms improved during a recent two-week vacation to Hawaii. You decide to give her a peak flow meter and the average results are as follows:
Average peak flow
Days at work 480 l/min
Days not at work 600 l/min
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to respiratory
Explanation:Referral to a respiratory specialist is recommended for patients who are suspected to have occupational asthma.
Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms
Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.
To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 40%. He has not sought medical attention for his chest in several years and only uses salbutamol as inhaled therapy. He reports using at least two puffs of salbutamol four times a day, but his breathlessness is limiting his ability to engage in enjoyable activities. Despite his current treatment, he continues to experience persistent breathlessness. He has no history of asthma and is a former smoker. What is the appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the same inhaled treatment but use short courses of oral steroid when he exacerbates
Explanation:Treatment options for suboptimal control in COPD patients
To determine the appropriate treatment for suboptimal control in COPD patients, it is recommended to consult the NICE guidance on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG115). If a patient has suboptimal control despite using a regular short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA), oral theophylline may be considered at a later stage in the treatment ladder. However, LAMA+LABA should be offered to patients who have spirometrically confirmed COPD, do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness, and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using a short-acting bronchodilator. It is important to note that adding a regular inhaled steroid is not recommended in the treatment ladder as it is inferior to LABA/ICS combination or LAMA. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide optimal treatment for COPD patients with suboptimal control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrognathia
Explanation:Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea
Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.
What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit
Explanation:Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.
Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.
To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.
In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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What interventions can be used to identify asthma when there is diagnostic uncertainty or coexistence of COPD and asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled beclomethasone (BDP) 200 mcg twice daily for 10 days
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Asthma in Adults
In adults, the diagnosis of asthma can be challenging, especially when there is diagnostic uncertainty or when both asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are present. The British Thoracic Society recommends a 6-8 week treatment trial of inhaled beclomethasone (or equivalent) twice daily for patients with significant airflow obstruction. However, in patients with suspected inhaled corticosteroid resistance, a two-week treatment trial of oral prednisolone 30 mg daily is preferred.
To help identify asthma, clinicians should assess FEV1 (or PEF) and/or symptoms before and after 400mcg inhaled salbutamol. A >400ml improvement in FEV1 to either b2 agonists or corticosteroid treatment strongly suggests underlying asthma. Serial peak flow measurements showing 20% or greater diurnal or day-to-day variability can also be used to help diagnose asthma.
NICE NG115 further clarifies that a large response to bronchodilators or oral prednisolone (over 400 ml) can also help identify asthma. Clinically significant COPD is not present if the FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio return to normal with drug therapy. In cases of diagnostic uncertainty, a combination of these findings can be used to help diagnose asthma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old comes in for an asthma check-up. She shows her inhaler technique and performs the following steps when using her salbutamol:
First, she removes the cap and shakes the puffer. Then, she breathes out gently before placing the mouthpiece in her mouth and pressing the canister as she inhales deeply. She holds her breath for 20 seconds before repeating the process for the next dose.
Is there anything wrong with her technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She must wait at least 30 seconds before administering her next dose
Explanation:The patient has good inhaler technique but needs to wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. Holding the breath for at least 10 seconds after administering the medication is recommended, but holding it for longer is not necessary. Advising the patient to hold their breath for at least 30 seconds after administering the dose is incorrect.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.
Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year
Explanation:Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 103
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 59-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 58% predicted. His current treatment consists of a short-acting beta-2 agonist used as required.
On reviewing his symptoms he has not had any significant exacerbations over the past 12 months but he needs to use his inhaler at least four times a day and despite this he still feels persistently breathless.
As per NICE guidance, what would be the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a regular inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Treatment Algorithm for COPD Patients
Page 9 of the NICE reference guide on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG101) provides an overview of the treatment algorithm for patients with COPD. If a patient has inadequately controlled symptoms despite using a regular short-acting beta agonist and an FEV1 of greater or equal to 50%, the next options are to add in a long-acting beta agonist or a long-acting muscarinic antagonist. In both cases, the short-acting beta agonist can continue to be used as required. Therefore, the correct answer from the list of options is to add in a regular long-acting muscarinic antagonist.
If the patient has an FEV1 <50%, the treatment choice would alter again with the option of using a long-acting beta agonist/inhaled corticosteroid combination inhaler. It is important to follow the treatment algorithm to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment for their COPD symptoms. Proper management of COPD can improve a patient's quality of life and reduce the risk of exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female develops a wheeze and extensive rash whilst eating a Chinese take-away chicken satay.
On examination, she has extensive wheeze and stridor, with urticaria covering her upper and lower limbs and trunk. Her BP is 80/45 mmHg.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peanut allergy
Explanation:Allergic Reactions and MSG Syndrome in Chinese Cuisine
Chinese cuisine is known for its use of cashew nuts and peanut oil in many dishes, which can pose a risk for patients with peanut allergies. Anaphylactic reactions may occur with cashew nuts, while peanut oil can also trigger allergic reactions. Additionally, monosodium glutamate (MSG), a common flavor enhancer in Chinese food, can cause the MSG syndrome. Symptoms of this syndrome include sudden onset headache, heartburn, palpitations, sweating, swelling, and flushing of the face. Tingling or increased facial pressure may also be reported. While the condition is generally self-limited and resolves on its own, antihistamines may be helpful in some cases. It is important to note that the MSG syndrome is unlikely to cause shock, which is not consistent with the patient’s presentation of hypotension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for six months. The patient recently underwent spirometry testing with the practice nurse and the post bronchodilator results are as follows:
- FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.64
- FEV1 (% predicted) 60%
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer Long Acting Beta Agonist + Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist
Explanation:Management of Moderate COPD
Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for such patients would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, NICE recommends the use of a long acting beta agonist plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist. In cases where a long acting muscarinic antagonist is given, the short acting muscarinic antagonist should be stopped.
Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended for moderate COPD. Instead, they should be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with an FEV1 < 50%. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended. Antitussive therapy is also not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a lengthy COPD history calls for guidance. He has been experiencing increased shortness of breath for the past two days and has been using his inhalers more frequently. He is coughing up clear sputum and has no fever, chest pain, or haemoptysis. He is uncertain whether to take his 'rescue' medications. What is the best advice to give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take a course of prednisolone
Explanation:NICE suggests including an antibiotic only when the sputum shows signs of being purulent.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She reports experiencing the pain particularly when she is stressed at work or unexpectedly exercising. On one occasion, she has fainted, and she sometimes experiences pins and needles around her mouth and in both hands. She has a history of mild asthma and uses PRN salbutamol. All tests, including ECG, peak flow rate, full blood count, thyroid function, and pulse oximetry, are normal. What is the most appropriate plan for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Cognitive Therapy and Breathing Exercises for Hyperventilation Syndrome
Two studies have shown that cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can effectively treat hyperventilation syndrome. This condition often leads to pleuritic chest pain without any apparent cause. During therapy sessions, specific anxiety triggers can be identified and addressed. However, for those with chronic hyperventilation syndrome, cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can provide relief and improve overall quality of life. With these treatments, patients can learn to control their breathing and reduce symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone propionate at a dosage of 100 micrograms, 2 puffs twice daily, and has a salbutamol inhaler for symptom relief. His Asthma Control Test (ACT) score is 25 out of 25. What is the most suitable approach to managing his inhalers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce beclomethasone dipropionate dose by 25-50%
Explanation:Adding an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) would not be the appropriate course of action at this time. It should only be considered as an add-on therapy if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite regular use of inhaled corticosteroids.
Similarly, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) would not be recommended at this stage. It should only be considered if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite using a combination of LABA and ICS, or if low-dose ICS is insufficient.
Doubling the dose of beclomethasone dipropionate would also not be the correct approach. This would result in a medium dose of ICS, which is only recommended if the patient remains symptomatic despite a combination of low-dose ICS and LABA. Alternatively, an LTRA may be added.
Stopping beclomethasone dipropionate and relying solely on salbutamol as needed would not be advisable. Any reduction in ICS should be done gradually to minimize the risk of worsening symptoms.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form
Explanation:The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 110
Incorrect
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During a routine annual COPD review, a 50-year-old gentleman reports that he requires the use of his salbutamol inhaler three times daily, most days for breathlessness. He could not tolerate a LAMA inhaler due to side effects. His most recent FEV1 was 45% predicted. He stopped smoking several years ago and tries to keep active. He reports no weight loss, no haemoptysis, no leg swelling and is otherwise well. Examination is unremarkable.
SABA = short-acting beta agonist
LABA = long-acting beta agonist
SAMA = short-acting muscarinic antagonist
LAMA = long-acting muscarinic antagonist
ICS = inhaled corticosteroid.
What would be the most appropriate change to his treatment regime?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a regular LABA+ICS inhaler
Explanation:Step-Up Treatment for COPD Patients
When a patient with COPD is only taking salbutamol inhalers and their FEV1 is less than 50%, it may be necessary to step up their treatment. One option is to add a LABA+ICS, which can help improve lung function and reduce symptoms. However, it’s important to note that a LAMA should not be used in combination with an ICS. While adding a regular ICS may be considered in asthma treatment, it is not typically part of the step-up approach for COPD. Additionally, a SAMA can be an alternative to salbutamol inhalers, but it is not intended as a step-up treatment. By carefully considering the best options for each patient, healthcare providers can help manage COPD symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline
Explanation:For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.
Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.
Understanding Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.
Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.
Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a frequent smoker and inquires about medications that could assist her in quitting smoking. Specifically, she has heard about a medication called Champix (varenicline).
What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an agent used to aid smokers in quitting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a nicotine replacement therapy
Explanation:Therapies for Smoking Cessation
There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor.
Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties, is also an effective agent for smoking cessation.
Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best approach for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finger clubbing
Explanation:Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations
Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically controlled with maximal inhaled corticosteroid and LABA. He has presented with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze, which his partner reports began two days ago with a heavy cold. What is the appropriate clinical management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal heart rate is always associated with a good prognosis
Explanation:Understanding Tachycardia and Bradycardia in Acute Asthma
Tachycardia is a common symptom in acute asthma, but severe attacks may also lead to episodes of bradycardia. A peak flow measurement of only 30% of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires immediate admission and aggressive treatment. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide information on CO2 retention or acid-base status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be administered in the management of acute asthma.
Understanding the symptoms and measurements associated with acute asthma is crucial for effective management. Tachycardia and bradycardia are two possible heart rate changes that may occur during an asthma attack. Additionally, a peak flow measurement of 30% or less of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires prompt medical attention. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide a complete picture of the patient’s respiratory status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be given to patients with acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 68 year old woman with chronic asthma has been using a lot of salbutamol including via a nebuliser. She has a tremor, headache and tachycardia.
Select from the list the single most likely biochemical finding.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Cautionary Measures for β2-Adrenergic Agonist Treatment
β2-adrenergic agonist treatment may lead to potentially serious hypokalaemia, especially in severe asthma cases. This effect can be intensified by theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics, and hypoxia. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor plasma-potassium concentration in severe asthma patients. People with diabetes should also exercise caution when using β2 agonists, particularly when given intravenously, as it may increase the risk of ketoacidosis. These cautionary measures are necessary to ensure the safe and effective use of β2-adrenergic agonist treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has been taking medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for an extended period. During examination, her oxygen saturation levels on room air are found to be at 89%. Further investigations reveal bilateral interstitial shadowing on her chest x-ray. Which medication is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with increasing fatigue and shortness of breath despite inhaled therapies. She denies chest pain or cough and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. There are no notable occupational exposures. On examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal. Blood tests and chest x-ray are unremarkable, but spirometry reveals the following results:
FEV1 (L): 3.5 (predicted 4.5)
FVC (L): 3.8 (predicted 5.4)
FEV1/FVC (%): 92
What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder
Explanation:Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.
It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily morning cough productive of off-white phlegm. He feels intermittently wheezy. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day and has done so since the age of 20.
A chest x ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and spirometry demonstrates an obstructive picture with a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 50% of predicted. He takes no regular medication and has no other known medical problems.
His mother also had chest problems and died after she developed liver failure. Looking at some recent blood tests you can see he has abnormalities of his liver function.
Which of the following blood investigations is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Consideration of Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency in a Young Smoker with COPD
This patient’s young age, symptoms, chest x-ray findings, and spirometry results suggest the possibility of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can cause pulmonary disease and liver disease. As a smoker, this patient is at increased risk for COPD, but the early onset of the disease raises suspicion for an underlying genetic cause. Additionally, the family history supports the consideration of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
To confirm the diagnosis, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin levels would be the most appropriate blood investigation. Other blood tests, such as ACE levels for sarcoidosis, copper and ceruloplasmin levels for Wilson’s disease, ferritin levels for hemochromatosis, and rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis, are not likely to be helpful in this case.
It is important to consider alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency in young patients with COPD, especially those with a family history of the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further lung and liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to you for medication review. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and experiences frequent infective exacerbations. His current medications include a salbutamol inhaler, azithromycin, and a beclomethasone-formoterol-glycopyrronium (Trimbow) inhaler. The patient admits to restarting smoking and reports having around 4 infective exacerbations annually.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop azithromycin and refer to respiratory
Explanation:If a patient with COPD continues to smoke, it is not advisable to provide them with azithromycin prophylaxis. Instead, they should be offered smoking cessation. The use of high-dose inhaled corticosteroids is no longer recommended due to the increased risk of infections such as pneumonia. Long-term oral corticosteroids should only be used at low doses and on the advice of the respiratory team. Beta-carotene supplements are not recommended for the management of COPD due to limited evidence of their effectiveness.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review
Explanation:Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.
For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.
In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.
In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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You are examining a patient whom you suspect may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following investigations/points is the least relevant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow
Explanation:The diagnosis of COPD cannot be determined through peak expiratory flow.
Investigating and Diagnosing COPD
To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
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You are conducting an asthma review on a 20-year-old man who is currently only using a short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA). In what situations does NICE recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Being woken by asthma symptoms once weekly or more
Explanation:NICE Recommendations for Prescribing Inhaled Corticosteroids in Asthma Patients
NICE advises prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid in patients with asthma who use an inhaled SABA three times a week or more, experience asthma symptoms three times a week or more, or are woken up by asthma symptoms once a week or more. Additionally, NICE recommends considering an ICS if the patient has had an asthma attack requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. These recommendations aim to improve asthma control and reduce the risk of exacerbations. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that their patients receive appropriate treatment for their asthma symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He reports experiencing wheezing and coughing while on the job. The possibility of occupational asthma is being considered. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home
Explanation:Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms
Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.
To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 124
Incorrect
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What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect
Explanation:Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects
Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.
While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.
In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days, his cough has become increasingly productive and the sputum has become more thick and green than usual. He is slightly more short of breath than usual.
On examination, he is apyrexial, has a respiratory rate of 20, coarse crackles in both lung bases and doesn't appear cyanosed. He has no drug allergies.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5-7 days
Explanation:Treating Infective Exacerbation of Bronchiectasis
When managing a suspected infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis, it is crucial to obtain a sputum culture before initiating antibiotics. However, treatment should not be delayed until the culture results are available. It is also recommended to administer a more extended course of antibiotics than what is typically prescribed for a lower respiratory tract infection.
NICE provides specific guidance on the selection and duration of antibiotics based on the identified organism. Additionally, hospital admission should be considered if there are indications of a more severe illness, such as cyanosis, confusion, respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, significant breathlessness, or a temperature of 38°C or higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 126
Incorrect
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You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She has been experiencing a productive cough for the past 3 days and is coughing up brown-green sputum. She feels feverish and lethargic. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which she has been dealing with for over 30 years. She has been taking etanercept for the past 3 years, and her condition is well controlled.
During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.5 degrees Celsius, her respiratory rate is 17 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 98%. Slight crackles are heard in the base of her left lung.
You prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin for her lower respiratory tract infection and provide her with advice on how to manage her worsening condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient with RA taking etanercept who develops an infection needs to stop the etanercept until the infection is cleared
Explanation:Patients with RA who are taking etanercept are at a higher risk of developing infections, including chest infections and sepsis. If an infection does occur, it is important to discontinue the use of etanercept until the infection has been cleared. Additionally, biologic therapy can increase the risk of TB or reactivation of latent TB, and patients on this type of therapy require regular blood monitoring. This includes a full blood count, urea and electrolytes (with creatinine), and liver function tests initially, followed by monitoring every 6 months once stable, unless there is a clinical need for more frequent monitoring.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.
In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).
Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.
Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 128
Incorrect
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You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.
The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker
Explanation:What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?
In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.
Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.
As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.
What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD
Explanation:Spirometry and Management of COPD
In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a firm swelling at the base of his neck on the right hand side, just above the clavicle. He noticed it about two weeks ago. It is not painful. He is an ex-smoker who stopped smoking three years ago (before that he smoked 10 roll-up cigarettes per day for 35 years). On further questioning he has noticed a loss of appetite and weight loss of 8 lbs.
On examination he is apyrexial and has a firm non-mobile lymph node 3 cm in diameter in the right supraclavicular fossa. There are no abnormalities on examination of the respiratory system and there is no organomegaly on abdominal examination.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to an ear nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Supraclavicular Lymph Node Enlargement and Malignancy
The right supraclavicular lymph node drains the mid-section of the chest, oesophagus, and lungs. An enlarged and fixed node in this area can indicate malignancy, with the lungs being a common primary site. While glandular fever is a possibility, it is less common in this age group, and the patient is presenting with several alarm symptoms.
Empirically treating with antibiotics is not recommended, as there are no signs of an infected sebaceous cyst, the patient is not feverish, and there is no identified focus for infection. According to NICE guidance, patients with cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy should undergo an urgent chest x-ray.
The NPSA’s thematic review of delayed cancer diagnosis found that 23% of lung cancer cases had diagnostic delays, although not all of these were directly attributable to general practitioners’ actions. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate any supraclavicular lymph node enlargement promptly to rule out malignancy and ensure timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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