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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She has engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner within the past few months. During speculum examination, you observe a cervix that appears strawberry-colored.
What is the MOST suitable treatment option?Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) is a highly prevalent sexually transmitted disease that affects individuals worldwide. This disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan organism that can survive without the presence of mitochondria or peroxisomes. The risk of contracting TV increases with the number of sexual partners one has. It is important to note that men can also be affected by this disease, experiencing conditions such as prostatitis or urethritis.
The clinical features of TV can vary. Surprisingly, up to 70% of patients may not exhibit any symptoms at all. However, for those who do experience symptoms, they may notice a frothy or green-yellow discharge with a strong odor. Other symptoms may include vaginitis and inflammation of the cervix, which can give it a distinctive strawberry appearance. In pregnant individuals, TV can lead to complications such as premature labor and low birth weight.
Diagnosing TV can sometimes occur incidentally during routine smear tests. However, if a patient is symptomatic, the diagnosis is typically made through vaginal swabs for women or penile swabs for men. Treatment for TV usually involves taking metronidazole, either as a 400 mg dose twice a day for 5-7 days or as a single 2 g dose. It is worth noting that the single dose may have more gastrointestinal side effects. Another antibiotic option is tinidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Correct
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You review the X-ray of a 70 year old male who has fallen onto his outstretched right hand. The X-ray confirms a dorsally displaced fracture of the distal radius. You plan to reduce the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). Which local anesthetic is first choice for this procedure?
Your Answer: Prilocaine
Explanation:According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), Prilocaine is the preferred choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. This is because Bupivacaine and lidocaine have a higher risk of causing harmful side effects.
Further Reading:
Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.
Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.
During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.
There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple of hours after consuming a microwaved Chinese takeout.
What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Bacillus cereus is a type of bacterium that is Gram-positive, rod-shaped, and beta-haemolytic. It is responsible for causing a condition known as ‘fried rice syndrome’.
The bacterium forms hardy spores that can withstand boiling temperatures and remain viable even when rice is left at room temperature for extended periods before being fried. When these spores germinate, they can lead to the development of the syndrome.
There are two types of strains associated with Bacillus cereus. The first type produces an emetic enterotoxin, which results in symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms typically occur within 1 to 6 hours after consuming contaminated food and can be quite severe, lasting for about 6 to 24 hours.
The second type of strain produces a diarrheagenic enterotoxin. This strain is commonly associated with the ingestion of meat, vegetables, and dairy products. Symptoms of this type of infection include abdominal pain and vomiting, which usually begin 8 to 12 hours after ingestion and resolve within 12 to 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She is frail and exhibits signs of recent memory loss. You administer an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) and record the findings in her medical records.
Which ONE of the following is NOT included in the AMTS assessment?Your Answer: Subtraction of serial 7s
Explanation:The subtraction of serial 7s is included in the 30-point Folstein mini-mental state examination (MMSE), but it is not included in the AMTS. The AMTS consists of ten questions that assess various cognitive abilities. These questions include asking about age, the nearest hour, the current year, the name of the hospital or location, the ability to recognize two people, date of birth, knowledge of historical events, knowledge of the present monarch or prime minister, counting backwards from 20 to 1, and recalling an address given earlier in the test. The AMTS is referenced in the RCEM syllabus under the topic of memory loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 5
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She is brought to the resus area of your Emergency Department by a blue light ambulance. A trauma call is initiated, and a primary survey is conducted. She is stable hemodynamically, and the only abnormality found is a significantly swollen and deformed left thigh area. An X-ray is taken, which shows a fracture in the proximal femoral shaft. The child is experiencing intense pain, and you prepare to apply skin traction to immobilize the fracture.
What percentage of the child's body weight should be applied to the skin traction?Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Femoral shaft fractures are quite common among children and have a significant impact on both the child and their family. It is important to carefully examine children with these fractures for any associated injuries, such as soft-tissue injury, head trauma, or additional fractures. In fact, up to 40% of children who experience a femoral shaft fracture due to high-energy trauma may have these associated injuries. Additionally, a thorough neurovascular examination should be conducted.
Rapidly immobilizing the limb is crucial for managing pain and limiting further blood loss from the fracture. For distal femoral shaft fractures, well-padded long leg splints with split plaster casts can be applied. However, for more proximal shaft fractures, long leg splints alone may not provide adequate control. In these cases, skin traction is a better option. Skin traction involves attaching a large foam pad to the patient’s lower leg using spray adhesive. A weight, approximately 10% of the child’s body weight, is then applied to the foam pad and allowed to hang over the foot of the bed. This constant longitudinal traction helps keep the bone fragments aligned.
When children experience severe pain, it is important to manage it aggressively yet safely. Immobilizing the fracture can provide significant relief. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine recommends other pain control measures for children, such as intranasal diamorphine (0.1 mg/kg in 0.2 ml sterile water), intravenous morphine (0.1-0.2 mg/kg), and oral analgesia (e.g., paracetamol 20 mg/kg, max 1 g, and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg, max 400 mg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 6
Correct
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned bystanders who witnessed the patient vomit blood outside a local bar. The patient is familiar to the department due to multiple alcohol-related visits in the past and has a previous diagnosis of alcohol-related liver cirrhosis. The patient experiences another episode of large volume bright red hematemesis shortly after arriving in the emergency department and is transferred to resus. The patient's initial vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 98/70 mmHg
Pulse: 126 bpm
Respiration rate: 24 bpm
Temperature: 36.4ºC
Which of the following treatments should be administered as a priority?Your Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:When a variceal bleed is suspected, it is important to start treatment with either terlipressin or somatostatin as soon as possible. These medications help control the bleeding and are typically continued for 3-5 days if variceal haemorrhage is confirmed. Additionally, an upper GI endoscopy may be performed to either band the varices or inject a sclerosing agent to stop the bleeding. If the bleeding is difficult to control, a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be inserted until further treatment can be administered. Once the bleeding is under control and the patient has been resuscitated, antibiotic prophylaxis should be prescribed. Ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolones are commonly used for this purpose. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless there is a specific need for treating peptic ulcer disease. Beta blockers like carvedilol are used to prevent variceal bleeding but are not effective in treating active bleeding. Vitamin K is typically not used in the acute setting of variceal bleeding.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and extending to the groin. Her urine dipstick shows the presence of blood. A CT KUB is scheduled, and a diagnosis of ureteric colic is confirmed.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases the risk of developing urinary tract stones?Your Answer: Family history of renal stones
Correct Answer: Excessive citrate in the urine
Explanation:There are several known risk factors for developing urinary tract stones. These include anatomical abnormalities in the renal system, such as a horseshoe kidney or ureteral stricture. Having a family history of renal stones, hypertension, gout, or hyperparathyroidism can also increase the risk. Immobilization, relative dehydration, and certain metabolic disorders that increase solute excretion, like chronic metabolic acidosis or hypercalciuria, are also risk factors. Additionally, a deficiency of citrate in the urine, cystinuria (a genetic aminoaciduria), and the use of certain drugs like diuretics or calcium/vitamin D supplements can contribute to stone formation. Residence in hot and dry climates and belonging to a higher socio-economic class have also been associated with an increased risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.
His venous bloods are shown below:
Hb: 12.2 g/dL
White cell count: 16.7 x 109/L
Blood glucose 8.7 mmol/L
AST 458 IU/L
LDH 375 IU/L
Amylase: 1045 IU/L
What is the most likely underlying cause for his pancreatitis?Your Answer: Recent ERCP
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a frequently encountered and serious source of acute abdominal pain. It involves the sudden inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.
The clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. The pain may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or even to the shoulder tip through the phrenic nerve if the diaphragm is irritated. Other symptoms may include fever or sepsis, tenderness in the epigastric region, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner sign (bruising on the flank) or Cullen sign (bruising around the belly button).
The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Additionally, many cases are considered idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. To aid in remembering the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful. Each letter represents a potential cause: Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion stings, Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia, ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography), and Drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 9
Correct
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You assess a patient with a significantly elevated potassium level.
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by various factors that are not related to drug use. These include conditions such as renal failure, where the kidneys are unable to properly regulate potassium levels, and excess potassium supplementation. Other non-drug causes include Addison’s disease, a condition characterized by adrenal insufficiency, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Renal tubular acidosis, specifically type 4, can also lead to hyperkalaemia. Additionally, conditions like rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, and tumour lysis syndrome can contribute to elevated potassium levels. Acidosis, an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, is another non-drug cause of hyperkalaemia.
On the other hand, certain medications have been associated with hyperkalaemia. These include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium. These drugs can interfere with the body’s potassium regulation mechanisms and lead to increased levels of potassium in the blood.
In contrast, there are also conditions that result in low levels of potassium, known as hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome, a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis and normal to low blood pressure. Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis are other conditions that cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, type 4 renal tubular acidosis leads to hyperkalaemia. Gitelman’s syndrome, another rare inherited defect, affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney and causes a metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia.
Lastly, excessive consumption of liquorice can result in a condition called hypermineralocorticoidism, which can lead to hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old man has recently taken an antibiotic for a skin infection. He has been experiencing palpitations and had an ECG performed, which shows the presence of new QT prolongation.
Which of the following antibiotics is he most likely to have taken?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.
Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.
The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.
If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.
A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.
Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:
Antimicrobials:
– Erythromycin
– Clarithromycin
– Moxifloxacin
– Fluconazole
– KetoconazoleAntiarrhythmics:
– Dronedarone
– Sotalol
– Quinidine
– Amiodarone
– FlecainideAntipsychotics:
– Risperidone
– Fluphenazine
– Haloperidol
– Pimozide
– Chlorpromazine
– Quetiapine
– ClozapineAntidepressants:
– Citalopram/escitalopram
– Amitriptyline
– Clomipramine
– Dosulepin
– Doxepin
– Imipramine
– LofepramineAntiemetics:
– Domperidone
– Droperidol
– Ondansetron/GranisetronOthers:
– Methadone
– Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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