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  • Question 1 - A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her...

    Correct

    • A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her husband noticed a facial droop 1 hour ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia.

      Upon examination, there is a facial droop on the right side that spares the forehead. There is also a right-sided hemiparesis and loss of fine-touch sensation, with the right arm being more affected than the right leg. The examination of the visual fields reveals right homonymous hemianopia. Although the patient is conscious, she is unable to speak in full sentences.

      Which artery is likely to be occluded?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle cerebral artery, which is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia. This type of stroke is also known as a ‘total anterior circulation stroke’ and is characterized by at least three of the following criteria: higher dysfunction, homonymous hemianopia, and motor and sensory deficits.

      The anterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and altered sensation, with the lower limb being more affected than the upper limb.

      The basilar artery is also not the correct answer, as it is associated with locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those used for vertical eye movements and blinking.

      The posterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer either, as it is associated with contralateral homonymous hemianopia that spares the macula and visual agnosia.

      Finally, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which is characterized by ipsilateral facial pain and contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, as well as vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, and dysphagia.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are asked to see a 4-year-old girl with severe chronic malnutrition.
    You are...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 4-year-old girl with severe chronic malnutrition.
      You are concerned about kwashiorkor.
      What clinical feature is typical in cases of kwashiorkor?

      Your Answer: Abdominal swelling

      Explanation:

      Protein-Energy Malnutrition

      Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) or protein energy undernutrition (PEU) occurs when the body’s intake of energy and protein is insufficient to meet its requirements. This can happen due to inadequate intake or an increase in requirements without a corresponding increase in intake. The result is a range of health problems, including undernutrition, which is sadly common in many parts of the world.

      Undernutrition can take different forms, including kwashiorkor and marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterized by inadequate protein intake, leading to oedema, abdominal swelling, and fat accumulation in the liver. Marasmus, on the other hand, involves inadequate consumption of both energy and protein, resulting in emaciation without oedema or abdominal swelling. The term ‘protein-energy undernutrition’ encompasses both of these scenarios.

      It’s worth noting that malnutrition can refer to both overnutrition (obesity) and undernutrition, both of which have negative effects on the body’s health. However, in common usage, malnutrition typically refers to undernutrition. Additionally, malnutrition can also result from isolated deficiencies in vitamins or minerals. Overall, protein-energy malnutrition is crucial for promoting and preserving good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma and is discharged home after making a full recovery. After eight weeks, his general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most likely finding?

      Your Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.

      Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy

      After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is then replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the next few weeks. The platelet count is typically elevated and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.5
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman presents with new-onset jaundice. She reports fevers, malaise and generalised...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with new-onset jaundice. She reports fevers, malaise and generalised abdominal pain for the last 5 days. She returned from a trip to India 4 weeks ago, where she admits to eating mainly street food.

      Her blood results show the following:

      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 180 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 3000 u/L (3 - 40)

      What test result is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: HAV IgM + HAV IgG

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is most commonly transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food and water or direct contact with an infected person, via the faeco-oral route. Given the patient’s recent visit to an area where hepatitis A is highly endemic and the acute onset of symptoms, it is likely that hepatitis A is the cause. Blood tests typically show elevated levels of aminotransferases (AST) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST), as well as potentially elevated levels of bilirubin, prothrombin time, and alkaline phosphatase. The presence of both HAV IgM and HAV IgG antibodies would be expected, with IgM antibodies detectable 5 days after symptom onset and disappearing after 2 months, and IgG antibodies detectable 5-10 days after symptom onset and persisting.

      HAV IgG alone would not be indicative of an active infection, as it typically indicates prior infection or immunity. HBc IgG would also be an incorrect finding, as hepatitis B is transmitted through parenteral or sexual means and has a longer incubation period. HCV IgG would also be an incorrect finding, as hepatitis C is associated with chronic hepatitis and typically transmitted through blood transfusions.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter with...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter with an onset of confusion, since waking up in the morning. She tells you that her father is not making any sense when he talks. There is no history of cognitive impairment or recent head injury. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, pancreatitis and recurrent urinary tract infections.

      On examination, his observations are stable. His motor and sensory examination are unremarkable. He is able to talk in full sentences but his answers are incomprehensible. He cannot repeat spoken phrases.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's aphasia

      Explanation:

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.2
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with his wife. She reports noticing changes in his speech over the past six months. Specifically, she describes it as loud and jerky with pauses between syllables. However, he is still able to comprehend everything he hears. During your examination, you observe the same speech pattern but find no weakness or sensory changes in his limbs. Based on these findings, which area of the brain is most likely affected by a lesion?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Scanning dysarthria can be caused by cerebellar disease, which can result in jerky, loud speech with pauses between words and syllables. Other symptoms may include dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus, and an intention tremor.

      Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia can be caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which can lead to nonsensical sentences with word substitution and neologisms. It can also cause comprehension impairment, which is not present in this patient.

      Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra, which can result in monotonous speech. Other symptoms may include bradykinesia, rigidity, and a resting tremor, which are not observed in this patient.

      A middle cerebral artery stroke can cause aphasia, contralateral hemiparesis, and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower. However, this patient does not exhibit altered sensation on examination.

      A lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s and Broca’s area, can cause poor speech repetition, but this is not evident in this patient.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of elbow swelling. She reports a gradual onset of the swelling, with no apparent triggers, and experiences pain and warmth upon touch. She denies any swelling in other areas and is generally in good health.

      The patient has a medical history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. There are no other known medical conditions.

      During the physical examination, a tender, soft, fluctuant mass is palpated on the posterior aspect of the patient's elbow.

      Based on the above information, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Olecranon Bursitis

      Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. The inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows.

      The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, which is often the only symptom. Some patients may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. On the other hand, patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.

      Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.

      Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-coloured bursal fluid favours a non-infective cause. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and signs of olecranon bursitis can help in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of increasing fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of increasing fatigue, malaise, and polyuria. He discloses that he had a deceased-donor kidney transplant 3 months ago. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results are obtained: positive for protein, negative for blood, glucose, leucocytes, and nitrites. The medical team suspects transplant rejection. Which type of cell is responsible for mediating this complication?

      Your Answer: Cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      Cytotoxic T cells are responsible for both acute and chronic organ rejection. Acute rejection typically occurs within one week to three months after transplantation and is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is cell-mediated. On the other hand, hyperacute rejection, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction, is mediated by B cells and occurs within 24 hours of transplantation. Granulocytes, infiltrating macrophages, and plasma cells are not the primary drivers of acute organ rejection.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Webers test indicates that the issue is on the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an elevated alkaline phosphatase, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pagets disease with skull involvement

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient with no prior symptoms.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old female, Mrs Brown, visited the clinic due to a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female, Mrs Brown, visited the clinic due to a lump in her left breast. She did not experience any pain, fever or discharge. Her family has a significant history of cancer, with her sister passing away from a brain tumour at age 30 and her father being diagnosed with lung cancer at age 35. Mrs Brown is worried about the possibility of multiple tumours in her family and wishes to undergo further testing. Genetic testing confirmed that she has Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Which gene abnormality caused this syndrome?

      Your Answer: P53

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disorder that greatly increases the risk of developing various types of cancer, and it is caused by the loss of function of the p53 gene, which is a tumour suppressor gene. Similarly, the loss of function of the APC gene is linked to colorectal cancer, while the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with breast and ovarian cancer.

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. It is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur. Examples of tumour suppressor genes include p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1. Each of these genes is associated with specific types of cancer, and their loss of function can lead to an increased risk of developing these cancers.

      On the other hand, oncogenes are genes that, when they gain function, can also increase the risk of cancer. Unlike tumour suppressor genes, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Understanding the role of both tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes is crucial in the development of cancer treatments and prevention strategies. By identifying and targeting these genes, researchers can work towards developing more effective treatments for cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 59-year-old male presents with flushing, diarrhoea and hypotension. A small bowel MRI...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old male presents with flushing, diarrhoea and hypotension. A small bowel MRI reveals a mass in the ileum. The diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome is confirmed and the consultant starts treatment with octreotide.

      What is the mechanism of action of octreotide?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin analogue

      Explanation:

      Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is commonly used as a first line treatment for carcinoid syndrome due to its potent inhibition of gastrointestinal secretions. Additionally, it is effective in inhibiting growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin. Cyproheptadine, an antihistamine drug with anti-serotonergic properties, is also used in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists, on the other hand, are insulin secretagogues primarily used in the management of diabetes mellitus.

      Octreotide: A Long-Acting Analogue of Somatostatin

      Octreotide is a medication that acts as a long-acting analogue of somatostatin. Somatostatin is a hormone that is naturally released from the D cells of the pancreas and helps to inhibit the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin. Octreotide is used in the treatment of various conditions, including acute variceal haemorrhage, acromegaly, carcinoid syndrome, complications following pancreatic surgery, VIPomas, and refractory diarrhoea.

      One of the main benefits of octreotide is its ability to help control the release of hormones that can cause problems in the body. However, like all medications, it can also cause adverse effects. One potential side effect of octreotide is the development of gallstones, which can occur as a result of biliary stasis. It is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and benefits of octreotide and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides...

    Correct

    • During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides haemagglutinin, what is the other antigenic determinant of this illness?

      Your Answer: Neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      The major antigenic determinants of influenzae are haemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA). HA attaches to sialic acid residues on the cell surface, while NA catalyzes the cleavage of glycosidic linkages to sialic acid bonds, enabling new progeny viruses to exit the cell. Therefore, the correct answer is neuraminidase.

      Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions

      Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.

      Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.

      Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      3.2
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  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding interferon?

      Your Answer: Interferon-gamma has stronger antiviral action than interferon-alpha

      Correct Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Interferons

      Interferons are a type of cytokine that the body produces in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are categorized based on the type of receptor they bind to and their cellular origin. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors, while IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.

      IFN-alpha is produced by leucocytes and has antiviral properties. It is commonly used to treat hepatitis B and C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, and hairy cell leukemia. However, it can cause flu-like symptoms and depression as side effects.

      IFN-beta is produced by fibroblasts and also has antiviral properties. It is particularly useful in reducing the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.

      IFN-gamma is mainly produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells. It has weaker antiviral properties but plays a significant role in immunomodulation, particularly in macrophage activation. It may be beneficial in treating chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.

      Understanding the different types of interferons and their functions can help in the development of targeted treatments for various diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the...

    Correct

    • In 2015, The New England Journal of Medicine published a study on the effects of empagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor, on patients with type 2 diabetes over the age of 60 who were at high risk of cardiovascular events. The study found that empagliflozin reduced the incidence of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction, and non-fatal stroke compared to a placebo. The event rate for empagliflozin was 37.3/1000 patient years, while the event rate for the placebo was 43.9/1000 patient years. Based on this information, how many patients over the age of 60 and at high risk of adverse cardiovascular outcomes need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent one cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction, or non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.3
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  • Question 15 - The posterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The posterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.3
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  • Question 16 - A 79-year-old woman is observed four days after experiencing an ischaemic stroke, treated...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman is observed four days after experiencing an ischaemic stroke, treated with antiplatelet therapy. During evaluation, she is instructed to repeat the sentence 'touch your nose with your finger' and then perform the action. She successfully touches her nose with her finger, but her verbal response is incoherent and non-fluent. What type of aphasia is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Broca's

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing Broca’s dysphasia, which is characterized by non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition. This is likely due to a recent neurological insult that has resulted in higher cognitive dysfunction, specifically aphasia. Broca’s area, located in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere, is responsible for generating compressible words and is typically supplied by the superior division of the left MCA. Conductive aphasia, on the other hand, involves normal, fluent speech but poor repetition and is caused by a stroke involving the connection between different areas of the brain.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - Which one of the following types of reaction occurs during phase II drug...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following types of reaction occurs during phase II drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism involves two phases. In phase I, the drug undergoes oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. In phase II, the drug is conjugated.

      Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions

      Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.

      First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status

      First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.

      Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.

      Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge from the urethra and a burning sensation during urination. He reports having multiple unprotected sexual encounters. gonorrhoeae is diagnosed after appropriate testing and he is treated with ceftriaxone intramuscularly. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Inhibits cell wall formation

      Explanation:

      The main treatment for gonorrhoeae is a single dose of IM ceftriaxone, which belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation. Azithromycin may also be prescribed to treat co-infection with Chlamydia. Quinolones, which inhibit DNA synthesis, are not recommended due to increased resistance. Sulphonamides work by inhibiting folic acid formation, while macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogramins, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines work by inhibiting protein synthesis. Although azithromycin may be used as an add-on therapy for co-infection with Chlamydia, it is not the primary treatment for gonorrhoeae and is administered orally. Rifampicin, on the other hand, works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.6
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old male pedestrian is struck by a van while on a busy...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male pedestrian is struck by a van while on a busy road and is transported to the Emergency Department via ambulance. Despite receiving high flow 100% oxygen, he remains dyspneic and hypoxic. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and his pulse rate is 115 bpm. Upon examination, the right side of his chest is hyper-resonant on percussion and has decreased breath sounds. Additionally, the trachea is deviated to the left. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      A flap-like defect on the lung surface caused by chest trauma, whether blunt or penetrating, can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, worsening oxygen levels, a hollow sound upon tapping the chest, and the trachea being pushed to one side. The recommended course of action is to perform needle decompression and insert a chest tube.

      Thoracic Trauma: Types and Management

      Thoracic trauma refers to injuries that affect the chest area, including the lungs, heart, and blood vessels. There are several types of thoracic trauma, each with its own set of symptoms and management strategies. Tension pneumothorax, for example, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration in the lung parenchyma. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Other types of thoracic trauma include pneumothorax, haemothorax, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds. Each of these conditions has its own set of symptoms and management strategies. For example, patients with traumatic pneumothorax should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothoraces large enough to appear on CXR are treated with a large bore chest drain, and surgical exploration is warranted if >1500ml blood is drained immediately. In cases of cardiac tamponade, Beck’s triad (elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, reduced heart sounds) and pulsus paradoxus may be present. Early intubation within an hour is recommended for patients with significant hypoxia due to pulmonary contusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of thoracic trauma is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.2
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss. After taking a thorough medical history, the doctor notes no recent infections. However, the patient does mention being able to taste normally when only using the tip of their tongue, such as when licking ice cream.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted in this situation?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of taste in the posterior third of the tongue is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). This is because the patient can taste when licking the ice cream, indicating that the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are functioning normally. The facial nerve also provides taste sensation, but only to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, so it is not responsible for the loss of taste in the posterior third. The hypoglossal nerve is not involved in taste sensation, but rather in motor innervation of the tongue. The olfactory nerve innervates the nose, not the tongue, and there is no indication of a problem with the patient’s sense of smell.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      3.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (6/6) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (2/2) 100%
General Principles (8/9) 89%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/2) 100%
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