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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman is admitted to the general surgery ward and a nurse...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is admitted to the general surgery ward and a nurse has requested a review. The patient underwent a laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to biliary colic. During assessment, the patient presents with visible jaundice and complains of intermittent right upper quadrant pain that radiates to her back. Her vital signs are stable, and she is not febrile. Laboratory results show elevated bilirubin levels, ALP, and γGT. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common bile duct gallstones

      Explanation:

      After a cholecystectomy, a patient may still have gallstones in their common bile duct, leading to ongoing pain and jaundice. The most probable diagnosis for this patient is common bile duct stones, which can cause biliary colic and obstructive jaundice. While ascending cholangitis can also present with jaundice and right upper quadrant pain, the patient would typically have a fever and elevated white blood cell count, which is not the case here. Autoimmune hepatitis is unlikely as the patient’s liver function test results suggest cholestasis. Pancreatic cancer affecting the head of the pancreas can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless and therefore less likely to be the diagnosis.

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.

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  • Question 2 - A patient undergoes a left total hip arthroplasty (THA) via an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes a left total hip arthroplasty (THA) via an anterior approach. postoperatively she complains of inability to plantar flex her left foot.

      What nerve could have been damaged during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      During a total hip replacement surgery, the sciatic nerve is vulnerable to damage. This can result in foot drop as a post-operative complication. The sciatic nerve has two branches, the common peroneal nerve and tibial nerve, which are located further down the leg. The femoral nerve, on the other hand, is situated in front of the hip and runs alongside the femoral artery. It provides innervation to the muscles in the front of the thigh and is not associated with foot drop.

      Nerve Lesions in Surgery: Risks and Procedures

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of iatrogenic nerve injury, which can have significant consequences for patients and lead to legal issues. Several operations are associated with specific nerve lesions, including posterior triangle lymph node biopsy and accessory nerve lesion, Lloyd Davies stirrups and common peroneal nerve, thyroidectomy and laryngeal nerve, anterior resection of rectum and hypogastric autonomic nerves, axillary node clearance and long thoracic nerve, thoracodorsal nerve, and intercostobrachial nerve, inguinal hernia surgery and ilioinguinal nerve, varicose vein surgery and sural and saphenous nerves, posterior approach to the hip and sciatic nerve, and carotid endarterectomy and hypoglossal nerve.

      To minimize the incidence of nerve lesions, surgeons must have a sound anatomical understanding of the tissue planes involved in commonly performed procedures. Nerve injuries often occur when surgeons operate in unfamiliar tissue planes or use haemostats blindly, which is not recommended. By being aware of the risks and taking appropriate precautions, surgeons can reduce the likelihood of nerve injuries during surgery.

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  • Question 3 - For individuals with severe to profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, what is the...

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    • For individuals with severe to profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, what is the specific structure of the ear that is directly stimulated by the electrodes in a cochlear implant? This device is intended to provide an alternative hearing pathway for people of any age.

      Your Answer: Auditory nerve ganglion cells

      Explanation:

      Cochlear Implants and Sensorineural Hearing Loss

      A cochlear implant is a device that directly stimulates the spiral ganglion cells of the auditory nerve, bypassing the normal mechanical structures of the hearing pathway. This is particularly useful for individuals with sensorineural hearing loss, which occurs when the hair cells within the cochlea are damaged or die. These hair cells are responsible for converting mechanical energy into electrical impulses that can be transmitted to the auditory nerve and interpreted by the brain as sound.

      By providing a direct electrical stimulus to the auditory nerve, cochlear implants can help individuals with sensorineural hearing loss regain some level of hearing ability. While they do not restore normal hearing, they can provide significant improvements in speech recognition and overall communication abilities. Cochlear implants are a complex and highly specialized technology, and their success depends on a variety of factors including the individual’s age, degree of hearing loss, and overall health. However, for many individuals with sensorineural hearing loss, cochlear implants offer a valuable and life-changing solution.

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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and swollen hand. She reports having a fracture in her radius that was treated with a plaster cast for four weeks. Since then, she has noticed tenderness and shiny skin in the affected hand. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Malunion

      Correct Answer: Complex regional pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complex Regional Pain Syndromes (CRPS)

      Complex Regional Pain Syndromes (CRPS) are a group of conditions that are characterized by localized or widespread pain, accompanied by swelling, changes in skin color and temperature, and disturbances in blood flow. People with CRPS may also experience allodynia (pain from stimuli that are not normally painful), hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating), and changes in nail or hair growth. In some cases, motor abnormalities such as tremors, muscle spasms, and involuntary movements may also occur. Contractures, or the shortening and tightening of muscles, may develop in later stages of the condition. CRPS can affect any part of the body, but it is most commonly seen in the limbs.

      One of the defining features of CRPS is that it often develops after an injury, even one that may seem minor or insignificant. Symptoms may not appear until several months after the initial injury. CRPS was previously known as Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD).

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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
      Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
      Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
      Creatinine 88 µmol/l γGT 33 u/l
      Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
      The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast

      Explanation:

      The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man presents with a painful swelling on his left calf that...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with a painful swelling on his left calf that appeared a few days ago. He denies any history of trauma and is otherwise healthy with well-controlled hypertension. On examination, there is a tender, inflamed mass under the skin with mild erythema but no signs of cellulitis or DVT. The patient is afebrile and all vital signs are normal. The suspected diagnosis is uncomplicated superficial thrombophlebitis. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to analgesia?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Offer compression stockings (once arterial insufficiency has been excluded)

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are a recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis, which occurs when a clot forms in a superficial vein, typically the saphenous vein and its tributaries. In addition to pain relief, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) suggests using compression stockings after ruling out arterial insufficiency with an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurement. NICE also recommends considering referral for venous duplex scanning, as some patients may benefit from low molecular weight heparin treatment if they are at high risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or if the thrombophlebitis is near the saphenofemoral junction. Warfarin is not the first-line treatment. Clopidogrel is commonly used to treat peripheral arterial disease. Antibiotics may be necessary if there are signs of secondary infection, such as fever or malaise. Simple superficial thrombophlebitis typically does not require referral to a vascular surgeon.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side without other abnormalities detected. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure and observe

      Explanation:

      Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features

      Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.

      Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man, who had surgery for a bowel tumour 4 days ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, who had surgery for a bowel tumour 4 days ago, is now experiencing shortness of breath.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of breathlessness after major surgery

      Breathlessness is a common symptom after major surgery, and its differential diagnosis includes several potentially serious conditions. Among them, pulmonary embolism is a frequent and life-threatening complication that can be prevented with appropriate measures. These include the use of thromboembolic deterrent stockings, pneumatic calf compression, and low-molecular-weight heparin at prophylactic doses. Other risk factors for pulmonary embolism in this setting include recent surgery, immobility, and active malignancy. Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram is the preferred test to confirm a clinical suspicion of pulmonary embolism.

      Acute bronchitis is another possible cause of post-operative chest infections, but in this case, the history suggests a higher likelihood of pulmonary embolism, which should be investigated promptly. A massive pulmonary embolism is the most common preventable cause of death in hospitalized, bed-bound patients.

      Myocardial infarction is less likely to present with breathlessness as the main symptom, as chest pain is more typical. Pulmonary edema can also cause breathlessness, but in this case, the risk factors for pulmonary embolism make it a more plausible diagnosis.

      Surgical emphysema, which is the accumulation of air in the subcutaneous tissues, is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as it usually results from penetrating trauma and does not typically cause breathlessness.

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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of testicular pain. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of testicular pain. He reports experiencing pain in his right testicle, accompanied by swelling that has developed throughout the day. He also mentions feeling unwell and slightly nauseous.
      During the examination, the right testicle is observed to be swollen and red. It is sensitive to touch, especially on the top of the testicle, but the pain subsides when the testicle is lifted.
      What is the most suitable course of action to take at this point?

      Your Answer: Single dose ceftriaxone and 10-14 days of doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis with an unknown organism is a single dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and a 10-14 day course of oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with epididymo-orchitis, which is usually caused by sexually transmitted infections in younger individuals and urinary tract infections in older individuals. The positive Prehn’s sign and localisation of pain to the top of the testicle suggest epididymo-orchitis rather than an alternative diagnosis. Swabs may be taken later to determine the causative organism and adjust treatment accordingly.

      A 10-day course of oral levofloxacin is not appropriate for epididymo-orchitis of an unknown organism, as it is not the correct antibiotic for sexually transmitted pathogens. Referral for an ultrasound scan (2 week wait) is also not necessary, as testicular cancer usually presents as a painless lump and would not present acutely. A single dose of doxycycline and 10-14 days of ceftriaxone is also incorrect, as the correct treatment is a single dose of ceftriaxone and a 10-14 day course of doxycycline.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful rectal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding happens after passing stool and it is bright red. What could be the probable cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Fissure in ano

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences pain while passing stool and notices bleeding after defecation, it could indicate the presence of a fissure in ano. Although thrombosed haemorrhoids may also cause painful rectal bleeding, a fissure is more probable in this case. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease are more prone to developing fissures. While rectal cancer can also cause rectal bleeding, it is unlikely to occur in a 36-year-old.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

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