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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a truck and she swerved to avoid them, hitting a tree. Two weeks later, she still experiences flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty sleeping. Her brother reports that she startles easily and seems disoriented at times. The woman denies any chest pain or dizziness.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Panic disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction
Explanation:Acute stress disorder refers to a reaction to a traumatic event that occurs within four weeks, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after this time frame. Symptoms may include negative mood, dissociation, and avoidance.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.
Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital by his wife who reports that he has been experiencing distressing visual hallucinations of animals in their home. You suspect that he may be suffering from Charles-Bonnet syndrome. What are some potential risk factors that could make him more susceptible to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral visual impairment
Explanation:Peripheral visual impairment is a risk factor for Charles-Bonnet syndrome, which is a condition characterized by visual hallucinations in individuals with eye disease. The most frequent hallucinations include faces, children, and wild animals. This syndrome is more common in older individuals, without significant difference in occurrence between males and females, and no known increased risk associated with family history.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced by individuals with visual impairment, although this is not a mandatory requirement for diagnosis. People with CBS maintain their insight and do not exhibit any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbance. The risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The syndrome is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with CBS are age-related macular degeneration, glaucoma, and cataract.
Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are experienced by 10-30% of individuals with severe visual impairment. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired people is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. However, around a third of people with CBS find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing. A large study published in the British Journal of Ophthalmology found that 88% of people had CBS for two years or more, and only 25% experienced resolution at nine years. Therefore, CBS is not generally a transient experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first prenatal visit at 29 weeks gestation. She is currently taking fluoxetine and lactulose and is concerned about the potential risks to her baby. What is a possible danger of using fluoxetine during the third trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess the potential benefits and risks. While using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects, using them during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Additionally, paroxetine has a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery and your next patient is John, a 35-year-old man with a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). He is currently prescribed sertraline 200mg daily.
During the review of his symptoms today, John reports that he does not feel like the sertraline is helping, and he remains anxious almost all of the time. He experiences frequent episodes where he feels his heart pounding in his chest and his head is spinning. Additionally, he notes that he often struggles to get to sleep and can lie awake for hours at night.
As you observe John, he appears visibly distressed. He seems unable to sit still in his chair and is trembling slightly.
What would be the next step in John's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change the prescription to duloxetine
Explanation:If sertraline is not effective or not well-tolerated in the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD), an alternative SSRI or SNRI should be prescribed. In this case, duloxetine is the recommended option as it is an SNRI. Mirtazapine, although it has been shown to have an effect on anxiety symptoms, is not part of the NICE guidance for GAD treatment. Pregabalin may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate SSRI or SNRI treatment, but this is not yet necessary for Susan. Increasing the dose of sertraline is not an option as she is already on the maximum dose. Benzodiazepines should not be offered for the treatment of GAD except as a short-term measure during a crisis, according to NICE guidelines.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of poor memory. He works in a consulting company and recently faced trouble at work after missing a flight to a client in Tokyo. He has difficulty falling asleep and wakes up feeling exhausted. Sometimes he wakes up in the middle of the night screaming. When awake, he cannot relax and appears to be constantly on edge.
The patient has a history of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder during childhood and one major depressive episode during his university years. He has not had any mental health-related complaints since then. He drinks one bottle of wine on Saturdays with his wife and admits to occasional past cocaine use. However, he stopped using cocaine after being ambushed and stabbed while dealing with a dealer during his last vacation in Thailand two months ago. His wife has recently complained that he appears emotionally unavailable.
Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found. However, during the mental state examination, the patient exhibits low mood and an increased startle response. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder
Explanation:The individual is displaying common symptoms of PTSD, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through nightmares, avoiding triggers associated with the event, and experiencing hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and difficulty sleeping. It has been over a month since the traumatic event occurred, ruling out acute stress disorder. There are no signs of psychosis, and the individual has been sober from cocaine for two months. While anxiety is a symptom of PTSD, there is no indication of a generalized anxiety disorder or major depressive episode.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female with a lengthy history of schizophrenia has been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient facility due to a worsening of her psychosis caused by non-adherence to medication. During an interview with the patient, the psychiatrist observes that while the patient's speech is mostly comprehensible, she occasionally employs words like flibbertigibbet and snollygoster that appear to hold significance only for the patient.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's speech abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neologism
Explanation:Language Disturbances in Mental Health
Neologism is the term used to describe the creation of new words. This phenomenon can occur in individuals with schizophrenia or brain injury. Clanging, on the other hand, is the use of rhyming words in speech. Pressured speech is characterized by rapid speech that is difficult to interrupt and is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or hypomania. Circumstantiality refers to speech that may wander from the topic for periods of time before finally returning to answer the question that was asked. Lastly, word salad is a type of speech that is completely disorganized and not understandable, which may occur in individuals who have suffered a stroke affecting Wernicke’s area.
In summary, language disturbances are common in individuals with mental health conditions. These disturbances can range from the creation of new words to completely disorganized speech. these language disturbances can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to you seeking help as he feels like he is not himself lately. He has been struggling since his divorce 8 months ago. For the past 5 weeks, he has been experiencing low moods for most of the day, particularly in the mornings when he wakes up early. He has lost interest in his usual hobbies, including going to the gym. He has not been to any of his regular workout classes. He has had thoughts of taking a bottle of pills to end it all, but he knows he won't do it because he has a supportive family. He has no significant medical or psychiatric history.
Which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression: Choosing the Right Antidepressant
Depression is a serious mental health condition that requires a comprehensive treatment plan. Antidepressants are often prescribed as part of this plan, along with high-intensity psychological interventions like cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, not all antidepressants are created equal. Here are some of the most commonly used antidepressants and their indications:
Fluoxetine: This selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) is the most suitable first-line treatment for depression due to its efficacy, patient acceptability, and lower toxicity in overdose.
Imipramine: This tricyclic antidepressant is not usually used as a first-line treatment for depression but has a role in nocturnal enuresis.
Lithium: While lithium has antidepressant properties, it is not a first-line treatment for unipolar depression due to its side-effects and the need for blood monitoring. It is commonly used in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT): ECT is reserved for more severe depression where there is an immediate risk to life or where other treatments have been ineffective.
Phenelzine: This monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for depression but is helpful in treatment-resistant depression.
It’s important to work closely with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for your individual needs. Antidepressants may take several weeks to take effect, and patients should be aware of potential side-effects and the importance of adhering to their medication regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive episode on a background of known depression presents with occasional suicidal thoughts and is finding it difficult to cope with some daily activities despite use of psychological therapies and regular consultation with the GP. You agree to trial use of an antidepressant.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for a patient in their 60s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Depression: Understanding Antidepressants
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While psychological interventions are the first line of treatment, drug therapy may be necessary in some cases. This article discusses the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression.
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is the first line choice for treating depression. It is well-tolerated and effective in improving depression symptoms. However, it should be used in conjunction with psychological therapies.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has largely been replaced by SSRIs due to its toxicity in overdose.
Paroxetine is also an SSRI, but it is only licensed for treating major depressive episodes, not moderate ones.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is not recommended for treating depression due to issues with dependence and addiction.
Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that is primarily used for Parkinson’s disease but can be used for treatment-resistant depression under the guidance of a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression is crucial in providing effective care for patients. Primary care providers should work closely with mental health professionals to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with a history of manic-depressive psychosis, diagnosed at the age of 23, presents to her General Practitioner with polydipsia and polyuria. Current medication includes lithium and a steroid inhaler for bronchial asthma. Examination reveals a blood pressure (BP) of 110/75 mmHg, with a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. There are normal fasting sugar levels and there is no postural drop on standing.
What are the investigation findings most likely to help diagnose this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality
Explanation:There are various medical conditions that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels. Lithium is a common cause of acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone secretion or poor kidney response to ADH. On the other hand, high blood sugar levels are associated with polyuria and polydipsia, which can be indicative of diabetes mellitus. Elevated serum calcium levels may be caused by hyperparathyroidism or vitamin D excess, which can also lead to polyuria and polydipsia. However, if the patient has a history of psychosis, psychogenic polydipsia may be the more likely cause. This condition is characterized by low urine and serum osmolality due to excessive water intake, often seen in middle-aged women with psychiatric comorbidities or after lesions in the hypothalamus affecting thirst centers. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is another disorder that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels, characterized by high urine osmolality and low serum osmolality due to excessive ADH production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Prior to the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event and was struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also recently lost her job and was facing financial difficulties.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to increase her physical activity levels.
However, her mental health had since deteriorated, and she was experiencing difficulty sleeping, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to engage in one-to-one psychological treatments.
The GP discussed the next steps in managing her depression and PTSD.
What treatment options should be considered for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with ‘less severe’ depression, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. However, in the case of a patient with moderate depression who is not responding well to low-level therapy and has refused psychological treatments, an antidepressant should be offered. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not considered first-line. NICE recommends considering the higher likelihood of patients stopping treatment with venlafaxine due to side effects and its higher cost compared to SSRIs, which are equally effective. Mirtazapine and venlafaxine are typically reserved as second-line agents when the response to an SSRI has been poor. NICE advises offering an SSRI first-line as they have fewer side effects than other antidepressants and are just as effective. In this patient’s case, referral to a crisis team is unlikely as he has not expressed any true suicidal plans or intent.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presented to the hospital, accompanied by the police after having had a fight in a casino. The casino manager called the police when the man refused to leave after he had spent almost 24 hours gambling. The patient ran out of money and was harassing other clients, trying to borrow money from them and telling them that he will return it after he had won and invested the prize money. The patient has no known next of kin and refuses to engage with the attending doctor. He threatens to assault the medical staff and is eventually put under urgent mental health Section 4. A review of his medical notes reveals that the only medication on which he has been is lithium for a known psychiatric illness, but he has not been in touch with his general practitioner for the past two months.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check the lithium levels and consider adding olanzapine
Explanation:Management of Bipolar Depression with Mania or Hypomania
According to the latest NICE guideline CG85, patients with bipolar depression presenting with mania or hypomania should have their lithium levels checked and consider adding an antipsychotic such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone. Therefore, checking the lithium levels and considering adding olanzapine is the correct answer in this case.
Stopping lithium without checking the levels first is not recommended as it is a mood stabiliser and may be required for the patient. Starting haloperidol or risperidone without checking the lithium levels is also not recommended as the doctor must consider the patient’s lithium levels before adding an antipsychotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female complains of headache, weakness, and pains in her arms and legs. She reports feeling like her symptoms are worsening. She has no significant medical history except for a miscarriage two years ago.
Upon examination, her neurological and musculoskeletal functions appear normal, and there are no alarming signs in her headache history. Her GP conducts a comprehensive blood test, which yields normal results.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatoform disorder
Explanation:The young woman has physical symptoms without any disease process, which may be a form of somatisation/somatoform disorder. This disorder is often caused by underlying psychological distress and may result in depression or anxiety. Hypochondriasis is a belief that one is suffering from a severe disorder, while Münchausen syndrome is a disorder where a patient mimics a particular disorder to gain attention. To diagnose malingering, there needs to be evidence that the patient is purposefully generating symptoms for some kind of gain. In a somatisation disorder, the patient may have no clinical evidence of illness or physical injury but believes they have one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year old man is deeply concerned that a mole on his arm may be cancerous. He has consulted with a dermatologist who has assured him that it is a benign pigmented nevus, but the patient remains convinced that he will develop skin cancer. What is the term for neurotic anxiety related to a serious medical condition that cannot be alleviated by medical reassurance, assuming there are no other significant psychiatric disorders present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Differentiating between disorders related to illness and pain
There are several disorders related to illness and pain that can be difficult to differentiate. Hypochondriasis, also known as Illness anxiety disorder, is characterized by excessive fear of having or developing a disease. Malingering, on the other hand, involves faking or causing disease to escape obligations or obtain monetary rewards.
Somatisation disorder is diagnosed when a patient experiences symptoms for at least two years and seeks reassurance from multiple healthcare professionals, impacting their social and family functioning. Pain disorder is characterized by experiencing pain without obvious physical basis or exceeding the normal distress associated with an illness.
Finally, Munchausen syndrome is a severe form of factitious disorder where patients present with dramatic, faked, or induced physical or psychological complaints and even submit to unwarranted invasive treatments. It is important to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a situation where a 35-year-old patient who is informally admitted and may be suffering from psychosis threatens to leave the hospital while being suicidal. What section of the Mental Health Act can be used to detain this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Emergency Detention under Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act
Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act provides a legal provision for emergency detention of patients suspected of having a psychiatric cause for their illness. This section can be invoked by registered medical practitioners who are F2 and above. Once invoked, the patient can be detained for up to 72 hours while awaiting a Mental Health Act assessment. This provision is crucial in situations where a patient’s mental health poses a risk to themselves or others, and urgent intervention is required. The 72-hour period allows for a thorough assessment of the patient’s mental health status and the development of an appropriate care plan. It is important to note that the use of this section should be in line with the principles of the Mental Health Act, which prioritizes the least restrictive option for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features
Explanation:Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:
Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.
Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.
Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.
Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.
In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes to the surgery, distressed that her midwife has advised her to stop taking sertraline at 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had taken it during her previous two pregnancies and had two healthy children. She insists on knowing the potential risks associated with sertraline use during the first trimester. What are the increased risks during this period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital heart defects
Explanation:When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess both the potential benefits and risks. Research has shown that using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects in the baby. Additionally, using SSRIs during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn. It is important to note that paroxetine, in particular, has been associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially when used during the first trimester.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concerns about recurring thoughts. He has been experiencing thoughts of needing to repeatedly check that his car is locked when leaving it, even though he knows he locked it. Sometimes he feels the need to physically check the car, but other times it is just thoughts. He denies any symptoms of depression or psychosis and has no significant medical or family history. He is not taking any medications. What is the recommended first-line treatment for his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:The recommended treatment for a patient with OCD is exposure and response prevention, which involves exposing them to anxiety-inducing situations (such as having dirty hands) and preventing them from engaging in their usual compulsive behaviors. This therapy is effective in breaking the cycle of obsessive thoughts and compulsive actions.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells, dizziness, palpitations and pressure in his chest. He experiences these symptoms for 5-10 minutes during which he becomes anxious about fainting and dying. He takes a longer route to work to avoid crossing busy streets as he fears getting hit by a car if he faints. He avoids public speaking and works late into the night from home, which exacerbates his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic disorder with agoraphobia
Explanation:Differentiating Panic Disorder from Other Conditions
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by intense anxiety episodes with somatic symptoms and an exaggerated sense of danger. However, it can be challenging to distinguish panic disorder from other conditions that share similar symptoms. Here are some examples:
Panic Disorder vs. Somatisation Disorder
Patients with somatisation disorder also experience physical symptoms, but they fall into four different clusters: pain, gastrointestinal, urogenital, and neurological dysfunction. In contrast, panic disorder symptoms are more generalized and not limited to specific bodily functions.
Panic Disorder vs. Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia rarely induces severe panic or anticipatory anxiety, except in cases of insulin reactions. Patients with hypoglycemia typically experience symptoms such as sweating and hunger, which are not necessarily associated with panic disorder.
Panic Disorder vs. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia
Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is a heart condition that causes a doubling of the pulse rate and requires electrocardiographic evidence for diagnosis. While it may cause some anxiety, it is not typically accompanied by the intense subjective anxiety seen in panic disorder.
Panic Disorder vs. Specific Phobia
Specific phobias involve reactions to limited cues or situations, such as spiders, blood, or needles. While they may trigger panic attacks and avoidance, they are not as generalized as panic disorder and are limited to specific feared situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain
Explanation:Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Differentiating between Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode
Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode are all mental health conditions that can present with similar symptoms. However, each disorder has its own unique characteristics that differentiate it from the others.
Conduct Disorder is a disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18 and is associated with disruptive, bullying behavior and often torture of animals. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others.
Major Depression is associated with depressed mood, in addition to five of the following symptoms: sleep changes, loss of interest in previous hobbies or activities, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts persisting for 2 weeks.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder is characterized by behavior in opposition to authority, but there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.
Antisocial Disorder is diagnosed in individuals who are 18 or older and exhibit signs of Conduct Disorder. It is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy.
Manic Episode is associated with elevated mood lasting for 7 days. These patients feel as though they have increased energy, do not need sleep, engage in risky sexual activity and sometimes illicit behavior, feel above the law or invincible, are easily distractible, have flight of fancy, are agitated, and have pressured speech.
It is important to differentiate between these disorders to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate treatment and support for their specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) on an emergency appointment due to her worsening anxiety state. She reveals to the GP that she has been experiencing this for several years and is now seeking treatment. What is the most effective approach for long-term management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Medications for Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder can severely impact a patient’s daily life. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is the recommended first-line treatment. However, caution must be taken when prescribing to young adults, those over 65, and patients on other medications due to potential side effects. Zopiclone, Haloperidol, and Diazepam are not appropriate treatments for this disorder and should be avoided. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not considered the best management for generalised anxiety disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A young man seeks counselling because of marital discord. He and his wife have been having problems because he is uninterested in doing anything but playing video games. He has neglected his responsibilities at home and his work performance is beginning to suffer as well.
Which one of the following best describes his behaviour?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fixation
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Understanding Fixation, Dissociation, Sublimation, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with difficult situations or emotions. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:
Fixation: This occurs when a person becomes stuck in a particular stage of development and fails to progress. For example, someone who is fixated on football may prioritize it over other aspects of their life, leading to an imbalance.
Dissociation: This is a defense mechanism where a person temporarily disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, or memories to avoid distress. In extreme cases, dissociation can lead to dissociative identity disorder.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person channels an unacceptable trait or desire into a socially acceptable behavior. For example, someone with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their opposite. For instance, someone with repressed homosexual desires may become an outspoken advocate against homosexuality.
Splitting: This is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, unable to reconcile both positive and negative traits. For example, someone who experiences a bad breakup may only see their ex-partner as a terrible person, ignoring any positive qualities they may have had.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address unhealthy patterns in their behavior and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is cheating on her. They have been married for 10 years and have always been faithful to each other. She is a stay-at-home mom and her husband works long hours. You wonder about the likelihood of her claims being true.
What is the medical term for this type of delusional jealousy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where individuals believe that their partner is being unfaithful. This belief can stem from a variety of underlying conditions, including affective states, schizophrenia, or personality disorders. Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, even when none exists. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse
There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is unable to explain his condition but insists that he was admitted for 10 days last month despite records showing his last admission to be 7 months ago. He cannot recall which secondary school he attended and, after being on the ward for a week, he does not recognize his primary doctor's face. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, ischemic stroke, and alcoholic liver disease.
Upon examination, the patient has normal tone, upgoing plantar reflexes on the right, and a broad-based gait. There are bilateral cranial nerve 6 (CN 6) palsies associated with nystagmus.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Explanation:Korsakoff’s syndrome is a complication that can arise from Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and it is characterized by anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. In this case, the patient displays confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, as well as anterograde and retrograde amnesia with confabulation, which suggests that they have progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1), which is often due to chronic alcohol abuse or malnutrition. It presents with confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction, which can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome if left untreated. Brain tumors typically present with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure and focal neurological deficits, which are not present in this case. Lewy body dementia can be diagnosed if a patient with decreased cognition displays two or more of the following symptoms: parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, waxing-and-waning levels of consciousness, and rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder. Transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that involves retrograde and anterograde amnesia following a stressful event, lasting between 2-8 hours but less than 24 hours. Based on the patient’s symptoms and history of alcohol abuse, Korsakoff’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
She is visiting the clinic as she is still having difficulty managing her daughter's disruptive and challenging behavior, despite receiving group-based support and environmental modifications.
What is the primary treatment option for managing ADHD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:Management of ADHD: First-Line Treatment and Other Options
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects young people. While group-based support and environmental modifications can be helpful, medication and therapy are often necessary for ongoing, persistent impairment. Here are some options for managing ADHD:
First-Line Treatment: Methylphenidate
Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is considered first-line treatment for young people with ADHD who still have significant symptoms despite other interventions. However, it is not approved for use in children under six years and requires monitoring of height, weight, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG.Therapy: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
CBT can be helpful for patients who have already tried medication but continue to have significant symptoms. It can cover topics such as social skills, active listening, self-control, and expression of feelings.Alternative Medication: Dexamphetamine
Dexamphetamine is an option for patients who cannot tolerate or do not respond to methylphenidate. However, it is not first-line treatment.Not Recommended: Diazepam and Melatonin
Diazepam is not recommended for sedation in patients with ADHD. Melatonin can be used for regulating sleep in patients with learning difficulties, but it is not routinely used for ADHD management.In summary, ADHD management requires a tailored approach that may involve medication, therapy, or both. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment, but other options are available for patients who do not respond or cannot tolerate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-year-old son to see the general practitioner (GP) as she is very concerned about his school performance. His teacher has reported that he is being highly disruptive in the classroom.
Which of the following sets of behaviours fit best with a diagnosis of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Easily distracted, hyperactivity, interrupts classmates
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. The core features of ADHD include inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness. Individuals with ADHD may be easily distracted, forgetful, fidgety, and have difficulty sustaining attention for prolonged periods. They may also interrupt others, talk excessively, and struggle to wait their turn.
While the exact cause of ADHD is unknown, genetic factors, head injury, and low birthweight are thought to be risk factors. ADHD is more common in men than women. Management of ADHD typically involves counselling and/or medication.
It is important to note that ADHD does not necessarily lead to difficulties in forming friendships or an inability to empathize with peers. Aggression and destruction are also not core features of ADHD. However, individuals with ADHD may struggle with inflexibility and have difficulty finishing tasks. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with ADHD in order to provide appropriate support and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department claiming that he is infested with fleas. He reports feeling extremely itchy and is requesting treatment. This is his fourth visit in the past year for this issue. The patient has no notable medical history and denies using any illicit drugs. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week and is employed full-time as a teacher.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs is delusional parasitosis. This rare condition can occur on its own or alongside other psychiatric disorders, but typically does not significantly impair the patient’s daily functioning. Capgras syndrome, delirium tremens, and Fregoli syndrome are all incorrect diagnoses for this particular case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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