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Question 1
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours
Explanation:Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:
Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.
An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.
Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.
Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.
Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that provides motor and sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, as well as the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by fibular neck fracture, results in footdrop and sensory loss in the affected areas.
The sciatic nerve, which originates from the lumbosacral plexus, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and indirectly innervates the posterior leg/calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the feet. It also provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Sciatica, a common condition that causes pain radiating down the leg, is often caused by irritation of the sciatic nerve root.
The posterior tibial nerve, another branch of the sciatic nerve, supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by compression or trauma, results in ankle and sole of foot paraesthesiae.
The L5 root innervates muscles responsible for ankle and great toe dorsiflexion, hip abduction, and sensory innervation to the buttocks, posterolateral thigh, and lateral calf. L5 radiculopathy, which causes pain radiating from the lower back to the foot, is a common condition associated with damage to this root.
The deep peroneal nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve, innervates the muscles responsible for foot dorsiflexion and provides sensory innervation to the area between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve, often caused by conditions such as LMD or diabetes, results in footdrop with minimal sensory loss and preserved eversion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient visits the sexual health clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 2 days ago. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill but has missed the last 3 pills. The patient is on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle and has asthma, for which she uses fluticasone and salbutamol inhalers. The healthcare provider prescribes levonorgestrel. What advice should be given to the patient?
Your Answer: She can restart her pill immediately
Explanation:Levonorgestrel (Levonelle) can be followed immediately by hormonal contraception for emergency contraception.
Patients can resume their regular pill regimen right after taking levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Levonorgestrel is an approved method of emergency contraception that can be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. It is the preferred oral emergency contraceptive for patients with asthma, as ulipristal is not recommended for those with severe asthma. Unlike ulipristal, which requires a waiting period of 5 days, patients can start hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel. However, patients should use condoms for 7 days after restarting their combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). It is important to note that the other options provided are incorrect. The progesterone-only pill requires condom use for 48 hours, unless initiated within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle. Ulipristal acetate requires a waiting period of 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception. The COCP requires condom use for 7 days after restarting.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits her GP at 12 weeks gestation complaining of dysuria. Apart from this, she is healthy and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Upon urine dip, leucocytes, nitrates, blood, and protein are detected. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Although UTI in pregnancy may not show any symptoms, it still needs to be treated promptly to prevent the development of pyelonephritis. The common medications used to treat UTIs are nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. Nitrofurantoin can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided at term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy. Penicillins and cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy, but sulfonamides (such as sulfasalazine) and quinolones (such as ciprofloxacin) should be avoided.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a regular menstrual cycle for the past year, despite a negative pregnancy test. You order initial tests to establish a baseline. Which of the following is not included in your list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhoea is caused by Turner’s syndrome instead of secondary amenorrhoea.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.
In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?
Your Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure Management
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve outcomes. Two drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers. Aspirin, on the other hand, is used to reduce the risk of mortality and further cardiovascular events following myocardial infarction and stroke, but it has no role in heart failure alone.
Digoxin can be used for short-term rate control for atrial fibrillation, but long-term use should be approached with caution as it may lead to increased mortality. Furosemide is useful in managing symptoms and edema in heart failure, but it has not been shown to have a mortality benefit.
Lidocaine and other antiarrhythmic agents are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure and should only be used with specialist support for ventricular arrhythmias in an unstable patient. Standard drugs such as digitalis and diuretics have not been shown to improve survival rates.
Studies have shown that reducing left ventricular afterload prolongs survival rates in congestive heart failure. Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors are effective in inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, affecting coronary artery tone and arterial wall hyperplasia. There is also evidence for the use of beta blockers in heart failure management.
In conclusion, proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with heart failure. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators have been shown to reduce mortality rates, while other drugs such as aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide have specific roles in managing symptoms and associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours
Explanation:Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent genital lesion. The patient reports experiencing severe pain and first noticed the lesion one week ago. He admits to engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners within the past three months. Upon examination, a deep ulcer with a ragged border is observed on the penis shaft, accompanied by tenderness and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:The man’s ulcer appears to be caused by chancroid, which is known for causing deep and painful genital ulcers accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gonorrhoea is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with penile discharge and no ulceration. Herpes simplex can also cause painful genital ulcers, but they are usually multiple and superficial, and inguinal lymphadenopathy is not as common as with chancroid. Lymphogranuloma venereum causes painless ulceration that heals quickly, while primary syphilis causes a painless ulcer called a chancre.
Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease
Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.
Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?
Your Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
What would be your advice to the mother?Your Answer: She can only go back to school after the swellings are resolved and she feels completely back to normal
Correct Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands
Explanation:If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
Which of the following treatments would you recommend?Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic with concerns about darkened skin on her neck.
Which of the following is the most probable cause?Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview
Acanthosis Nigricans: A condition characterized by darkened patches of thickened skin, often described as velvet-like. It is usually benign but can sometimes be associated with underlying autoimmune conditions or gastric cancer.
Dermatitis: Inflammation of the skin that can cause blistering, oozing, crusting, or flaking. Examples include eczema, dandruff, and rashes caused by contact with certain substances.
Hidradenitis Suppurativa: A chronic condition that affects the apocrine glands in skin folds, causing painful nodules that can develop into pustules and eventually rupture. Scarring is common.
Intertrigo: An inflammatory condition of skin folds caused by friction, often leading to secondary bacterial or fungal infections. Commonly found in the groin, axillae, and inframammary folds.
Cowden’s Syndrome: An autosomal dominant condition characterized by hair follicle tumors, a cobblestone appearance of the oral epithelium, oral papillomas, and multiple skin tags. Associated with a high incidence of breast, thyroid, and gastrointestinal cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the cause of scarlet fever?
Your Answer: Coxsackie A16
Correct Answer: Group A haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the left side of her neck below the jaw angle that has been bothering her for the past 5 days. She also reports a bad taste in her mouth. During the physical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.8ºC and a tender submandibular mass measuring 4x5cm. Additionally, there is tender lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sialadenitis
Explanation:This woman is experiencing sialadenitis, which is inflammation of the salivary gland. It is likely caused by a stone blocking the duct. The submandibular gland is located below the jawline and its duct drains into the floor of the mouth. When there is a discharge from this duct, it can cause a bad taste in the mouth. There are three main salivary glands: the parotid glands, which are located in front of and below each ear, the submandibular glands, which are located below the jawline, and the sublingual glands, which are located beneath the tongue. Disorders of these glands can be caused by infection, inflammation, obstruction, or malignancy. Swelling of the submandibular gland can be caused by a stone or a tumor, which can be either benign or malignant.
Salivary Glands and Their Pathologies
Salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in digestion and protects the mouth from harmful bacteria. There are three pairs of salivary glands: parotid, submandibular, and sublingual. The parotid gland is the most common site for tumors, while the submandibular gland is most commonly affected by stones.
Tumors in the salivary glands are rare, but when they do occur, 80% of them are found in the parotid gland. Of these, 80% are pleomorphic adenomas, which are benign. These tumors typically grow slowly and are painless, but surgical removal carries a risk of damage to the facial nerve (CN VII). Warthin’s tumor is another benign tumor that affects the salivary glands, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenomas.
Stones in the salivary glands can cause recurrent pain and swelling, especially when eating. They are most commonly found in the submandibular gland and can lead to infection if left untreated. Other causes of salivary gland enlargement include viral or bacterial infections, as well as autoimmune disorders like Sjogren’s syndrome. Proper diagnosis and treatment are important for managing these conditions and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 18
Correct
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Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She is also a heavy drinker, consuming around 30-35 units per week. During the examination, a palpable gallbladder is detected, but there is no history of abdominal pain. The doctor orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Albumin: 28 g/L
- Alk Phos: 320 U/L
- ALT: 90 U/L
- Bilirubin: 100 umol/L
- INR: 1.5
- GGT: 120 U/L
What is the most likely diagnosis for Samantha?Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is the correct answer for this question, as indicated by Courvoisier’s sign. This sign suggests that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones, but rather by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. While alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, the presence of a painless, enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a likely cause, as it would not result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice is not typically associated with this type of overdose.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Correct
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A 61-year-old male presents with a four-month history of gradual slurring of speech and trouble swallowing. The patient reports more difficulty with liquids than solids, frequently choking while drinking water. During the examination, the patient exhibits facial weakness and low-volume speech. Ocular examination shows no signs of ptosis or ophthalmoplegia. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Motor neurone disease often presents with spared eye movements. This is particularly common in cases of bulbar-onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), where patients may struggle with swallowing liquids more than solids in the early stages. Other symptoms may include facial weakness, hypophonic speech, fasciculations, and reduced jaw jerk reflex (a lower motor neuron sign). In contrast, achalasia typically causes difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids due to a loss of normal peristalsis and failure of the lower sphincter to relax during swallowing. This condition does not typically involve fasciculation of the tongue. Oesophageal carcinoma may also cause difficulty swallowing, but patients usually report difficulty with solids before liquids and may experience constitutional symptoms such as weight loss.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?
Your Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy
Explanation:To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Correct
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A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis
Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.
Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.
Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.
Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.
Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan every two years
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months
Explanation:Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.
If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.
Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.
Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.
Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral hormone replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises
Explanation:The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after being found on the floor early in the morning. He states that he tripped and fell in the evening and could not get up or get help. The following U&Es were taken:
Na+ 135 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Creatinine 347 mmol/l
Urea 9.8 mmol/l
Creatine kinase 14,550 I/U
What could be the possible reason for this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Explanation:If someone is stuck on the ground for an extended period after falling, they may develop rhabdomyolysis. This condition occurs when myoglobin, a toxic substance released from muscle tissue, damages the kidneys and causes acute kidney injury. Elevated levels of creatinine kinase and potassium are common indicators of rhabdomyolysis.
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that may be presented in an exam scenario where a patient has experienced a fall or prolonged epileptic seizure and is discovered to have an acute kidney injury upon admission. The condition is characterized by a disproportionately elevated creatinine level, elevated creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, hypocalcaemia (as myoglobin binds calcium), elevated phosphate (released from myocytes), hyperkalaemia (which may develop before renal failure), and metabolic acidosis. The causes of rhabdomyolysis include seizure, collapse or coma (such as an elderly patient collapsing at home and being found eight hours later), ecstasy use, crush injury, McArdle’s syndrome, and certain drugs, such as statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin).
The management of rhabdomyolysis involves administering intravenous fluids to maintain good urine output, and urinary alkalinization may be used in some cases. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis early on to prevent further complications and ensure prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss and vague symptoms. During the examination, the GP detects a suspicious lump on her neck and refers her urgently to ENT. To expedite the process, the GP conducts several investigations and observes a significant elevation in calcitonin levels. Which type of cancer is associated with calcitonin as a tumor marker?
Your Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer
Explanation:The presence of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of medullary thyroid cancer, as this type of cancer originates from the parafollicular cells that produce calcitonin. Therefore, calcitonin is considered a tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.
Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.
Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.
Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.
In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at the age of 13. She has never sought medical attention for this issue but has now decided to address it. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle, and she experiences heavy bleeding for 7 days, with 4 days of blood clots and flooding. The patient has never been pregnant and does not plan to have children. She is currently in a sexually active relationship and uses condoms for contraception. There is no significant medical or family history. Blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Insertion of intra-uterine system (IUS)
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for menorrhagia is the intra-uterine system (IUS), which has a high success rate in stopping bleeding and only requires one insertion procedure. Additionally, it provides reliable contraception. Conversely, the copper coil may exacerbate menorrhagia symptoms. While medication such as the progesterone-only pill or combined oral contraceptive pill can be used, they are not the first choice. It would be an extreme measure to refer a woman of child-bearing age for a hysterectomy, especially when there are less invasive and reversible options available to treat menorrhagia, even if the patient expresses no desire for children.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?Your Answer: Renal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas
Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:
Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.
Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.
Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.
Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with severe chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals anterior ST elevation, and he is promptly treated with thrombolysis, resulting in the resolution of symptoms and ECG changes. What combination of medications should he be prescribed four weeks after the event?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.
Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: L5
Explanation:The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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