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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a persistent sore throat that has been bothering her for the past five days. She denies having any symptoms of a cold and does not have a cough. She has a clean medical history, does not take any medications, and has no known drug allergies. During the examination, she has a normal body temperature and a few tender lymph nodes in her neck. Her throat and tonsils appear red and inflamed, with a significant amount of exudate on her left tonsil.
Using the FeverPAIN Score to evaluate her sore throat, what would be the most appropriate course of action for her at this point?Your Answer: She should be offered a 'back-up prescription' for penicillin V
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, recommendations for antibiotic use are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates an unlikely streptococcal infection, with antibiotics not recommended; a score of 2-3 suggests a 34-40% chance of streptococcus, and delayed prescribing of antibiotics may be considered; a score of 4 or higher indicates a 62-65% chance of streptococcus, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended for severe cases, or a short back-up prescription may be given for 48 hours.
The Fever PAIN score was developed through a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was tested in a trial comparing three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, score-directed prescribing, and a combination of the score with a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and reduced antibiotic prescribing by one third. The addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
According to the current NICE guidelines, if antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin is recommended as the first-choice antibiotic. In cases of true penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be used as an alternative. For pregnant women with a penicillin allergy, erythromycin is prescribed. It is important to note that the threshold for prescribing antibiotics should be lower for individuals at risk of rheumatic fever and vulnerable groups managed in primary care, such as infants, the elderly, and those who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised. Antibiotics should not be withheld if the person has severe symptoms and there are concerns about their clinical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Correct
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You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the cardiology on-call team. While discussing the patient with the cardiology registrar on the phone, she explains that she is currently busy, but suggests that you start verapamil now and that she will review the patient as soon as she can. You review the patient's medication chart to determine if this is an appropriate course of action.
Which of the following drugs should not be co-prescribed with verapamil?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Verapamil is a type of calcium-channel blocker that is commonly used to treat irregular heart rhythms and chest pain. It is important to note that verapamil should not be taken at the same time as beta-blockers like atenolol and bisoprolol. This is because when these medications are combined, they can have a negative impact on the heart’s ability to contract and the heart rate, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure, slow heart rate, impaired conduction between the upper and lower chambers of the heart, heart failure (due to decreased ability of the heart to pump effectively), and even a pause in the heart’s normal rhythm. For more information, you can refer to the section on verapamil interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the patient, guided by the most recent BTS guidelines.
According to the BTS guidelines, which of the following is NOT a suitable treatment?Your Answer: IV salbutamol if inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably
Correct Answer: 1 hourly ipratropium bromide nebulisers
Explanation:The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:
Oxygen:
– It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.β2 agonists therapy:
– High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
– Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
– For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
– In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.Ipratropium bromide:
– Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.Steroid therapy:
– Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
– Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.Other therapies:
– Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
– A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
– Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 82 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by her two daughters. They are worried as the patient has become more disoriented and restless over the past two nights and has started shouting out. The patient's daughters inform you that the patient has limited mobility, relying on a wheelchair except for very short distances, but typically maintains normal awareness. When attempting to gather a medical history, the patient angrily tells you to 'go away' and repeatedly asks her daughters 'where am I?'
Your Answer: 1 mg lorazepam by intramuscular injection
Correct Answer: 1 mg haloperidol by intramuscular injection
Explanation:In cases of delirium with challenging behavior, short-term low-dose haloperidol is typically the preferred medication. This patient is likely experiencing delirium due to a urinary tract infection. If the patient’s behavior becomes aggressive or poses a risk to themselves or others, pharmacological intervention may be necessary if non-verbal and verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective or inappropriate. It is important to note that antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Low-dose haloperidol can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection. However, if the patient refuses oral medication, alternative methods may need to be considered.
Further Reading:
Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.
Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.
The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.
Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her entire torso, face, arms and upper legs. The skin is scaling and peeling in places and feels hot to touch. She is referred to the on-call dermatologist and a diagnosis of exfoliative erythroderma is made.
What is the SINGLE most likely underlying cause?Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Explanation:Erythroderma is a condition characterized by widespread redness affecting more than 90% of the body surface. It is also known as exfoliative erythroderma due to the presence of skin exfoliation. Another term used to describe this condition is the red man syndrome.
The clinical features of exfoliative erythroderma include the rapid spread of redness to cover more than 90% of the body surface. Scaling of the skin occurs between days 2 and 6, leading to thickening of the skin. Despite the skin feeling hot, patients often experience a sensation of coldness. Keratoderma, which is the thickening of the skin on the palms and soles, may develop. Over time, erythema and scaling of the scalp can result in hair loss. The nails may become thickened, ridged, and even lost. Lymphadenopathy, or enlarged lymph nodes, is a common finding. In some cases, the patient’s overall health may be compromised.
Exfoliative erythroderma can be caused by various factors, including eczema (with atopic dermatitis being the most common underlying cause), psoriasis, lymphoma and leukemia (with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common malignant causes), certain drugs (more than 60 drugs have been implicated, with sulphonamides, isoniazid, penicillin, antimalarials, phenytoin, captopril, and cimetidine being the most commonly associated), idiopathic (unknown cause), and rare conditions such as pityriasis rubra pilaris and pemphigus foliaceus. Withdrawal of corticosteroids, underlying infections, hypocalcemia, and the use of strong coal tar preparations can also precipitate exfoliative erythroderma.
Potential complications of exfoliative erythroderma include dehydration, hypothermia, cardiac failure, overwhelming secondary infection, protein loss and edema, anemia (due to loss of iron, B12, and folate), and lymphadenopathy.
Management of exfoliative erythroderma should involve referring the patient to the medical on-call team and dermatology for admission. It is important to keep the patient warm and start intravenous fluids, such as warmed 0.9% saline. Applying generous amounts of emollients and wet dressings can help alleviate
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals the presence of macrocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Myeloproliferative disease
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of recurrent episodes of painless rectal bleeding is found to have a Meckel's diverticulum during a colonoscopy.
What is the most common location for Meckel's diverticulum?Your Answer: Caecum
Correct Answer: Ileum
Explanation:A Meckel’s diverticulum is a leftover part of the vitellointestinal duct, which is no longer needed in the body. It is the most common abnormality in the gastrointestinal tract, found in about 2% of people. Interestingly, it is twice as likely to occur in men compared to women.
When a Meckel’s diverticulum is present, it is usually located in the lower part of the small intestine, specifically within 60-100 cm (2 feet) of the ileocaecal valve. These diverticula are typically 3-6 cm (approximately 2 inches) long and may have a larger opening than the ileum.
Meckel’s diverticula are often discovered incidentally, especially during an appendectomy. Most of the time, they do not cause any symptoms. However, they can lead to complications such as bleeding (25-50% of cases), intestinal blockage (10-40% of cases), diverticulitis, or perforation.
These diverticula run in the opposite direction of the intestine’s natural folds but receive their blood supply from the ileum mesentery. They can be identified by a specific blood vessel called the vitelline artery. Typically, they are lined with the same type of tissue as the ileum, but they often contain abnormal tissue, with gastric tissue being the most common (50%) and pancreatic tissue being the second most common (5%). In rare cases, colonic or jejunal tissue may be present.
To remember some key facts about Meckel’s diverticulum, the rule of 2s can be helpful:
– It is found in 2% of the population.
– It is more common in men, with a ratio of 2:1 compared to women.
– It is located 2 feet away from the ileocaecal valve.
– It is approximately 2 inches long.
– It often contains two types of abnormal tissue: gastric and pancreatic.
– The most common age for clinical presentation is 2 years old. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 8
Correct
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding neutropenic sepsis?Your Answer: Specialist management in an acute hospital setting involves implementing the standard UK Sepsis Trust 'Sepsis Six' bundle
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can occur in individuals with low neutrophil counts, known as neutropenia. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including certain medications like chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies. In adults, mortality rates as high as 20% have been reported.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have either a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms consistent with significant sepsis. Cancer treatments can suppress the bone marrow ability to respond to infections, making neutropenic sepsis more likely. This is most commonly seen with systemic chemotherapy but can also occur after radiotherapy.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors who are expected to experience significant neutropenia due to chemotherapy should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, such as ciprofloxacin. This should be taken during the expected period of neutropenia.
When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to promptly implement the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle within the first hour of recognizing sepsis. This involves specialist assessment and management in an acute hospital setting.
The NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) as the initial empiric antibiotic therapy for patients suspected of having neutropenic sepsis. It is advised not to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological indications.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in after being hit in the eye by a piece of metal at her workplace. She has a deep cut on her upper eyelid and is experiencing intense eye pain and decreased vision.
What would be the most useful approach for initially assessing this patient?Your Answer: Tonometry
Correct Answer: The Seidel test
Explanation:The Seidel test is a method used to assess ocular trauma. The procedure involves applying a 10% fluorescein strip to the affected area and examining it using a cobalt blue filter. If there is a corneal laceration with leakage of aqueous fluid, the dye will be diluted by the fluid, resulting in a visible stream.
In addition to the Seidel test, there are several other important steps to be taken during an eye examination for trauma. These include inspecting the overall appearance of the eye, examining the lids and peri-orbital bones, assessing visual acuity in both eyes, testing visual fields by confrontation, evaluating eye movements, measuring pupil size and response to light and accommodation, checking for foreign bodies using a slit lamp, performing fundoscopy and assessing the red reflex.
The Amsler grid test is a useful tool for detecting central visual field defects and aiding in the diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration. A positive Amsler test is indicated by the appearance of curved or wavy lines on the grid.
Tonometry is a technique used to measure intraocular pressure (IOP), which is helpful in diagnosing glaucoma.
Retinal photography is a sophisticated imaging process that involves using a digital camera to capture detailed pictures of the retina. It is primarily used to document the health of various structures in the eye, such as the optic nerve, posterior pole, macula, retina, and its blood vessels. However, it is not typically used as part of the initial evaluation for trauma.
Eye pH measurement is a valuable tool in evaluating chemical eye injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes with his wife due to worries about his memory. After gathering information, you observe a gradual decrease in his cognitive abilities. The only significant medical history he has is a heart attack he had 8 years ago.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Vascular dementia is the second most common form of dementia, accounting for approximately 25% of all cases. It occurs when the brain is damaged due to various factors, such as major strokes, multiple smaller strokes that go unnoticed (known as multi-infarct), or chronic changes in smaller blood vessels (referred to as subcortical dementia). The term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI) is increasingly used to encompass this range of diseases.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, which has a gradual and subtle onset, vascular dementia can occur suddenly and typically shows a series of stepwise increases in symptom severity. The presentation and progression of the disease can vary significantly.
There are certain features that suggest a vascular cause of dementia. These include a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, the presence of focal neurological abnormalities, prominent memory impairment in the early stages of the disease, early onset of gait disturbance and unsteadiness, frequent unprovoked falls in the early stages, bladder symptoms (such as incontinence) without any identifiable urological condition in the early stages, and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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