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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old G3P2 woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old G3P2 woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding. She reports no pain or fever and has not received prenatal care for this pregnancy. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1 ºC. A serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin level is 10,000 iu. A pelvic exam reveals a closed cervical os. A bedside ultrasound confirms the presence of an intrauterine gestational sac with cardiac activity. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of miscarriage: A case study

      A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping at 8 weeks gestation. An ultrasound shows a viable pregnancy with fetal cardiac activity and a gestational sac within the uterus. The cervical os is closed. What type of miscarriage is this?

      Threatened miscarriage is the most likely diagnosis in this case. The patient can be reassured with precautions, as over 75% of pregnancies with threatened miscarriage do not abort. However, there is an increased risk of growth restriction and abnormal placentation in the third trimester.

      Ectopic pregnancy can be ruled out as the ultrasound has established the gestational sac within the uterus, not within the adnexa. Septic miscarriage is also unlikely as the patient does not demonstrate signs of infection, such as fever, and the cervical os is closed.

      A missed miscarriage can be ruled out as fetal cardiac activity was seen on ultrasound. In a complete miscarriage, the uterus would not have a gestational sac.

      In conclusion, differentiating between types of miscarriage is important in determining appropriate management and counseling for patients. In this case, a diagnosis of threatened miscarriage allows for reassurance and monitoring of potential complications later in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby boy (4.2kg). The delivery was vaginal but complicated by shoulder dystocia, which was resolved with McRoberts' manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure. Although the baby is healthy, the mother is experiencing significant pain and bleeding due to a tear. Upon examination, the midwife discovers a midline tear that extends to a small portion of the external anal sphincter. However, the internal sphincter remains intact. The patient's vital signs are normal, and she is otherwise in good health. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suture repair on the ward by an appropriately trained midwife or clinician

      Correct Answer: Suture repair in theatre by clinicians under local or general anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a third degree perineal tear is surgical repair in theatre by a trained clinician under local or general anaesthetic. This is necessary as the tear involves the external anal sphincter, which can lead to complications such as infection, prolapse, long-term pain, and faecal incontinence if left untreated. Analgesia should also be provided to manage the patient’s pain, with paracetamol being the first-line option. Emergency repair in theatre is not usually required unless the patient is unstable. Suture repair on the ward by a midwife or clinician is not appropriate for tears involving the anal complex, which require intervention in theatre. However, grade 2 tears can be repaired on the ward by senior midwives trained in perineal repair.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of pregnancy. The physician reporting the scan calculates an amniotic index >95th centile and diagnoses polyhydramnios.
      What volume of amniotic fluid is considered to be consistent with polyhydramnios?

      Your Answer: >4–5 l of amniotic fluid

      Correct Answer: >2–3 l of amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polyhydramnios: Excess Amniotic Fluid in Pregnancy

      Polyhydramnios is a condition in which there is an excess of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. This excess fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is normally swallowed by the fetus. Diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made by ultrasound assessment of the amount of fluid. If the deepest vertical pool is greater than 8 cm or if the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than the 95th percentile for the corresponding gestational age, polyhydramnios is diagnosed.

      Polyhydramnios occurs in approximately 2% of all pregnancies and is associated with maternal diabetes and fetal anomalies resulting in gastrointestinal obstruction, such as esophageal atresia and poor fetal swallowing.

      It is important to note that normal amniotic fluid varies and increases with gestational age, peaking at around 1 liter. An excess of 2 liters or more is considered consistent with polyhydramnios. Understanding this condition can help healthcare providers monitor and manage pregnancies for the best possible outcomes.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a positive urine pregnancy test. Lifestyle advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a positive urine pregnancy test. Lifestyle advice is given and blood tests are ordered. She has no notable medical history. During the examination, the following are observed:
      - Heart rate: 92 beats per minute
      - Blood pressure: 126/78 mmHg
      - Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      - Temperature: 36.6ºC
      - Respiratory rate: 16 breaths per minute
      - BMI: 30 kg/m²

      What supplementation would you recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 0.4mg daily

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg daily

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2, regardless of their medical history, should receive a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects. Iron supplementation may be necessary for those with iron-deficiency anemia, but it is not currently indicated for this patient. Low-dose folic acid supplementation may be appropriate for non-obese pregnant women. Vitamin B12 supplementation is necessary for those with a deficiency, but it is not currently indicated for this patient. Vitamin D supplementation may be necessary for those with a deficiency, but it is not currently indicated for this patient unless she has risk factors such as dark skin and modest clothing.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for delivery. She has had two previous vaginal deliveries. After three hours, she gives birth to a healthy baby girl with APGAR scores of 9 at 1 minute and 10 at 5 and 10 minutes. However, the newborn appears to be macrosomic, and during delivery, the mother suffers a perineal tear. The midwife calls the doctor to suture the tear and upon examination, they discover an injury to the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, involving the external and internal anal sphincters, with mucosal sparing. What degree of injury does she have?

      Your Answer: Fourth-degree

      Correct Answer: Third-degree

      Explanation:

      The perineal tear in this patient involves the anal sphincter complex, including both the external and internal anal sphincters, which is classified as a third-degree injury. This type of tear is typically caused by the intense pressure and stretching that occurs during childbirth, particularly in first-time mothers or those delivering larger babies, often due to undiagnosed gestational diabetes.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is in a car accident where her abdomen hits the dashboard. The mother's vital signs are stable, and there is no vaginal bleeding or uterine contractions. An ultrasound reveals an intact placenta. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Blood type and Rhesus testing

      Explanation:

      Rhesus testing should be promptly conducted for a pregnant woman who has experienced abdominal trauma, as those who are Rhesus-negative require anti-D administration to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
      Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: If the patient has booked late, then screening can be performed at 15 weeks

      Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’

      Explanation:

      Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests

      Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.

      If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.

      It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who has recently given birth to a baby...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who has recently given birth to a baby boy 6 weeks ago. At the 6 week check, you can see from her records that she has previously been on sertraline for moderate depression, however, this was stopped before her pregnancy. She tells you that she is finding it difficult to cope and is feeling extremely low. On examination, she is tearful and has a flat affect. She denies any thoughts to harm herself or her baby but is keen to try a medication that would be safe to use with breastfeeding.
      Which of the following medications may be appropriate for her to start?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the preferred treatment for post-natal depression in breastfeeding women is either sertraline or paroxetine. Before starting treatment, it is recommended to seek advice from a specialist perinatal mental health team. Although tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are an option, they are less commonly used due to concerns about maternal toxicity. Citalopram is also not the first-line choice. It is safe for the patient to take medication while breastfeeding, but the infant should be monitored for any adverse effects. The priority is to manage the patient’s mood symptoms to reduce the risk to both her and her baby.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
      During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
      Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
      What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia

      Correct Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:

      1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.

      2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.

      3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.

      4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.

      5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.

      In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented for her initial prenatal visit. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant.
      During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes which was managed with insulin therapy. However, her blood glucose levels are currently within normal limits. She is presently taking 400 µcg folic acid supplements and has no other medication history.
      At this clinic visit, a complete set of blood and urine samples are collected.
      What alterations would you anticipate observing in a healthy pregnant patient compared to before pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased serum haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Decreased serum urea

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.

      The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.

      The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the...

    Correct

    • As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.

      What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a primary infection with genital herpes at 24 weeks’ gestation, which was treated with acyclovir. She has attended clinic to discuss birth and management options.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Expectant delivery, without further treatment required

      Correct Answer: acyclovir daily from 36 weeks and expectant delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex type 1 or 2 and can harm newborns, leading to neonatal herpes. Pregnant women who contract herpes and remain untreated have a higher risk of premature delivery and membrane rupture. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly treat women with herpes simplex infection. acyclovir is a safe treatment option, which speeds up the healing process and suppresses viral shedding. Women with primary herpes infection in the first and second trimesters should be treated with oral acyclovir and offered treatment-dose acyclovir from the 36th week of gestation until delivery to prevent recurrence and reduce the risk of neonatal herpes. Expectant delivery is acceptable in these cases. Women who acquire herpes in the third trimester should be treated with acyclovir until delivery and offered an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission. Women who have acquired a primary genital herpes infection in the first and second trimesters that was treated should be offered acyclovir from 36 weeks onwards to reduce the risk of recurrence, lesion eruption, and viral shedding. Women with primary herpes simplex virus infection in labor who opt for vaginal delivery should receive intravenous acyclovir infusion to reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection. Invasive procedures should be avoided in these cases.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39 weeks. She has been diagnosed with HIV and has been on regular antiretroviral therapy. Her viral load at 37 weeks is as follows:
      HIV Viral Load 35 RNA copies/mL (0-50)
      What delivery plan would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prepare for non-emergency caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Continue with normal vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman has a viral load of less than 50 copies/mL at 36 weeks, vaginal delivery is recommended. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is to proceed with vaginal delivery. It is not necessary to prepare for a caesarian section as the pregnancy is considered safe without surgical intervention. Re-testing the HIV viral load is not necessary as the current recommendation is to test at 36 weeks. Starting antiretroviral infusion during vaginal delivery is also not necessary as the woman is already on regular therapy and has an undetectable viral load. Antiretroviral infusion is typically used during a caesarean section when the viral load is greater than 50 copies/mL.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week...

    Correct

    • You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week you are based in the early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU). You are assessing a 28-year-old female with a suspected threatened miscarriage. How does this condition typically manifest?

      Your Answer: Painless per-vaginal bleeding and a closed cervical os

      Explanation:

      A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed. Miscarriages can be classified as threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, or missed. Mild bleeding and little to no pain are typical symptoms of a threatened miscarriage. In contrast, an inevitable miscarriage is marked by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Inevitable miscarriages will not result in a continued pregnancy and will progress to incomplete or complete miscarriages.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Offer immediate external cephalic version

      Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate fetal growth scan to assess the baby’s wellbeing

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.

      Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.

      Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.

      An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.

      Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.

      Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman is in the second stage of labour. The fetal head...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is in the second stage of labour. The fetal head is not descending, and the obstetrician decides to perform a ventouse extraction. He injects local anaesthetic into a nerve that crosses the ischial spine. This nerve then passes along the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa embedded in the obturator internus fascia in Alcock’s canal.
      Which of the following is this nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Pathways in the Pelvic Region

      The pelvic region contains several important nerves that play a crucial role in the functioning of the lower body. Here are some of the key nerve pathways in this area:

      Pudendal Nerve: This nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and re-enters via the lesser sciatic foramen. It passes through Alcock’s canal and is responsible for the sensation and movement of the perineum.

      Sciatic Nerve: The sciatic nerve emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and descends between the femur and ischial tuberosity. It is prone to injury during deep intramuscular injections.

      Perineal Branch of S4: This nerve passes between the levator ani and coccygeus muscles and supplies the perianal skin.

      Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve descends on the psoas major muscle and supplies the cremaster muscle and labial or scrotal skin.

      Obturator Nerve: The obturator nerve emerges from the psoas major muscle and runs along the lateral wall of the true pelvis. It exits the pelvis through the superior aspect of the obturator foramen to enter the thigh.

      Understanding these nerve pathways is important for medical professionals who work in the pelvic region, as it can help them diagnose and treat various conditions related to these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who is worried about her current mood. He reports that she has been sleeping and eating very little since the birth of their baby, which was a month ago. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to complete the 'Edinburgh depression scale'

      Explanation:

      The Edinburgh Scale is a useful tool for screening postnatal depression. The fact that the husband is bringing his wife to the GP practice a month after giving birth suggests that her mood change is not due to baby blues, which typically resolve within three days of giving birth. It is more likely that she is suffering from postnatal depression, but it is important to assess her correctly before offering any treatment such as ECT. The Edinburgh depression scale can be used to assess the patient, with a score greater than 10 indicating possible depression. If there is no immediate harm to the mother or baby, watchful waiting is usually the first step in managing this condition. There is no indication in this question that the mother is experiencing domestic abuse.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy and is currently 10+0 weeks along. She has previously given birth naturally to a healthy child at 39 weeks and has no other prior pregnancies. Due to her family's history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, she undergoes a fasting glucose test during her booking visit, which reveals a level of 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best initial course of action for managing her fasting glucose level?

      Your Answer: Advice on diet and exercise plus daily blood glucose monitoring

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. This is the appropriate course of action, as relying solely on diet and exercise advice would not be sufficient given the patient’s high fasting glucose level. It is important to monitor glucose levels regularly while managing gestational diabetes, but when the fasting glucose level is >7 mmol/L at diagnosis, insulin therapy should be started. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide are not recommended during pregnancy due to the increased risk of fetal macrosomia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman who is 28-weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 28-weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with a swollen and tender left calf, which is confirmed as a DVT. Suddenly, she experiences acute shortness of breath and complains of pleuritic chest pain. What is the best initial management step for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: She should be started immediately on low molecular weight heparin

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman with a confirmed DVT is suspected of having a PE, the first step is to immediately administer LMWH to avoid any delay in treatment. PE during pregnancy can be life-threatening for both the mother and the foetus, causing hypoxia and even cardiac arrest. Thrombolysis is not recommended during pregnancy as it can lead to severe haemorrhage in the placenta and foetus. Apixaban is not approved for use during pregnancy and may have teratogenic effects. Similarly, warfarin is not safe during pregnancy and can cause congenital malformations and haemorrhage in the placenta. While a CTPA can be diagnostic, waiting for the scan can be risky for the mother and baby. Therefore, LMWH should be started without delay, and further investigations can be carried out to confirm or rule out a PE.

      Investigation of DVT/PE during Pregnancy

      Guidelines for investigating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy were updated in 2015 by the Royal College of Obstetricians. For suspected DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed if there is clinical suspicion. In cases of suspected PE, an ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients. If a woman presents with symptoms and signs of DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed. If DVT is confirmed, no further investigation is necessary, and treatment for venous thromboembolism (VTE) should continue. The decision to perform a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan or computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) should be made at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist.

      When comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy, it is important to note that CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer (up to 13.6%, with a background risk of 1/200 for the study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation. On the other hand, V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared to CTPA (1/50,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000). It is also important to note that D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism during pregnancy as it is often raised in pregnant women.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver her first child at 9 months’ gestation. What type of abdominal surgical incision is the obstetrician likely to use for the procedure?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      When it comes to surgical procedures, there are various types of incisions that can be made depending on the specific operation being performed. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: This is the most common incision site for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline and is also known as the bikini (Pfannenstiel) incision.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This type of incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree. It is commonly used for operations such as an open cholecystectomy.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This type of incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus. It is used to access the vermiform appendix.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used in a surgical procedure depends on the specific operation being performed and the location of the area that needs to be accessed.

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  • Question 24 - A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned that the cardiotocograph is showing late decelerations. She is reviewed by the obstetrician on-call who states that there is fetal compromise, but no immediate risk to life. A category two caesarean section is planned.

      What is the timeframe for the delivery to be performed?

      Your Answer: Within 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: Within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections must be carried out within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This category is used when there is fetal or maternal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening. The delivery should be planned as soon as possible, but the target time is within 60-75 minutes. Category 1 caesarean section, on the other hand, is used when there is an immediate threat to the life of the woman or fetus, and the procedure should be performed within 30 minutes.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in the community. She has had an uneventful pregnancy and is feeling well. Her birth plan is for a water birth at her local midwife-led birth center. During her assessment, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.7ºC, heart rate of 90 beats/min, blood pressure of 161/112 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% in room air with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Urinalysis reveals nitrites + and a pH of 6.0, but negative for leucocytes, protein, and blood. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to local maternity unit for observation and consideration of medication

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women whose blood pressure is equal to or greater than 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and monitored. In this case, the patient is hypertensive at 35 weeks of gestation. While pre-eclampsia was previously defined as hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy, the current diagnosis includes hypertension and any end-organ damage. Although the patient feels well, she should be admitted to the local maternity unit for further investigation as her blood pressure exceeds the threshold. Urgent delivery of the infant should not be arranged unless the mother is unstable or there is fetal distress. The presence of nitrites in the urine dipstick is not a significant concern, and delaying further investigation for a week is not appropriate. Prescribing antibiotics for asymptomatic patients with positive nitrites and no leukocytes in the urine is incorrect management and does not address the hypertension. Continuing with midwife-led care without further investigation for two weeks could lead to the development of pre-eclampsia or eclamptic seizure, which is dangerous for both mother and fetus.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 26 - A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure mother baby will most likely turn to a cephalic presentation prior to delivery

      Correct Answer: Refer for external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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  • Question 27 - As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in the neonatal unit, you receive a call from a nurse regarding a delivery where the baby's head has been delivered, but the shoulders are not descending with normal downward traction. What is your initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to hyperflex their legs and apply suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      In cases where the previous method is unsuccessful, an episiotomy may be necessary to facilitate internal maneuvers. Various alternatives may be considered, such as…

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who is at 36 weeks gestation comes to the maternity unit for a routine check-up. Her pregnancy has been without any complications so far, and her blood pressure, urine dipstick, and fundal height are all normal. During a previous examination, a vertical scar from her previous pregnancy is visible on her abdomen, as the child was delivered via a caesarean section. She wants to discuss her delivery options and is interested in having a home birth. What is the most suitable delivery method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      A planned caesarean section at 37 weeks gestation is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has a classical caesarean scar. This type of scar, which is characterized by a vertical incision on the abdomen, is a contraindication for vaginal birth after caesarean due to the increased risk of uterine rupture. A vaginal delivery should not be considered in this scenario as it could be potentially fatal for both the mother and the baby. It is important to ensure that the caesarean section is performed in a hospital setting. A caesarean section at 36 weeks is not recommended, and guidelines suggest that the procedure should be performed at 37 weeks or later.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the standard infection screening?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that HIV testing be included as a standard part of antenatal screening.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old primiparous woman who is 10 weeks pregnant is curious about iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old primiparous woman who is 10 weeks pregnant is curious about iron supplementation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 110 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 110

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (12/29) 41%
Passmed