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Question 1
Incorrect
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A young girl requires an episiotomy during labour. The incision should be made:
Your Answer: Anterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the labium minus
Correct Answer: Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
Explanation:Understanding the Risks of Different Episiotomy Incisions
Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening during childbirth. However, the location and direction of the incision can have different risks and complications. Here are some important things to know about the risks of different episiotomy incisions:
1. Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
This is the most common type of episiotomy. However, cutting too close to the anus can cause damage to the anal sphincter, leading to fecal incontinence.2. Anterior to the vagina, straight up the mid-line so that the incision lies mid-way between the vagina and the external urethral orifice
This type of incision can damage the external urethral orifice, leading to urinary incontinence.3. Posterior to the vagina, straight down the mid-line into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
Cutting down the midline posterior to the vagina can harm the perineal body, leading to both fecal and urinary incontinence, as well as pelvic organ prolapse.4. Anterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the labium minus
This type of incision can damage Bartholin’s glands, which can lead to pain and discomfort during sexual intercourse.5. One incision anterior to the vagina and one incision posterior to the vagina down the mid-line
This type of incision can cause damage to both the urethral orifice and the perineal body, leading to both urinary and fecal incontinence.In conclusion, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of episiotomy with your healthcare provider and to understand the potential complications of different types of incisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman is in the labour ward and ready to deliver her second child. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. However, her first child had to stay in neonatal intensive care shortly after birth due to an infection but is now healthy. The latest vaginal swabs indicate the presence of Streptococcus agalactiae. She has no other medical conditions and is in good health.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Intrapartum oral benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Intrapartum IV benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis during childbirth. It is important to recognize that Streptococcus agalactiae is the same as group B streptococcus (GBS). According to the guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, mothers who have had a previous pregnancy complicated by neonatal sepsis should receive intravenous benzylpenicillin antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery. Administering IV benzylpenicillin to the neonate after birth is not recommended unless the neonate shows signs and symptoms of sepsis. Intrapartum IV benzathine benzylpenicillin is not used for GBS prophylaxis and is instead used to manage syphilis.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department after experiencing painless leakage of fluid from her vagina. She reports an initial gush two hours ago, followed by a steady drip. During examination with a sterile speculum, the fluid is confirmed as amniotic fluid. The woman also discloses a severe allergy to penicillin. What is the optimal approach to minimize the risk of infection?
Your Answer: 5 days nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: 10 days erythromycin
Explanation:All women with PPROM should receive a 10-day course of erythromycin. This is the recommended treatment for this condition. Piperacillin and tazobactam (tazocin) is not appropriate due to the patient’s penicillin allergy. Nitrofurantoin is used for urinary tract infections, while vancomycin is typically used for anaerobic GI infections.
Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks gestation. She has not visited her GP in a long time and is not currently on any medication. There is no significant medical or family history of neural tube defects. During the examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. What treatment options should be presented to her?
Your Answer: Folic acid 5 milligrams
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should receive a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is not high enough to require treatment with labetalol. Aspirin 75 milligrams is typically given to pregnant women starting at 12 weeks to lower the risk of pre-eclampsia, but this patient does not have any risk factors for pre-eclampsia and is not currently experiencing hypertension. If the patient had a healthy BMI, they would be prescribed the standard dose of 400 micrograms of folic acid to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain that started 45 minutes ago. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding but her baby is still active, although movements are slightly reduced. She has had regular antenatal care and her medical history is unremarkable, except for a 10 pack-year smoking history. Her two previous children were born vaginally and are healthy at ages 4 and 6.
The patient is alert and oriented but in significant pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. A cardiotocograph shows a normal baseline fetal heart rate with appropriate accelerations and no decelerations.
What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the next appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Admit the mother and administer steroids
Explanation:It is likely that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which is a medical emergency. The severity of the abruption and the risks to both the mother and the baby determine the management approach. This patient has risk factors such as chronic hypertension and smoking. Steroids should be administered to assist in fetal lung development if the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks, and not in distress. The patient’s vital signs are stable, but the volume of vaginal bleeding may not accurately reflect the severity of the bleed. The fetal status is assessed using a cardiotocograph, which indicates whether the fetus is receiving adequate blood and nutrients from the placenta. Expectant management is not appropriate, and intervention is necessary to increase the chances of a positive outcome. Immediate caesarean section is only necessary if the fetus is in distress or if the mother is experiencing significant blood loss. Vaginal delivery is only appropriate if the fetus has died in utero, which is not the case here.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A woman who is 20 weeks pregnant is worried after her recent antenatal scan revealed increased nuchal translucency. Besides Down's syndrome, which condition is most commonly linked to this discovery?
Your Answer: Congenital heart defects
Explanation:Ultrasound in Pregnancy: Nuchal Scan and Hyperechogenic Bowel
During pregnancy, ultrasound is a common diagnostic tool used to monitor the health and development of the fetus. One type of ultrasound is the nuchal scan, which is typically performed between 11 and 13 weeks of gestation. This scan measures the thickness of the nuchal translucency, or the fluid-filled space at the back of the fetus’s neck. An increased nuchal translucency can be a sign of certain conditions, including Down’s syndrome, congenital heart defects, and abdominal wall defects.
Another ultrasound finding that may indicate a potential health issue is hyperechogenic bowel. This refers to an area of the fetus’s bowel that appears brighter than usual on the ultrasound image. Possible causes of hyperechogenic bowel include cystic fibrosis, Down’s syndrome, and cytomegalovirus infection.
It is important to note that these ultrasound findings do not necessarily mean that the fetus has a health problem. Further testing and evaluation may be needed to confirm a diagnosis and determine the best course of action. Ultrasound is just one tool that healthcare providers use to monitor fetal health and ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents on day 28 postpartum with burning pain in the nipples bilaterally and itching. She reports symptoms are worse after feeds.
On examination, you notice that the nipples are erythematosus, swollen and fissured. The breasts are unremarkable. Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial. She tells you she wants you to review her baby and that she noticed small white patches in his mouth.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Topical antifungal cream
Explanation:Management of Breast Conditions: Understanding the Different Treatment Options
Breast conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, and it is important to understand the appropriate management for each. Here are some common breast conditions and their corresponding treatments:
1. Fungal infection of the nipples: This is characterized by bilateral symptoms and signs of nipple thrush. Treatment involves applying a topical miconazole 2% cream to the affected nipples after every feed for two weeks. The infant should also be treated with miconazole cream in the mouth.
2. Paget’s disease of the nipple: This is a form of in situ carcinoma that warrants urgent referral to the Breast team under the 2-week wait pathway. Symptoms include unilateral erythema, inflammation, burning pain, ulceration, and bleeding.
3. Breast cellulitis or mastitis: This is associated with the breast itself and is characterized by unilateral engorgement, erythematosus skin, and tenderness. Treatment involves oral flucloxacillin.
4. Eczema of the nipple: This affects both nipples and presents with a red, scaly rash that spares the base of the nipple. Treatment involves avoiding triggers and using regular emollients, with a topical steroid cream applied after feeds.
5. Bacterial infection of the nipples: This is treated with a topical antibacterial cream, such as topical fusidic acid.
Understanding the appropriate management for each breast condition is crucial in providing effective treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy and is currently 10+0 weeks along. She has previously given birth naturally to a healthy child at 39 weeks and has no other prior pregnancies. Due to her family's history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, she undergoes a fasting glucose test during her booking visit, which reveals a level of 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best initial course of action for managing her fasting glucose level?
Your Answer: Insulin
Explanation:Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. This is the appropriate course of action, as relying solely on diet and exercise advice would not be sufficient given the patient’s high fasting glucose level. It is important to monitor glucose levels regularly while managing gestational diabetes, but when the fasting glucose level is >7 mmol/L at diagnosis, insulin therapy should be started. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide are not recommended during pregnancy due to the increased risk of fetal macrosomia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?
Your Answer: To stop taking corticosteroid inhaler for duration of pregnancy
Correct Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman attends the Obstetric clinic for a routine early pregnancy scan. She has been struggling so far during the pregnancy, suffering from extreme, persistent nausea and vomiting. On the ultrasound scan, the image observed resembles ‘a snow storm’. The physician is concerned that this may be a complete molar pregnancy.
What percentage of complete molar pregnancies go on to become invasive?Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Hydatidiform Moles and Choriocarcinoma
Hydatidiform moles are tumours of trophoblastic villi that can be classified into two subtypes: partial and complete. Both subtypes have the potential to become invasive and develop into choriocarcinoma, a malignant trophoblastic tumour. Macroscopically, a complete molar pregnancy resembles a bunch of grapes and appears like a snowstorm on ultrasound scans. Approximately 15% of complete moles become invasive, and the incidence of subsequent choriocarcinoma is around 3%. It is crucial to remove the molar pregnancy from the patient due to the risk of invasion and carcinoma. Post-evacuation, it is essential to monitor serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels to follow up on the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 36-year-old pregnant woman has a vaginal swab taken at 34 weeks gestation despite being asymptomatic. She informs you that during her previous pregnancy a bacteria which can cause sepsis in babies was detected on one of her swabs, which is why she needs to be tested again.
The microbiology report reads as follows:
Sample: Positive (awaiting sensitivities)
Gram stain: Positive
Morphology: Cocci in chains
Growth requirements: Facultative anaerobe
What is the most likely organism present based on this report?Your Answer: Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation:Mothers who have previously tested positive for Group B Streptococcus during pregnancy should be given intravenous antibiotics as a preventative measure during labor or offered testing in late pregnancy and given antibiotics if the test is positive. Group B Streptococcus is a bacterium that can cause severe infections in newborns, including pneumonia and meningitis. It is a Gram-positive coccus that forms chains and is a facultative anaerobe. In contrast, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative, diplococcus that requires oxygen to grow and is associated with conjunctivitis in newborns. Clostridium difficile is a Gram-positive, anaerobic bacillus that causes diarrheal illness, not neonatal sepsis.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 38 weeks
Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks
Explanation:If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 24-year-old primigravida is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband at 33 weeks of gestation after experiencing a generalised tonic–clonic seizure. Examination reveals blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, temperature of 37 °C and 2+ pitting oedema in the lower extremities. She appears lethargic but responds to simple commands. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Immediate delivery
Explanation:Eclampsia: Symptoms and Treatment
Eclampsia is a serious medical condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by pre-eclampsia and seizure activity. Symptoms may include hypertension, proteinuria, mental status changes, and blurred vision. Immediate delivery is the only definitive treatment for eclampsia, but magnesium can be given to reduce the risk of seizures in women with severe pre-eclampsia who are delivering within 24 hours. Eclampsia is more common in younger women with their first pregnancy and those with underlying vascular disorders. Hydralazine can be used to manage hypertension in pregnant women, but it is not the definitive treatment for eclampsia. Conservative management, such as salt and water restriction, bed rest, and close monitoring of blood pressure, is not appropriate for patients with eclampsia and associated seizure and mental state changes. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy, and labetalol is the first-line antihypertensive in pregnancy. Diazepam and magnesium sulfate can reduce seizures in eclampsia, but they are not the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. During her midwife appointment, glucose was detected in her urine and her fasting plasma glucose level was measured, resulting in a reading of 7.2mmol/L. What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:The correct course of action for managing gestational diabetes when the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis is to commence insulin. Offering a trial of diet and exercise changes or commencing metformin alone would not be appropriate in this case. However, discussing diet and exercise changes with the patient may still be helpful in managing the condition. Referral for an oral glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis is not necessary in this situation, as a diagnosis can be made based on the fasting plasma glucose level or 2-hour plasma glucose level.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old primiparous woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2 comes in for her 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 26 weeks’ gestation, as she is at high risk of developing gestational diabetes. Her results are as follows:
Fasting plasma glucose 7.3 mmol/l
2-hour plasma glucose 10.8 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and insulin
Explanation:Managing Gestational Diabetes: Lifestyle Advice and Medication Options
Gestational diabetes is a condition that affects up to 5% of pregnancies and is characterized by carbohydrate intolerance resulting in high blood sugar levels. It is usually diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and is caused by hormones that increase insulin resistance in the mother’s body. Women with risk factors are screened with a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to establish a diagnosis.
The first-line management for gestational diabetes is lifestyle advice, including weight loss if the patient’s BMI is over 27 kg/m2, dietary changes, and regular physical activity. Women with a fasting plasma glucose of over 7.0 mmol/l at diagnosis are immediately started on insulin to reduce the risk of complications. Metformin may be considered for women with a fasting glucose level of less than 7.0 mmol/l who fail to control their glucose levels with lifestyle modifications alone.
Patients are given a two-week period to implement lifestyle changes and monitor their glucose levels before being reassessed. Women with gestational diabetes are reviewed every one to two weeks in a Joint Clinic (Diabetes and Antenatal) where they are closely monitored. If lifestyle changes and metformin fail to control glucose levels, combination therapy with metformin and insulin may be necessary.
Lifestyle modifications include weight loss, dietary changes, and mild physical activity. Women with a BMI over 27 kg/m2 are advised to lose weight, while dietary advice is offered by a specialist dietician. Patients are also advised to engage in mild physical activity for 30 minutes but should avoid strenuous physical activity or weightlifting.
In conclusion, managing gestational diabetes requires a combination of lifestyle modifications and medication options. Early diagnosis and close monitoring are essential to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden swelling of her ankles within the past 3 days. She is currently 30+4 weeks pregnant, with a history of diabetes mellitus type II that is managed through lifestyle changes. During the examination, it was observed that the fundal height is measuring small for her gestational age. Consequently, an ultrasound scan was ordered, which revealed oligohydramnios. What is the most probable cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?
Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Explanation:Oligohydramnios can be caused by pre-eclampsia, which leads to inadequate blood flow to the placenta. Polyhydramnios, on the other hand, is associated with anencephaly, diabetes mellitus, twin pregnancies, and oesophageal atresia. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is usually the cause of polyhydramnios in twin pregnancies. Foetal hyperglycaemia in diabetic mothers leads to foetal polyuria. In cases of oesophageal atresia and anencephaly, the foetus is unable to swallow the amniotic fluid.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for a routine visit and is found to have a blood pressure of 165/111 mmHg and ++proteinuria on urinalysis. Her doctor suspects pre-eclampsia and admits her to the obstetrics assessment unit. She has recently moved to the area and her medical records are not available. She is otherwise healthy and only uses blue and brown inhalers for her asthma, for which she recently completed a 5-day course of steroids after being hospitalized for a severe exacerbation. What medication should be used to manage her hypertension?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is the recommended initial treatment for pre-eclampsia in women with severe asthma. The patient’s medical history indicates that she has severe asthma, making beta blockers like Labetalol unsuitable for her. Additionally, the use of Ramipril during pregnancy has been associated with a higher incidence of birth defects in infants.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she has recently discovered she is pregnant. She is overjoyed and eager to proceed with the pregnancy. Currently, she is 6 weeks pregnant and feels fine without symptoms. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Her urine dip is negative. She has heard that taking vitamin D and folic acid supplements can increase her chances of having a healthy pregnancy. What is the most advisable regimen for her in this situation?
Your Answer: Vitamin D 400 IU daily, and folic acid 5mg daily, both throughout the pregnancy
Correct Answer: Vitamin D 400IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Pregnant women who are obese (with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m²) should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that all pregnant women take 400 IU of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, folic acid should be taken daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, with the dosage depending on the presence of risk factors for neural tube defects such as spina bifida. If there are no risk factors, the dose is 400 micrograms daily, but if risk factors are present, the dose should be increased to 5 mg daily. As maternal obesity is a risk factor for neural tube defects, pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m² should take the higher dose of folic acid.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum bleeding. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has had a scan confirming an intrauterine pregnancy. She reports lower abdominal cramping and bleeding for the last two days, which prompted admission to await an ultrasound scan. You are an FY1 doctor and are called to see her as she has increasing pain and is crying in distress. On examination, she is sweaty and uncomfortable. Abdomen is soft in the upper region, but firm and very tender suprapubically. Observations show temperature 38.7 °C, heart rate 130 bpm, blood pressure 95/65, respiratory rate 22 and oxygen saturations 97% on air. Checking her pad shows fresh bleeding and speculum examination is difficult due to pain, but there is a smelly discharge and you think you see tissue sitting in the os. You manage to get IV access and starts fluid resuscitation.
What is the most important next step in management?Your Answer: Call your registrar
Explanation:Immediate Management of Septic Miscarriage: Steps to Take
Septic miscarriage is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. If a patient presents with increasing pain, bleeding, and fever, along with clinical signs of sepsis, it is important to inform senior doctors immediately. Here are the steps to take:
1. Call your registrar: Senior doctors need to know about the patient urgently, coming to review and liaising with coordinators to get the patient to theatre as soon as possible.
2. Bloods and blood cultures: This is the most important thing to do after informing seniors. She is already shocked, so getting IV access now is essential. Bloods such as a group and crossmatch need to be sent, along with blood cultures.
3. Transvaginal ultrasound scan: Transvaginal ultrasound scan has no place in the immediate management. The diagnosis is obvious from the history and examination.
4. Ultrasound abdomen: Abdominal ultrasound can be performed after the patient is initially managed and is out of danger. For the current scenario, it is important to inform a senior registrar as the condition may deteriorate. After giving the call to registrar emergency management should be initiated according to A-E assessment.
5. Give analgesia and try to repeat the speculum examination: She is already shocked, and to delay treatment to try and examine again would be dangerous.
By following these steps, you can ensure that the patient receives the urgent care she needs to manage septic miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with the midwife. This is her first pregnancy and she has no significant medical history. The results of her full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 340 x 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 x 10^9/L)
- WBC: 7.2 x 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 x 10^9/L)
What would be the most appropriate course of action based on these results?Your Answer: Check serum ferritin levels
Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement therapy
Explanation:To determine if iron supplementation is necessary, a cut-off of 110 g/L should be applied during the first trimester.
During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following the delivery, an evaluation is conducted to determine the amount of blood loss for recording purposes. The medical records indicate that she experienced a primary postpartum haemorrhage. Can you provide the accurate definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?
Your Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract from the onset of labour
Correct Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby
Explanation:Maternal mortality rates are still high globally due to obstetric haemorrhage. Postpartum haemorrhage is characterized by blood loss of 500 ml after vaginal delivery, not including the placenta. If blood loss exceeds 1000mls, it is classified as major postpartum haemorrhage. It is crucial to evaluate the severity of the bleeding and seek appropriate management (as outlined below).
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had an active third stage of labour with 10 mg of Syntocinon® administered intramuscularly. The placenta was delivered ten minutes ago and appears complete. The midwife has called you, as there is a continuous small stream of fresh red blood loss. It is estimated that the patient has lost 1050 ml of blood so far. You palpate the abdomen, and you cannot feel any uterine contractions.
Observations:
Heart rate (HR) 107 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 158/105 mmHg
Temperature 37.1 °C
Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute
Oxygen saturations 98% on air
Which of the following is the next step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Uterine massage and oxytocin infusion
Explanation:Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage: Conservative and Pharmacological Methods
Postpartum hemorrhage is a common complication of childbirth and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly. The causes of postpartum hemorrhage fall under four categories, known as the 4Ts: tissue problems, tone problems, trauma, and thrombin. In cases of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, conservative and pharmacological methods should be employed first.
The initial assessment should include securing two large-bore cannulae, sending blood for urgent full blood count, group and save, clotting and crossmatch of four units of blood, and commencing intravenous fluids. Uterine massage of the fundus, as well as an oxytocin infusion, should be the first step in management. If pharmacological methods fail to arrest the bleeding, then an intrauterine balloon can be employed as second line. If this still fails, the patient should be transferred to theatre for exploration and hysterectomy if necessary.
Ergometrine is contraindicated in women with hypertension, and therefore, should not be used in patients with a raised blood pressure. Hysterectomy is a last resort in women with massive postpartum hemorrhage where mechanical and pharmacological methods have failed to stop the bleeding and the patient is haemodynamically compromised. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is an effective mechanical method to stop postpartum hemorrhage in cases where other methods have failed.
It is important to ensure that blood is available if necessary, but transfusion should not be treated lightly due to the potential for severe complications. An up-to-date hemoglobin level should be obtained, and the patient should be fluid-resuscitated and monitored before any decision for transfusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of postpartum hemorrhage is crucial for ensuring positive maternal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department five days after giving birth without any complications. Her husband brings her in after noticing a sudden change in her behavior. He reports that she appears confused and agitated. During the mental state examination, she describes having racing thoughts, feeling depressed, and having suicidal thoughts. Additionally, she exhibits pressured speech. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Postpartum depression
Correct Answer: Puerperal psychosis
Explanation:Puerperal psychosis is a condition that manifests as a sudden onset of manic or psychotic symptoms shortly after giving birth. Any sudden change in mental state should be considered a warning sign for puerperal psychosis. On the other hand, the baby blues is a milder form of depression that typically lasts only a few days after childbirth. While postpartum depression can also involve psychosis, it usually appears within the first month after delivery. Furthermore, manic symptoms such as restlessness, racing thoughts, and pressured speech are unlikely to occur in a depressive episode.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice after her daughter was diagnosed with chickenpox 10 days ago. The daughter developed a widespread vesicular rash. The woman is feeling fine, but she is 16 weeks pregnant and cannot recall ever having had chickenpox. An immunoglobulin test confirms this. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Give oral acyclovir
Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a pregnant woman who is not immune to chickenpox is exposed to the virus, it is crucial to offer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days of the exposure to reduce the risk of foetal varicella-zoster syndrome and potential complications for the mother. However, if the woman is under 20 weeks pregnant, oral acyclovir is not recommended as there is limited evidence for its efficacy in this situation. Giving both VZIG and oral acyclovir is impractical and inappropriate, especially since the woman has already been exposed to chickenpox. If the woman develops chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation, acyclovir may be considered, but VZIG should still be given to reduce the chance of severe infection. It is important to note that VZIG should be given before symptoms develop and is only effective up to 10 days post-exposure. Therefore, waiting for symptoms to appear before giving VZIG is not recommended.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) 3 hours after delivery. Following adequate resuscitation, she was assessed and diagnosed with uterine atony as the underlying cause. Pharmacological treatment was initiated, but proved ineffective. What is the most suitable initial surgical intervention?
Your Answer: Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: Intrauterine balloon tamponade
Explanation:The majority of cases of postpartum hemorrhage are caused by uterine atony, while trauma, retained placenta, and coagulopathy account for the rest. According to the 2009 RCOG guidelines, if pharmacological management fails to stop bleeding and uterine atony is the perceived cause, surgical intervention should be attempted promptly. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is the recommended first-line measure for most women, but other interventions may also be considered depending on the clinical situation and available expertise. These interventions include haemostatic brace suturing, bilateral ligation of uterine arteries, bilateral ligation of internal iliac (hypogastric) arteries, selective arterial embolization, and hysterectomy.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A woman in her 12th week of pregnancy arrives at the emergency department with a two-week history of intense vomiting and lack of appetite. The scent of food triggers her nausea. She hasn't consumed any food for the past four days and has only had minimal amounts of water.
She is currently taking omeprazole and folic acid and has never smoked or consumed alcohol. What is an instance of a risk factor for this ailment?Your Answer: Multiple pregnancies
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum is more likely to occur in women who are pregnant with multiple babies. Other factors that may increase the risk of HG include obesity, epilepsy, stress, and a family history of the condition. Treatment options may include corticosteroids like prednisolone, anti-emetic drugs such as ondansetron, and vitamins B6 and B12. While advanced maternal age can increase the risk of certain pregnancy complications, it has not been linked to an increased risk of HG. Similarly, having multiple previous pregnancies does not appear to increase the risk of HG, but a history of the condition in a previous pregnancy may be a risk factor.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and brown vaginal discharge. Four weeks ago, she was diagnosed with an incomplete miscarriage at eight weeks’ gestation, which was medically managed with misoprostol. She reports passing big clots the day after and lightly bleeding since. An ultrasound scan reports a ‘heterogeneous appearance of the endometrial cavity suspicious of retained products of conception’. Her heart rate is 100 bpm, blood pressure 100/80 mmHg and temperature 38.0 °C. Abdominal examination reveals a tender abdomen, with cervical excitation on vaginal examination.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception
Explanation:Options for Management of Miscarriage: Surgical Evacuation, Misoprostol, Expectant Management, and Mifepristone
Miscarriage is a common complication of pregnancy, affecting up to 20% of all pregnancies. When a miscarriage occurs, there are several options for management, including surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone.
Surgical evacuation of products of conception involves a general anaesthetic, dilation of the cervix, and removal of the products by curettage. Risks associated with this procedure include bleeding, infection, venous thromboembolism, retained products of conception, intrauterine adhesions, uterine perforation, and cervical damage.
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that promotes uterine contraction, cervical ripening, and dilation. It can be used for medical management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage or for induction of labor. However, if medical management fails, as in the case of the patient in this scenario, misoprostol is not appropriate.
Expectant management is the first-line management of women with a confirmed missed or incomplete miscarriage. However, if expectant management is unacceptable to the patient or in the presence of other factors, such as a previous pregnancy complication, medical or surgical management should be offered.
Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone that disrupts and degenerates the decidualized endometrium, causes ripening and dilation of the cervix, and increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. When used in combination with misoprostol, it is the recommended regimen for medical termination of pregnancy.
In conclusion, the management of miscarriage depends on several factors, including the patient’s preference, medical history, and clinical presentation. The options for management include surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with the patient to make an informed decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following presentations has the highest morbidity and mortality rate?
Your Answer: Footling presentation at delivery
Explanation:During the term of pregnancy, there is ample space for the fetus to reposition itself and move towards the head-down position. However, in cases of occipitoposterior presentation, the posterior fontanelle is located in the back quadrant of the pelvis, which requires more rotation and often results in a longer labor. Additionally, there is a higher likelihood of medical intervention, with a rate of 22.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: She should be managed medically with methotrexate
Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management
Explanation:If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week you are based in the early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU). You are assessing a 28-year-old female with a suspected threatened miscarriage. How does this condition typically manifest?
Your Answer: Painless per-vaginal bleeding and a closed cervical os
Explanation:A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed. Miscarriages can be classified as threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, or missed. Mild bleeding and little to no pain are typical symptoms of a threatened miscarriage. In contrast, an inevitable miscarriage is marked by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Inevitable miscarriages will not result in a continued pregnancy and will progress to incomplete or complete miscarriages.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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