00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an intermittently wheezy chest at night, eight weeks after seeing the respiratory nurse at the surgery. She reports no fevers and no difficulties in breathing. Currently, she is taking Fostair (Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg) combination inhaler, 1 puff twice daily, and salbutamol as needed for shortness of breath. Previously, she was using Clenil (Beclomethasone 100 mcg), but feels that the new inhaler has helped slightly since her last appointment with the nurse. According to the latest SIGN/BTS guidance, what would be the next step in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer: Increase the Fostair to two puffs twice daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Asthma in Adults

      When managing chronic asthma in adults, it is important to consider the patient’s current treatment plan and symptoms. In this scenario, the patient is already taking a combination inhaler and is experiencing suboptimal control of her asthma. It is important to note that this is not an acute attack and the children’s guidelines do not apply. Antibiotics are not recommended as the symptoms are not consistent with an infective exacerbation. Increasing the usage of salbutamol is also not recommended as the patient needs better overall control of her symptoms. Instead, the dose of the inhaled corticosteroid should be increased, which is in line with the next step in the treatment of asthma in adults according to the British Thoracic Society guidelines. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with both SIGN and NICE guidance and be able to compare and contrast their advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      146.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old comes in for an asthma check-up. She shows her inhaler technique...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old comes in for an asthma check-up. She shows her inhaler technique and performs the following steps when using her salbutamol:

      First, she removes the cap and shakes the puffer. Then, she breathes out gently before placing the mouthpiece in her mouth and pressing the canister as she inhales deeply. She holds her breath for 20 seconds before repeating the process for the next dose.

      Is there anything wrong with her technique?

      Your Answer: Her technique is sound and requires no changes

      Correct Answer: She must wait at least 30 seconds before administering her next dose

      Explanation:

      The patient has good inhaler technique but needs to wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. Holding the breath for at least 10 seconds after administering the medication is recommended, but holding it for longer is not necessary. Advising the patient to hold their breath for at least 30 seconds after administering the dose is incorrect.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      94.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.

      What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

    She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

      She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.

      She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.

      Blood tests show:

      Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)

      WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)

      Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)

      Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)

      Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.

      Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with asthma presents for a follow-up appointment. He complains of not getting enough relief from his salbutamol inhaler and finds himself using it more frequently.

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates the steps of removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down the canister while inhaling slowly, and then exhaling.

      What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?

      Your Answer: She should breathe in quickly after she has delivered the dose

      Correct Answer: She should hold her breath for 10 seconds after delivering the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure adequate drug delivery, it is important to use proper inhaler technique, which includes shaking the inhaler, taking a slow breath in, holding the breath for 10 seconds, and waiting 30 seconds between doses.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      100.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.

      On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough

      Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      160
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.

      Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?

      Your Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year

      Explanation:

      Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She reports experiencing the pain particularly when she is stressed at work or unexpectedly exercising. On one occasion, she has fainted, and she sometimes experiences pins and needles around her mouth and in both hands. She has a history of mild asthma and uses PRN salbutamol. All tests, including ECG, peak flow rate, full blood count, thyroid function, and pulse oximetry, are normal. What is the most appropriate plan for her?

      Your Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Therapy and Breathing Exercises for Hyperventilation Syndrome

      Two studies have shown that cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can effectively treat hyperventilation syndrome. This condition often leads to pleuritic chest pain without any apparent cause. During therapy sessions, specific anxiety triggers can be identified and addressed. However, for those with chronic hyperventilation syndrome, cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can provide relief and improve overall quality of life. With these treatments, patients can learn to control their breathing and reduce symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.

      What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough. He has no past medical history of any cardiorespiratory disease and is a lifelong non-smoker. He reports that his cough is not improving and that he is now coughing up some 'thick green phlegm'. He denies any coughing up blood.
      Upon examination, he is alert and oriented, with a temperature of 37.6°C, a regular pulse rate of 94 bpm, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 124/68 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals coarse crepitations in the left lower zone with some bronchial breath sounds.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics immediately without any further investigations

      Correct Answer: No immediate treatment, send him for a chest x ray to guide the need for antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, it is important to differentiate between non-pneumonic and pneumonic infections. In cases of non-pneumonic infections, antibiotics should not be given unless the patient is showing signs of severity. However, if chest signs are present, a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia should be made, and early administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent the development of severe illness.

      While chest radiography and CRP levels are not useful in the acute setting of pneumonia, they may be indicated in certain cases. A chest x-ray may be necessary if treatment response is unsatisfactory or in smokers during the convalescent period. CRP levels can be helpful in making a decision about antibiotic treatment for individuals with symptoms of LRTI but no signs.

      According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic therapy should not be routinely offered if the CRP concentration is less than 20 mg/litre. A delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered if the CRP concentration is between 20 mg/litre and 100 mg/litre, and antibiotic therapy should be offered if the CRP concentration is greater than 100 mg/litre. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively diagnose and manage community-acquired pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      175
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.

      What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.

      For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.

      To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      436.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old gentleman presents for review. His notes indicate that he was recently...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old gentleman presents for review. His notes indicate that he was recently treated with furosemide for heart failure after presenting with gradually increasing shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations. Despite taking the medication for the last week, he reports feeling no better and has marked exertional breathlessness. On examination, he is centrally cyanosed with finger clubbing and fine bibasal inspiratory crepitations. There is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Correct Diagnosis for Breathlessness

      A variety of conditions can cause breathlessness, making it difficult to arrive at a correct diagnosis. For instance, someone with shortness of breath and bibasal crepitations may be misdiagnosed with heart failure. However, a normal ECG and BNP can rule out cardiac failure.

      To identify the correct diagnosis, a thorough clinical examination is necessary. In this case, the presence of finger clubbing narrows the options down to bronchiectasis, carcinoma, and pulmonary fibrosis. The additional features of cyanosis and bibasal fine crepitations strongly suggest that pulmonary fibrosis is the underlying diagnosis.

      By carefully considering all the symptoms and conducting a comprehensive examination, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with breathlessness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      196.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has...

    Correct

    • Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual shortness-of-breath?

      FEV1/FVC 0.60
      FEV1% predicted 60%

      Your Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Liam is a 20-year-old man who presents to you with difficulty breathing. He...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 20-year-old man who presents to you with difficulty breathing. He has a medical history of asthma since childhood and uses steroid inhalers regularly.

      During the examination, Liam appears breathless but can complete his sentences in one breath. His heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and his respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. You measure his peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which is 35% of his predicted PEFR. There is a widespread wheeze heard on auscultation of his chest.

      Liam's symptoms have been rapidly worsening for the past 2 hours.

      Based on the history and examination, which of the following features indicates that Liam has severe acute asthma?

      Your Answer: Symptoms worsening rapidly

      Correct Answer: PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Asthma: Symptoms and Severity

      Acute asthma is a condition that is typically observed in individuals who have a history of asthma. It is characterized by worsening dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing that doesn’t respond to salbutamol. Acute asthma attacks may be triggered by respiratory tract infections. Patients with acute severe asthma are classified into three categories: moderate, severe, or life-threatening.

      Moderate acute asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value, normal speech, a respiratory rate (RR) of less than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of less than 110 beats per minute. Severe acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, inability to complete sentences, an RR of more than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of more than 110 beats per minute. Life-threatening acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of less than 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation levels of less than 92%, a silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension, and exhaustion, confusion, or coma.

      It is important to note that a normal pCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should be classified as life-threatening. Understanding the symptoms and severity of acute asthma can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients experiencing an acute asthma attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      282.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are seeing a 57-year-old woman who has just joined the practice. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 57-year-old woman who has just joined the practice. She has come to see you for a prescription for inhalers for her 'smokers cough'.

      Her last GP had prescribed her salbutamol as required and tiotropium once daily. She tells you that she has always had 'trouble with her chest' and as a child had pneumonia which required a prolonged stay in hospital. She expectorates a large amount of grey-green sputum every day and this has been the case for 'years'; there have been no recent changes in her symptoms.

      She gave up smoking about 20 years ago having smoked five cigarettes a day from the age of 20. On examination she has coarse crepitations at the right base and has finger clubbing. There is no lymphadenopathy or peripheral oedema. Her weight is stable.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Overlapping Symptoms of COPD and Other Respiratory Diagnoses

      There are several respiratory diagnoses that can present with similar symptoms to COPD, including asthma, bronchiectasis, congestive cardiac failure, and bronchial carcinoma. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.

      The basics of history and examination are crucial in forming a list of possibilities and guiding any investigation. In some cases, patients may have a rarer condition such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia or obliterative bronchiolitis.

      In the case of this patient, the underlying diagnosis is bronchiectasis caused by childhood pneumonia. This has resulted in chronic sputum production and the presence of clubbing, ruling out asthma, COPD, and congestive cardiac failure. While bronchial carcinoma can also cause finger clubbing and focal chest signs, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history and other clinical features. Overall, healthcare professionals should always keep in mind the possibility of an alternative diagnosis when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      312.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female develops a wheeze and extensive rash whilst eating a Chinese...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female develops a wheeze and extensive rash whilst eating a Chinese take-away chicken satay.

      On examination, she has extensive wheeze and stridor, with urticaria covering her upper and lower limbs and trunk. Her BP is 80/45 mmHg.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C1 esterase deficiency

      Correct Answer: Peanut allergy

      Explanation:

      Allergic Reactions and MSG Syndrome in Chinese Cuisine

      Chinese cuisine is known for its use of cashew nuts and peanut oil in many dishes, which can pose a risk for patients with peanut allergies. Anaphylactic reactions may occur with cashew nuts, while peanut oil can also trigger allergic reactions. Additionally, monosodium glutamate (MSG), a common flavor enhancer in Chinese food, can cause the MSG syndrome. Symptoms of this syndrome include sudden onset headache, heartburn, palpitations, sweating, swelling, and flushing of the face. Tingling or increased facial pressure may also be reported. While the condition is generally self-limited and resolves on its own, antihistamines may be helpful in some cases. It is important to note that the MSG syndrome is unlikely to cause shock, which is not consistent with the patient’s presentation of hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are examining a patient whom you suspect may have chronic obstructive pulmonary...

    Correct

    • You are examining a patient whom you suspect may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following investigations/points is the least relevant?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of COPD cannot be determined through peak expiratory flow.

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.

      Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1: FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made following the spirometry.

      On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' requiring antibiotics two to three times a year.

      According to NICE guidance, which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an emergency oral steroid prescription to keep at home and use at the first signs of an exacerbation

      Explanation:

      A patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular SABA use needs inhaled treatment added to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. The options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder. A regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA can be used in some patients with COPD but is not the priority here. A LABA is usually indicated in patients with an FEV1 of ≥ to 50%. NICE CKS COPD guidelines recommend inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line drugs for the treatment of COPD.

      For reference:
      SABA – short acting beta agonist
      LABA – long acting beta agonist
      SAMA – short acting muscarinic antagonist
      LAMA – long acting muscarinic antagonist
      ICS – inhaled corticosteroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      83.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of myasthenia gravis and COPD presents with increasing fatigue and shortness of breath despite inhaled therapies. She denies chest pain or cough and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. There are no notable occupational exposures. On examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal. Blood tests and chest x-ray are unremarkable, but spirometry reveals the following results:

      FEV1 (L): 3.5 (predicted 4.5)
      FVC (L): 3.8 (predicted 5.4)
      FEV1/FVC (%): 92

      What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mixed obstructive and restrictive lung disease

      Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?

      Your Answer: Increase inhaled steroid to maximum dose

      Correct Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment

      According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.

      This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a two week history of feeling unwell, characterised by one week of catarrhal illness, followed by a dry hacking cough, which is now paroxysmal, and she has vomited twice after coughing.

      On examination, she is afebrile, and her chest sounds clear. She was previously well, but she is unsure of her vaccination history as she lived abroad as a child.

      She lives with her husband and two children, aged 18 months and 8. The children have not been immunised against pertussis. You suspect she may have pertussis.

      While awaiting confirmation, who should be offered antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nobody

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Pertussis

      When managing a suspected or confirmed case of pertussis, it is important to offer prophylactic antibiotics to reduce transmission if the case presents within 21 days of onset and a vulnerable contact is present in the household. All household contacts, regardless of age or immunisation status, should be offered antibiotics. Antibiotics may not alter the clinical course of the illness, but they can eliminate the organism from the respiratory tract, reducing person-to-person transmission. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to 10 years, pregnant women, healthcare workers, immunocompromised individuals, and those with chronic illnesses. The maternal pertussis vaccine programme has been highly effective in preventing disease for infants less than 2 months of age. Therefore, the definition of vulnerable infants has been amended to include unimmunised infants born ≤32 weeks, unimmunised infants born >32 weeks whose mothers did not receive maternal pertussis vaccine after 16 weeks and at least 2 weeks before delivery, and infants aged 2 months or over who are unimmunised or partially immunised. It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, including the management of pertussis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with COPD and no other co-morbidities is being seen in the respiratory outpatient department. He smoked 30 cigarettes a day for 40 years but has not smoked since his diagnosis of COPD 5 years ago. He has had his influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations and has attended pulmonary rehabilitation. He was admitted to hospital twice in the last year with exacerbations of COPD. A CT scan 6 months ago showed typical changes of COPD with no other evidence of other lung pathology. His pre-clinic bloods are as follows:

      Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 356 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 10.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 2 mg/L (< 5)
      Bilirubin 6 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 46 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 15u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 56 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 42 g/L (35 - 50)

      What test should be done before starting azithromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      An ECG and baseline liver function tests should be performed prior to initiating azithromycin to ensure there is no prolonged QT interval and to establish a baseline for liver function. As the liver function tests in the question stem were normal, the most suitable option would be to conduct an ECG.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up of his spirometry-confirmed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His spirometry shows an FEV1 of 40%. He has not sought medical attention for his chest in several years and only uses salbutamol as inhaled therapy. He reports using at least two puffs of salbutamol four times a day, but his breathlessness is limiting his ability to engage in enjoyable activities. Despite his current treatment, he continues to experience persistent breathlessness. He has no history of asthma and is a former smoker. What is the appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the same inhaled treatment but use short courses of oral steroid when he exacerbates

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for suboptimal control in COPD patients

      To determine the appropriate treatment for suboptimal control in COPD patients, it is recommended to consult the NICE guidance on Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (CG115). If a patient has suboptimal control despite using a regular short-acting beta 2-agonist (SABA), oral theophylline may be considered at a later stage in the treatment ladder. However, LAMA+LABA should be offered to patients who have spirometrically confirmed COPD, do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness, and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using a short-acting bronchodilator. It is important to note that adding a regular inhaled steroid is not recommended in the treatment ladder as it is inferior to LABA/ICS combination or LAMA. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide optimal treatment for COPD patients with suboptimal control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he has visited you today because one of the partners is unwilling to modify his inhaler treatment until he quits smoking. He is presently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed, but he is experiencing frequent wheezing episodes and has developed a cough at night. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alter his inhaler treatment and speak to the doctor concerned

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that a patient’s decision to continue smoking should not be a reason to deny them treatment for their asthma. As a healthcare professional, it is your responsibility to bring this to the attention of the doctor involved and discuss the situation with them. This will also give the doctor an opportunity to explain their perspective on the matter. It is not recommended to bring this up during a practice meeting as it may come across as confrontational.

      Simply changing the patient’s inhaler treatment will not address the issue of treatment being withheld. It is not acceptable to refuse to adjust their inhalers until they agree to seek smoking cessation treatment, as this can be seen as blackmail. Additionally, removing the patient from the practice list for not quitting smoking is not an appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old man with a medical history of COPD, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a medical history of COPD, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism presented to your clinic for follow-up. He was recently released from the hospital after being diagnosed with pneumonia. According to his discharge summary, he had an allergic reaction to co-trimoxazole during his hospital stay, resulting in the discontinuation of one of his regular medications. He has been instructed to consult with his GP about this medication. Which medication is most likely to have been stopped due to the drug allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a frequent smoker and inquires about medications that could assist her in quitting smoking. Specifically, she has heard about a medication called Champix (varenicline).
      What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an agent used to aid smokers in quitting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a nicotine replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      Therapies for Smoking Cessation

      There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor.

      Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

      Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties, is also an effective agent for smoking cessation.

      Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best approach for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker, who was diagnosed with COPD 8 years ago, is experiencing frequent episodes of shortness of breath and a productive cough with purulent sputum. What is the most common trigger for these exacerbations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is barely responsive in the waiting area. What single feature would indicate possible opioid overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Opioid Toxicity

      Acute opioid toxicity is a serious condition that can result in drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and respiratory depression. The severity of symptoms may be exacerbated if alcohol or other sedatives are also involved. Hypotension is a common occurrence, and both tachycardia and bradycardia may be observed. Hypoventilation can lead to hypoxia-induced cardiac arrhythmias, and pinpoint pupils may be present. Sweating is more commonly associated with acute opioid withdrawal. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect acute opioid toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form

      Explanation:

      The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year old patient with well-controlled asthma presents to his general practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year old patient with well-controlled asthma presents to his general practitioner with a one-week history of a cough productive of green sputum. He is slightly more short of breath than usual but not needing to use any more of his salbutamol. He feels feverish but doesn't describe any chest pains. He takes oral Aminophylline and inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate for his asthma and uses salbutamol as needed. He is allergic to penicillin.

      On examination, he is talking in full sentences and his peak flow is 80% of his predicted. His temperature is 37.8 degrees and oxygen saturations are 98% in air. His pulse is 86 and he has right basal crackles on his chest but no wheeze.

      Which of the following antibiotics would you prescribe for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Process of Elimination in Tricky Questions

      When faced with a tricky question, it is important to stay calm and think through the options. One useful technique is the process of elimination. For example, in a question about the best antibiotic for a patient with a penicillin allergy who is taking aminophylline, you can immediately eliminate options that contain penicillin. Macrolides and ciprofloxacin can interact with aminophylline, increasing its plasma concentration, so you can eliminate those options as well. By process of elimination, you can arrive at the best answer, which in this case is doxycycline. Practicing this approach can help you tackle tricky questions and improve your performance in exams. Remember to take your time, read the question carefully, and eliminate options that do not fit the criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Health (8/20) 40%
Passmed