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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing’s disease
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Shoulder X-ray
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen second toe and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.
Hb 125 g/l
Platelets 390 * 109/l
WBC 6.5 * 109/l
ESR 78 mm/h
Rheumatoid Factor Negative
Antinuclear Antibody Negative
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gout
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinuclear antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.
The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.
To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is deeply concerned regarding his worsening memory. Over the past three months, he has become increasingly forgetful, to the point where he has had to take sick leave from work. He has had two recent presentations to the Emergency Department following falls, though a computed tomography (CT) head scan did not demonstrate any abnormality. On examination, there is an ataxic gait and you notice fasciculations and involuntary jerking movements of the upper limbs. He has had no family history of neurological disease and was previously fit and well.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)
Explanation:Distinguishing Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Case Study
A patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, imbalance leading to falls, and myoclonus. The most likely diagnosis is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), a devastating prion disease without cure. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred for diagnosis, as CT head is ineffective.
Vascular dementia, another common cause of cognitive impairment, typically has a slower and stepwise onset in patients with a significant vascular history. A CT head would likely identify existing small vessel disease in the brain of a patient with vascular dementia.
Huntington’s disease, characterized by abnormal movements and cognitive impairment, is not the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and lack of family history.
Lewy body dementia, which features visual hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, usually presents over a longer period of time.
Motor neuron disease, which includes weakness and fasciculations, is unlikely due to the absence of weakness in this presentation. Frontotemporal dementia may rarely develop in motor neuron disease, but it is a slowly progressive phenomenon, unlike the rapid deterioration in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and is found to have evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on chest x-ray. On examination the respiratory rate is 36 breaths per minute, pulse rate is 90 per minute and the blood pressure is 106/48 mmHg. Initial bloods show a urea of 12 mmol/l.
What is the patient's CURB 65 score?Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient in their 50s who was taking terfenadine for allergies experienced torsades de pointes after starting an antibiotic for an upper respiratory infection. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for causing this arrhythmia?
Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin and its potential risk of causing torsades de pointes
Erythromycin is a medication that can cause the QT interval to become prolonged, which can lead to the development of a potentially life-threatening heart rhythm disorder called torsades de pointes. This risk may be increased if erythromycin is taken in combination with other medications that also have the potential to prolong the QT interval, such as terfenadine. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential risk and to carefully consider the risks and benefits of prescribing erythromycin, particularly in patients who are already at increased risk for QT prolongation or who are taking other medications that can prolong the QT interval. Adequate monitoring and management of patients who are prescribed erythromycin is essential to minimize the risk of torsades de pointes and other serious adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Mrs. Johnson is a 36-year-old woman who complains of nausea, vomiting, high-pitched bowel sounds, and worsening abdominal pain. She reports a history of abdominal surgery due to a ruptured appendix a few years ago. What is the definitive diagnostic test to determine the cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct Answer: Abdominal CT
Explanation:The definitive diagnostic investigation for small bowel obstruction is CT abdomen, while AXR is the first-line investigation for suspected bowel obstruction. Although AXR may provide information, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old male with a history of alcoholism complains of intense epigastric pain that extends to his back. During the physical examination, the epigastrium is sensitive to touch, and there are signs of bruising on the flanks. What would be a sign of a severe illness based on the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Calcium of 1.98 mmol/L
Explanation:Hypocalcaemia is a sign of severe pancreatitis according to the Glasgow score, while hypercalcaemia can actually cause pancreatitis. This patient’s symptoms and history suggest acute pancreatitis, with the Glasgow score indicating potential severity. The mnemonic PANCREAS can be used to remember the criteria for severe pancreatitis, with a score of 3 or higher indicating high risk.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal nurse specialist and is told about a special blood test to monitor their disease.
Which of the following is this most likely to relate to?Your Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: Types and Uses
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to diagnose cancer, monitor treatment response, and detect recurrence. Here are some common tumour markers and their uses:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): This glycoprotein is found in normal mucosal cells but increases in adenocarcinoma, particularly colorectal cancer. It is used to monitor disease, rather than as a diagnostic tool.
CA-19-9: This intracellular adhesion molecule is highly specific for pancreatic and biliary tract cancers but may also be elevated in other cancers. It has a role in predicting metastatic disease.
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): This tumour marker is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours. It can be used to screen for hepatocellular carcinomas, especially in high-risk patients.
C-reactive protein (CRP): This marker indicates acute inflammation and is not specific to cancer.
CA-125: This glycoprotein is a marker for ovarian cancer but can also be elevated in other intra-abdominal cancers and non-malignant conditions. It is mainly used for monitoring after treatment and if ovarian cancer is suspected.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various uses in cancer diagnosis and management. However, they should always be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?
Your Answer: McCoy
Correct Answer: Macintosh
Explanation:Types of Laryngoscopes
Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been experiencing severe periorbital headaches on the right side for the past two weeks. These headaches occur at least once a day, often at night, and last for about an hour. He has also noticed tearing from his right eye and blockage of his right nostril during the headaches. However, at the time of examination, he was not experiencing any headache and there were no physical abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men, with a ratio of 10:1 compared to women. These headaches usually occur at night, particularly in the early morning. They are characterized by paroxysmal episodes, which means they occur in clusters. One of the distinguishing features of cluster headaches is the presence of autonomic symptoms, such as lacrimation, ptosis, pupil constriction, nasal congestion, redness of the eye, and swelling of the eyelid.
It is important to note that individuals with cluster headaches typically have normal examination results between attacks. This means that there are no visible signs of the headache during periods of remission. the symptoms and characteristics of cluster headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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You encounter a 27-year-old patient who has recently found out that she is pregnant. Her medical history reveals that she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism eight years ago and has been on a stable dose of levothyroxine since then. What is the appropriate course of action regarding her medication?
Your Answer: The dose of levothyroxine should be increased when pregnancy is diagnosed
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Recommendations for Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Testing
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for both the mother and fetus. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend increasing the dose of levothyroxine by 25-50 μg and referring the patient to an endocrinologist upon diagnosis of pregnancy. It is important to note that iodine supplements are not recommended for treating hypothyroidism in pregnancy. Adequate thyroid function is crucial for fetal neurological development, so stopping levothyroxine is not an option. Thyroid function tests (TFTs) should be taken at baseline and every four weeks, as changes in drug pharmacodynamics and kinetics can occur during pregnancy. The target thyroid stimulating hormone range should be low-normal at 0.4-2 mU/l, and the dose of levothyroxine should remain unchanged until specialist review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Prescribe metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, an abundance of blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome)
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and their Association with Leukaemia: A Brief Overview
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It can present with symptoms such as unexplained bleeding or bruising, persistent fever, fatigue, and pallor. A full blood count and blood film are essential for diagnosis, with the presence of numerous blasts and Auer rods indicating acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML). Certain genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, trisomy 8, and Fanconi anaemia, increase the risk of developing AML.
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a chromosomal disorder associated with an extra chromosome 18. It presents with congenital heart disease, intellectual disability, and a low weight at birth, but is not associated with leukaemia. Klinefelter’s syndrome, characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, increases the risk of breast cancer and extragonadal germ cell tumours, but evidence for an association with leukaemia is lacking. Gardner syndrome, a subtype of familial adenomatous polyposis, is associated with the development of multiple polyps in the colon and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, but not leukaemia. Haemophilia, an X-linked recessive condition that impairs clot formation, is not associated with haematological malignancies.
In summary, certain genetic disorders increase the risk of developing leukaemia, but not all genetic disorders are associated with this type of cancer. It is important to be aware of these associations in order to provide appropriate care and management for patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during bowel movements and passing fresh red blood while opening her bowels for the past 2 weeks. She is experiencing slight constipation but is otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history.
What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?Your Answer: Prescribe co-codamol for analgesia
Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN cream and laxatives
Explanation:Management of Anal Fissure: Laxatives and GTN Cream
An anal fissure is often the cause of pain during defecation and fresh red blood per rectum. To diagnose the fissure, a full blood count and digital examination per rectum may be necessary. However, initial management should involve a combination of laxatives to soften the stool and glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) cream. Drinking plenty of fluids is also advised. These measures are effective in 80% of cases. Surgery may be considered if medical management fails. Colonoscopy is not necessary in this scenario. Co-codamol is not recommended as it may worsen constipation and aggravate the fissure. While dietary advice is helpful, prescribing laxatives and GTN cream is the best course of action for healing the fissure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in recent months. The pain is not relieved by ibuprofen and is aggravated during sexual activity. During the clinical examination, adnexal tenderness is observed. The GP suspects that endometriosis may be the underlying cause of her dysmenorrhoea. What is the most suitable initial investigation for suspected endometriosis cases?
Your Answer: Diagnostic laparoscopy
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)
Explanation:Investigations for Endometriosis: Methods and Recommendations
Endometriosis is a common cause of dysmenorrhoea, and various investigations are available to diagnose it. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) as the first-line investigation for suspected endometriosis. TVUS can detect ovarian endometriomas or involvement of structures like the uterosacral ligament. However, a definitive diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made by laparoscopy, which is a minimally invasive procedure. Laparotomy with biopsy is rarely used due to longer recovery times and increased risk of complications. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis is not recommended as the first-line investigation, but it may be considered if there is suspicion of deep endometriosis affecting other organs like the bowel or bladder. Transabdominal ultrasound is only considered if TVUS cannot be done. In conclusion, TVUS and laparoscopy are the preferred methods for investigating endometriosis, with other investigations being considered only in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?Your Answer: Erect chest X-ray
Explanation:The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.
Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.
In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?Your Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway
Explanation:Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling
Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.
Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.
Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.
Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.
In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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For individuals with severe to profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, what is the specific structure of the ear that is directly stimulated by the electrodes in a cochlear implant? This device is intended to provide an alternative hearing pathway for people of any age.
Your Answer: Round window
Correct Answer: Auditory nerve ganglion cells
Explanation:Cochlear Implants and Sensorineural Hearing Loss
A cochlear implant is a device that directly stimulates the spiral ganglion cells of the auditory nerve, bypassing the normal mechanical structures of the hearing pathway. This is particularly useful for individuals with sensorineural hearing loss, which occurs when the hair cells within the cochlea are damaged or die. These hair cells are responsible for converting mechanical energy into electrical impulses that can be transmitted to the auditory nerve and interpreted by the brain as sound.
By providing a direct electrical stimulus to the auditory nerve, cochlear implants can help individuals with sensorineural hearing loss regain some level of hearing ability. While they do not restore normal hearing, they can provide significant improvements in speech recognition and overall communication abilities. Cochlear implants are a complex and highly specialized technology, and their success depends on a variety of factors including the individual’s age, degree of hearing loss, and overall health. However, for many individuals with sensorineural hearing loss, cochlear implants offer a valuable and life-changing solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: It often resolves with conservative management
Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)
Explanation:Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male arrives at the Emergency department. During routine admission blood tests, it is discovered that his triglyceride level is 20 mmol/l (0.45-1.69). What medical conditions can be triggered by hypertriglyceridemia?
Your Answer: Von Gierke's disease
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Hypertriglyceridaemia and its Causes
Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood. This condition can lead to acute pancreatitis, which is a serious medical condition. The most common causes of hypertriglyceridaemia include obesity, excessive alcohol intake, hypothyroidism, insulin resistance, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. There are also familial causes of hypertriglyceridaemia, such as familial hypertriglyceridaemia and familial combined hyperlipidaemia.
It is important to treat persistent high triglycerides to reduce the risk of pancreatitis and cardiovascular events. Von Gierke’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes the inability to break down glycogen. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertriglyceridaemia and manage it accordingly to prevent serious complications. By the causes of hypertriglyceridaemia, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been referred to the Infertility Clinic with her partner. They have been trying to conceive for almost one year now, having regular unprotected intercourse.
Initial investigations, including thyroid function tests and mid-luteal phase progesterone and prolactin, are normal. Semen analysis is also normal. No sexually transmitted infections were detected on testing. The patient reports regular periods and a history of endometriosis.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer: Cervical smear
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy and dye
Explanation:Investigating Infertility: Recommended Tests and Procedures
When a patient presents with infertility, there are several tests and procedures that can be performed to identify the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with known co-morbidities such as previous ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis, laparoscopy and dye is the most appropriate next step of investigation. This procedure involves Exploratory laparoscopy, allowing direct visualisation of the pelvis, and injection of dye into the uterus to assess tubal patency.
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) testing is typically performed when a patient has irregular menses, but may not be necessary for those with regular cycles and normal mid-luteal progesterone levels indicating ovulation. Basal body temperature charts are not recommended by NICE guidelines, as a mid-luteal phase progesterone blood test is a more accurate measure of ovulation.
Cervical smears may be indicated if the patient is due for screening, but do not form part of infertility investigations. Hysterosalpingography is recommended by NICE guidelines for women without co-morbidities, but is not appropriate for those with a history of endometriosis. Understanding the appropriate tests and procedures for investigating infertility can help healthcare providers identify the underlying cause and develop an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that began a few hours ago. Her heart rate is 180/min and an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation. The attending cardiologist plans to use flecainide to pharmacologically convert the patient back to sinus rhythm. What pre-treatment measure should be taken before administering flecainide?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Before using flecainide for atrial fibrillation, signs of structural heart disease should be checked.
Understanding Flecainide: A Class 1c Antiarrhythmic
Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic medication that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
However, it is important to note that Flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For example, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease, such as heart failure. It is also not recommended for patients with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.
While Flecainide can be effective in treating certain arrhythmias, it can also have adverse effects. It may cause negative inotropic effects, which can affect the heart’s ability to contract. It can also cause bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, and may even lead to proarrhythmic effects. Some patients may also experience oral paraesthesia or visual disturbances.
In summary, Flecainide is a class 1c antiarrhythmic medication that works by blocking sodium channels. It is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway. However, it is contraindicated in certain situations and can have adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female student presents to the GP clinic complaining of dysuria and frequent urination. Upon urinalysis, proteinuria, haematuria, and nitrite positivity are detected. The patient is currently taking Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive. The physician prescribes a five-day course of Augmentin. What recommendations should be provided to the patient?
Your Answer: She should run two packs of the pill consecutively
Correct Answer: Augmentin does not affect the OCP
Explanation:BNF Guidance on Antibiotics and Oral Contraceptives
The British National Formulary (BNF) has recently updated its guidance on the interaction between antibiotics and oral contraceptives. It is now believed that only drugs that induce hepatic enzyme activity can reduce the efficacy of the pill. This is a departure from previous thinking, which suggested that broad-spectrum antibiotics could impair the effect of intestinal flora responsible for recycling ethinyl oestradiol from the large bowel, thereby reducing the effectiveness of the pill. However, there is currently no evidence to support this theory, and the BNF no longer suggests that non-hepatic enzyme inducing antibiotics can impair the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of visual symptoms. She states that her left eye's vision has significantly deteriorated in the last two days. Additionally, she experiences pain behind her left eye when moving it. The patient is healthy otherwise, without medical history, allergies, or regular medication intake. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed, and her left eye's visual acuity is lower than the right. What other symptom is she likely to mention?
Your Answer: History of joint pains and a malar rash
Correct Answer: Reduced colour vision
Explanation:The patient in the brief is a young female with acute unilateral vision loss and painful eye movements. Given her age and symptoms, optic neuritis is the most likely diagnosis. This is especially true since she does not have any other symptoms commonly associated with temporal arthritis, such as new headaches, general malaise, weight loss, and jaw claudication. Additionally, temporal arthritis typically affects older patients and does not cause painful eye movements.
While optic neuritis can result in any pattern of visual field defect, the most common one is central scotoma. Therefore, peripheral vision loss with central sparing is less likely to be reported. It is important to note that this patient is not likely to have optic neuritis associated with SLE, as this is a rare occurrence. Instead, she is more likely to have idiopathic optic neuritis or optic neuritis associated with multiple sclerosis.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 84-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of persistent, heightened vaginal discharge. She reports that this has been going on for approximately a month and the odor is so unpleasant that she needs to change pads every 2 hours. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and painless. There is a small amount of fecal matter on the pad. A digital rectal examination reveals normal perianal sensation and an empty rectal vault. What is the probable cause of her symptom?
Your Answer: Age-related faecal incontinence
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of diverticulitis and passing of faeces or flatus through the vaginal passage suggest the presence of a colovaginal fistula, which is a complication of diverticular disease. This abnormal connection between the colon and vagina can occur during or after episodes of diverticulitis, leading to continuous leakage of faecal matter through the vagina. This condition can be diagnosed even in the absence of active infection or inflammation. Digital rectal examination will not reveal any findings as diverticulosis does not occur in the rectum. Age-related faecal incontinence is not a valid explanation as it is not a normal part of ageing and always has an underlying cause. Bacterial vaginosis and cauda equina syndrome are not relevant to this case.
Understanding Diverticulitis
Diverticulitis is a condition where an outpouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This outpouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.
Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.
Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect CXR, AXR, and CT scans can help diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. Severe cases may require hospitalization for IV antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in his right knee after starting a new medication prescribed by his GP. What is the most conclusive test to confirm his diagnosis?
The definitive investigation to confirm his diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.Your Answer: ESR
Correct Answer: Joint aspirate for microscopy
Explanation:Gout: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Gout is a medical condition characterized by severe joint pain, redness, and swelling, particularly in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. This condition is caused by hyperuricaemia, which leads to the deposition of sodium monourate crystals in the joint. Gout attacks can be triggered by various factors, including trauma, surgery, starvation, infection, and diuretics.
Diagnosing gout can be challenging, as serum uric acid levels are not always elevated. However, the identification of urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid can accurately confirm the diagnosis. During an acute attack of gout, serum uric acid levels may even fall acutely and be within the normal range. Microscopy of synovial fluid can reveal negatively birefringent crystals and neutrophils with ingested crystals.
In summary, gout is a painful condition that can be caused by various factors and is characterized by joint pain, redness, and swelling. Accurate diagnosis can be made by identifying urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid, as serum uric acid levels may not always be elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Radiographic Abnormalities in Haematogenous Osteomyelitis
Haematogenous osteomyelitis is a condition where infection spreads to the bone through the bloodstream. When the infection reaches the periosteal membrane, it can create a cloaca that extends into nearby soft tissues. This can lead to cortical sequestration. In children, the metaphysis may become infected and spread to the epiphysis, resulting in involucrum formation. Staphylococcus is a common cause of single or multiple Brodie’s abscesses, which appear as areas of radiolucency with adjacent sclerosis on X-rays. The lucent region in the metaphysis may connect with the growth plate through a tortuous channel, known as the channel or tract sign. In the diaphysis, the abscess cavity can be located in central or subcortical areas or in the cortex itself and may contain a central sequestrum. In the epiphysis, a circular, well-defined osteolytic lesion is seen. A cortical abscess can resemble the appearance of an osteoid osteoma or a stress fracture. These radiographic abnormalities can aid in the diagnosis of haematogenous osteomyelitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%
Explanation:Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options
When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.
While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.
Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.
Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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