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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primigravida gives birth to her male infant at 40+1 weeks via ventouse-assisted vaginal delivery. The estimated blood loss is 650ml and her uterus is well contracted. An episiotomy was performed during delivery, and a tear involving perineal skin and muscle with less than 50% damage to the external anal sphincter is found on postpartum vaginal examination. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Perineal tear repair on maternity ward immediately
Correct Answer: Perineal tear repair in theatre
Explanation:Repair of third degree perineal tears should be carried out in a theatre by a clinician who has received appropriate training. This is because category 3 and 4 tears pose a risk of infection and have a significant impact on the patient’s health. Poor healing of perineal wounds can lead to faecal incontinence, which is a potential complication of grade 3 and 4 tears. It is advisable to pack the perineal wound for haemostasis before repairing the tear, as this will help achieve better haemostasis with sutures. Healing of perineal tears by secondary intent is not recommended, as it can result in poor healing, infection, and faecal incontinence. Additionally, the vascular nature of the perineum and anus increases the likelihood of ongoing haemorrhage if the wound is not healed. In cases of category 1 and 2 tears (involving the skin only or skin and perineal muscle), perineal tear repair can be performed immediately on the maternity ward if the clinician feels comfortable and there is adequate lighting.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management
Explanation:If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice after her daughter was diagnosed with chickenpox 10 days ago. The daughter developed a widespread vesicular rash. The woman is feeling fine, but she is 16 weeks pregnant and cannot recall ever having had chickenpox. An immunoglobulin test confirms this. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a pregnant woman who is not immune to chickenpox is exposed to the virus, it is crucial to offer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within 10 days of the exposure to reduce the risk of foetal varicella-zoster syndrome and potential complications for the mother. However, if the woman is under 20 weeks pregnant, oral acyclovir is not recommended as there is limited evidence for its efficacy in this situation. Giving both VZIG and oral acyclovir is impractical and inappropriate, especially since the woman has already been exposed to chickenpox. If the woman develops chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation, acyclovir may be considered, but VZIG should still be given to reduce the chance of severe infection. It is important to note that VZIG should be given before symptoms develop and is only effective up to 10 days post-exposure. Therefore, waiting for symptoms to appear before giving VZIG is not recommended.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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John is a 28-year-old man who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw him 1 month ago for low mood and referred him for counselling. He states he is still feeling low and his feelings of anxiety are worsening. He is keen to try medication to help.
John has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for John to commence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take sertraline or paroxetine as their preferred SSRIs. These medications are known to have minimal to low levels of exposure to infants through breast milk, and are not considered harmful to them. Therefore, if a mother is diagnosed with postnatal depression and requires antidepressant treatment, she should not be advised to stop breastfeeding.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cooked liver
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.
Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women
During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.
Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.
Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.
Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.
Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is conducted on a 32-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation who has arrived at the labor ward in spontaneous labor. The CTG reveals a fetal heart rate of 150 bpm with good variability, and it is a low-risk pregnancy. The midwife contacts you with worries about the presence of late decelerations on the CTG trace. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood sampling
Explanation:When late decelerations are observed on a CTG, it is considered a pathological finding and requires immediate fetal blood sampling to check for fetal hypoxia and acidosis. A pH level of over 7.2 during labor is considered normal, but if fetal acidosis is detected, urgent delivery should be considered. Despite the reassuring normal fetal heart rate and variability, the presence of late decelerations is a worrisome sign that requires prompt investigation and management.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the risk of measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) infection for her unborn baby. She has never been vaccinated for MMR and is currently 14 weeks pregnant. There are no sick contacts around her.
What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refrain from giving her any MMR vaccination now and at any stage of her pregnancy
Explanation:The MMR vaccine, which contains live attenuated virus, should not be given to women who are pregnant or trying to conceive. It is recommended that women avoid getting pregnant for at least 28 days after receiving the vaccine. If a pregnant woman is not immune to MMR, she should avoid contact with individuals who have the disease. In the event that a woman receives the MMR vaccine unintentionally during the periconception period or early pregnancy, termination of pregnancy is not necessary. This information is based on the guidelines provided by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.
Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about the potential risks of ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is concerned and wants advice on whether she should continue taking it.
How would you counsel this woman regarding the use of ondansetron during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester
Explanation:The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is currently no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE antenatal care guidance, published in August 2021, acknowledges the increased risk of cleft lip or palate with ondansetron use, but notes that there is conflicting evidence regarding the drug’s potential to cause heart problems in babies. It is important to note that the risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies is not supported by evidence, and there is no established risk of severe congenital heart defects in newborns associated with ondansetron use.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.
Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.
Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.
What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk
Explanation:Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants
Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman in her fifth pregnancy has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks and presents for a fetal growth scan, as per the gestational diabetes protocol. She has had three normal vaginal deliveries, but the last time, she needed an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation. The sonographer calls you into the room to see the patient because the placenta is seen to involve more than half of the myometrium.
What is the correct diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placenta increta
Explanation:Placental Abnormalities: Understanding the Spectrum of Disease
Placental abnormalities can range from mild to severe, with varying degrees of risk to both mother and baby. Placenta increta is a condition where the placenta infiltrates into the myometrium, while placenta percreta is the most severe form where the placental fibres invade beyond the myometrium and require a hysterectomy for management. Placenta accreta is a milder form where the placental fibres attach to the superficial layer of the myometrium. Placenta praevia is a common cause of antepartum haemorrhage, where the placenta lies low and covers part of the internal cervical os. Vasa praevia is a condition where fetal vessels run across or over part of the internal cervical os, increasing the risk of bleeding and fetal distress.
Risk factors for these conditions include previous Caesarean section, myomectomy, multiparity, maternal age >35, placenta praevia, and uterine anomalies. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound, with MRI used in severe cases. Management may involve a Caesarean section for delivery in a controlled setting, or in severe cases, a hysterectomy. Women with vasa praevia or placenta praevia are advised to have an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of complications. Understanding the spectrum of placental abnormalities is crucial for appropriate management and reducing the risk of maternal and fetal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal appointment for her combined screening test. She gives her consent and undergoes the standard screening test, which includes blood tests and an ultrasound scan. After the test, she is informed that her results suggest the possibility of Down's syndrome and is offered further discussion. What are the expected results in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised beta-HCG, low PAPP-A, ultrasound demonstrates thickened nuchal translucency
Explanation:The presence of Down’s syndrome can be indicated by an increase in beta-HCG, a decrease in PAPP-A, and the observation of a thickened nuchal translucency during ultrasound. The other options involving beta-HCG and PAPP-A are incorrect. The combined screening test is usually conducted between the 10th and 14th week of pregnancy and involves an ultrasound to measure nuchal thickness, as well as blood tests to assess beta-HCG and PAPP-A levels. A positive result suggests a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, and Edward’s syndrome. In such cases, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, or non-invasive prenatal testing may be offered to confirm the diagnosis. The options involving inhibin A are not part of the combined screening test. If a woman presents later in pregnancy, the quadruple test may be used instead, which involves four blood markers to determine the risk of Down’s syndrome. These markers include inhibin A, alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, and beta-HCG. A positive result for Down’s syndrome would typically show raised beta-HCG and inhibin A, and low unconjugated oestriol and alpha-fetoprotein.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The pain started two days ago and is not accompanied by any other symptoms. She is struggling with breastfeeding and thinks her baby is not feeding long enough.
On examination, you notice an erythematosus, firm and swollen area, in a wedge-shaped distribution, on the right breast. The nipple appears normal.
Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial.
Given the above, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mastitis
Explanation:Breast Conditions in Lactating Women
Lactating women may experience various breast conditions, including mastitis, breast abscess, cellulitis, engorged breasts, and full breasts.
Mastitis is typically caused by a blocked duct or ascending infection from nipple trauma during breastfeeding. Symptoms include unilateral pain, breast engorgement, and erythema. Treatment involves analgesia, reassurance, and continuing breastfeeding. Antibiotics may be necessary if symptoms persist or a milk culture is positive.
Breast abscess presents as a painful lump in the breast tissue, often with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. Immediate treatment is necessary to prevent septicaemia.
Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the breast skin, presenting with erythema, tenderness, swelling, and blister formation. Non-specific symptoms such as rigors, fevers, and malaise may also occur.
Engorged breasts can be primary or secondary, causing bilateral breast pain and engorgement. The skin may appear shiny, and the nipple may appear flat due to stretching.
Full breasts are associated with lactation and cause warm, heavy, and hard breasts. This condition typically occurs between the 2nd and 6th day postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised
Explanation:Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are conducting a study on the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis in pregnant women. Some of the hormone concentrations are observed to increase during this stage. Your team observes that one hormone in particular shows a more significant increase than the others. Which hormone is most likely to display this greater increase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestriol
Explanation:Hormonal Changes During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are significant hormonal changes that occur in a woman’s body. One of the most notable changes is the increase in concentration of oestriol, which is the least potent of the three oestrogens. Oestrogen plays a crucial role in controlling other hormones such as FSH and LH, stimulating and controlling the growth of the placenta, and promoting the growth of maternal breast tissue in preparation for lactation.
Another hormone that increases during pregnancy is oestradiol, which is approximately 50-fold higher. Oestrone also increases, but oestradiol is more potent as it acts on a wider range of receptors.
On the other hand, LH and FSH are downregulated during pregnancy due to the high levels of oestrogen. The release of FSH is inhibited as follicles do not need to be stimulated during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe itching, nausea, and lethargy. She is currently 38 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced, but her vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory tests reveal the following results: Hb 121 g/l, Platelets 189 * 109/l, WBC 8.7 * 109/l, Bilirubin 90 µmol/l, ALP 540 u/l, ALT 120 u/l, γGT 130 u/l, Albumin 35 g/l, and INR 1.0. The acute viral hepatitis screen is negative. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:The most probable condition is cholestasis of pregnancy, which is indicated by intense itching, jaundice, obstructive liver function tests, normal white blood cell count, and absence of coagulopathy. Severe itching is a typical symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, while acute fatty liver of pregnancy presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea. Given the normal results of the full blood count and viral screening, it is unlikely that the patient has HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis. Lastly, pre-eclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant has arrived at the hospital in labor. The midwife observes that she has a temperature of 38.5ºC and recommends that the woman receive antibiotic treatment. The woman has had a regular and uncomplicated pregnancy thus far and has no known drug allergies. What type of Group B Streptococcus prophylaxis should the woman receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:According to the guidelines of the Royal College, women who experience a fever of over 38 degrees Celsius during labor should be administered benzylpenicillin as a prophylactic measure against GBS.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, 3 weeks postpartum, is brought in by her sister after claiming her baby is possessed by demons. She has been experiencing insomnia and conversing with imaginary individuals. Her sister reports that she has been exhibiting extreme mood changes over the past few weeks and is worried about the safety of the baby. The patient has no significant medical or psychiatric history, and there is no family history of mental illness. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hospitalisation in Mother & Baby Unit
Explanation:Women with postpartum psychosis require hospitalisation, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit, for close monitoring. This is a serious mental illness that should be treated as a medical emergency, and electroconvulsive therapy is not the next step in management.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for Down's syndrome screening. She undergoes a screening test and the results show an increased b-hCG, decreased PAPP-A, and thickened nuchal translucency on ultrasound. The chance of Down's syndrome is calculated to be 1/80. The patient expresses her concern about the safety of the testing options for her and her baby. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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