00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?

      Your Answer: C5-C6

      Correct Answer: C7-C8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Reflexes

      Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.

      The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
      On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
      Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.

      Your Answer: The travel history

      Correct Answer: The recent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a tiny spot on...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a tiny spot on his inner, lower lip. The spot has been there for about a month and has not shown any changes during this time. He reports no pain. He used to smoke but quit a decade ago. During the examination, his oral hygiene appears to be good, and there is a small, white patch less than 1 cm in size on the inner surface of his lower lip.
      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial 2 weeks chlorhexidine mouthwash then re-review

      Correct Answer: Refer oral surgery under 2-week wait

      Explanation:

      If a patient has had persistent oral ulceration for more than three weeks, it is recommended that they be referred to oral surgery under the two week wait. This is especially important for smokers, as it raises suspicion for malignancy. Referring the patient to oral surgery under the two week wait is more appropriate than routine referral, as it allows for a quicker diagnosis. Following up with a community dentist is not recommended, as it may cause delays in diagnosis if the patient does not attend. While chlorhexidine may provide symptom relief, it does not address the underlying diagnosis, and reassurance alone is also not sufficient. Medical practitioners should refer patients with this presentation to oral surgery.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but does not result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. She also reports experiencing loose stools up to three times a day for the past month, despite previously having solid stools once daily. She denies any weight loss or blood in her stool. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and she has normal urine dip results. Blood tests, including a CA-125 and coeliac screen, and a faecal calprotectin test all come back within the normal range. Although you suspect irritable bowel syndrome, the patient is worried about the possibility of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer but does not meet the 2-week criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In the case of a patient experiencing unexplained abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit, a FIT test is the most appropriate next step, according to NICE guidance, especially considering the patient’s age and the absence of rectal bleeding. It is not advisable to simply suggest diet changes or reassure the patient without conducting the necessary tests, as her symptoms require complete investigation. Repeating a faecal calprotectin level is unlikely to be helpful and may only delay the patient from receiving the appropriate support.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female patient presents with a persistent cough and runny nose for...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents with a persistent cough and runny nose for the past 48 hours. She seeks treatment for her symptoms, but you explain that she is likely experiencing a common cold that will resolve on its own. What is the most frequent cause of the common cold?

      Your Answer: Rhinovirus

      Explanation:

      Rhinoviruses are responsible for causing the common cold, while respiratory syncytial virus is a common cause of bronchiolitis. Influenza virus is the culprit behind the flu, while Streptococcus pneumonia is the most frequent cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Parainfluenza virus is commonly associated with croup.

      Respiratory Pathogens and Their Associated Conditions

      Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenza virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with a specific respiratory condition.

      Respiratory syncytial virus is known to cause bronchiolitis, while parainfluenza virus is associated with croup. Rhinovirus is the most common cause of the common cold, while influenza virus causes the flu. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, and Haemophilus influenzae is the most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbations and acute epiglottitis. Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause pneumonia, particularly following influenza. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, which is characterized by flu-like symptoms that precede a dry cough. Legionella pneumophilia is another cause of atypical pneumonia, which is typically spread by air-conditioning systems and causes a dry cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients, and patients typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, which can present in a wide range of ways, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease. Cough, night sweats, and weight loss may be seen in patients with tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to you with a 3-week history of shoulder pain in both shoulders. A shoulder X-ray taken 2 weeks ago did not reveal any signs of osteoarthritis. Her blood tests show an elevated ESR of 50mm/hour. What is the most appropriate course of action for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of oral prednisolone 15mg daily and arrange follow up after 1 week to assess clinical response

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient strongly indicate the presence of polymyalgia rheumatica, and thus, a one-week course of steroids should be administered to produce a significant improvement. Prescribing paracetamol for a month is unlikely to yield any noticeable relief. An MRI scan is not likely to aid in the diagnosis. Administering a prolonged course of steroids without periodic review is not recommended.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms. He is known to be a heavy smoker and hypertensive. On examination, he has a right incongruous homonymous hemianopia.
      Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: Left optic tract

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Field Defects: A Guide to Lesion Locations and Symptoms

      Visual field defects can provide important clues about the location and nature of neurological lesions. Here is a breakdown of the different types of visual field defects and their associated lesion locations:

      – Retina/optic disc: Scotoma
      – Optic nerve: Unilateral blindness (ipsilateral) or scotoma
      – Lateral optic chiasm: Incomplete/contralateral hemianopia
      – Central optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia
      – Optic tract: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (incongruent)
      – Temporal lobe/optic radiation: Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
      – Parietal lobe/superior optic radiation: Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
      – Complete parieto-occipital interruption of optic radiation: Contralateral congruent homonymous hemianopia (may be macula sparing)

      It is important to note that incomplete lesions may produce asymmetrical/incongruent homonymous hemianopia, while complete lesions result in congruous homonymous hemianopia, relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), and optic nerve atrophy. Other symptoms may also be present depending on the lesion location, such as language defects, neglect, and movement or color agnosia. By understanding the different visual field defects and their associated lesion locations, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
      Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.

      Your Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation

      Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.

      What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical aciclovir drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a regular menstrual cycle for the past year, despite a negative pregnancy test. You order initial tests to establish a baseline. Which of the following is not included in your list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea is caused by Turner’s syndrome instead of secondary amenorrhoea.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands...

    Correct

    • A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands and wrists. He suspects that it might be due to something he is exposed to at work. What test would be most appropriate to investigate this hypothesis?

      Your Answer: Patch testing

      Explanation:

      When there is a suspicion of allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing is the preferred method of investigation. This condition can be caused by either irritants or allergens. The patient’s back is exposed to different allergens, including standard batteries and any substances that the patient suspects. The skin is then evaluated for any reaction after 48 hours and 7 days.

      Understanding Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare. The second type is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.

      Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Proper treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her heavy periods....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her heavy periods. She has been trying to conceive for the past 10 months without success. She has noticed that her periods have been getting progressively heavier over the past year, and she has experienced episodes of flooding. She initially attributed this to getting older, but now it has become unmanageable. During the examination, you palpate a supra-pubic mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroids

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of menorrhagia, subfertility, and an abdominal mass strongly suggest the presence of fibroids. While ectopic pregnancy should be ruled out, it is less likely due to the absence of severe pain. Endometriosis and endometrial cancer are also unlikely causes of an abdominal mass. Although ovarian cancer cannot be completely ruled out, it is not the most probable diagnosis. Fibroids are benign tumors that commonly occur in the myometrium. Symptoms include heavy menstrual bleeding, pain (if the fibroid twists), and subfertility. As fibroids grow larger, they can cause additional symptoms such as dysuria, hydronephrosis, constipation, and sciatica. Initial treatment typically involves medications such as tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, or progesterones to manage menorrhagia, but surgery is often necessary for persistent fibroids.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
      Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome

      Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 51-year-old man comes to see the GP complaining of leg twitching and...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man comes to see the GP complaining of leg twitching and cramps that have been going on for a year. He also reports difficulty swallowing both liquids and food. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, the GP observes tongue fasciculations and hypophonia. Based on these findings, what conditions should be considered for further investigation?

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Bulbar onset motor neuron disease can be identified by the presence of tongue fasciculations.

      While benign fasciculation syndrome can also cause tongue fasciculations, the overall clinical picture suggests a more serious underlying condition. Other factors may be misleading in making a diagnosis.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences intermittent episodes of epistaxis. Blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
      - Platelets: 52 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - Prothrombin time (PT): 23 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
      - Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 46 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
      - Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (normal range: 2 - 4)
      - D-Dimer: 1203 ng/mL (normal range: < 400)
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the expected findings on a blood film?

      Your Answer: Heinz bodies

      Correct Answer: Schistocytes

      Explanation:

      The presence of schistocytes is indicative of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a condition where the coagulation pathways are activated, leading to a procoagulant state. It can be triggered by various factors, including acute illness. The patient’s blood tests show a depletion of platelets and coagulation factors, which is typical of DIC. However, elliptocytes, Heinz bodies, and Howell-Jolly bodies are not expected in DIC. Elliptocytes are usually seen in conditions like iron deficiency and thalassemia, while Heinz bodies are associated with alpha-thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies are characteristic of decreased splenic function, such as post-splenectomy.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You see a 4-year-old child in surgery with his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 4-year-old child in surgery with his mother. He has been diagnosed with molluscum contagiosum and she is keen to have him treated.
      Which of the following statements about molluscum contagiosum is true?

      Your Answer: The condition is not infectious

      Correct Answer: The condition resolves spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Myths and Facts

      Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin infection caused by a poxvirus. However, there are several myths surrounding this condition that need to be debunked. Firstly, it is not true that the condition resolves spontaneously. While most cases do clear up on their own within 6-9 months, some can last up to 4 years. Secondly, molluscum contagiosum is highly infectious and can be transmitted through contact with infected persons or objects, including swimming pools. Sexual transmission is also possible.

      Another myth is that patients can treat themselves by squeezing the spots. This is not recommended as it can lead to scarring. Additionally, molluscum contagiosum is not limited to children. While it does present mainly in young children, there is also a later peak in young adults, some of which is attributable to sexual transmission.

      Finally, piercing the lesions with an orange stick dipped in phenol is not the treatment of choice. In fact, the condition usually requires no treatment and resolves on its own. Treatment may be recommended for adults or older children with particularly unsightly spots or in the immunosuppressed, where it can take several years to resolve. Topical applications such as benzyl peroxide or potassium hydroxide, as well as curettage and cryotherapy, can be used to treat the condition.

      In conclusion, it is important to separate fact from fiction when it comes to molluscum contagiosum. While it is a common and often harmless condition, it is important to seek medical advice if you have concerns or if the spots are causing discomfort or affecting your quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

      In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

      While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

    Correct

    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      109.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating headache and tenderness on palpation of the same area. He complains of pain in his jaw while eating.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Start oral steroids

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis

      Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible loss of vision. The following are the appropriate steps in managing a patient with suspected GCA:

      Prompt Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis

      1. Start oral steroids immediately: Delaying treatment can lead to vision loss. Steroids should be initiated even before the diagnosis is confirmed by temporal artery biopsy.

      2. Admit and start on methotrexate if necessary: Patients on steroids are at high risk of side effects. Methotrexate or tocilizumab can be used in those who have steroid toxicity, along with tapering doses of steroids.

      3. Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy: This is the gold-standard investigation for GCA. However, treatment should not be delayed till after the biopsy.

      4. Do not refer to a rheumatologist on an outpatient basis: A rheumatologist will eventually be involved in the management of GCA, but immediate treatment is necessary.

      5. Do not arrange an MRI scan of the brain: This is not indicated in the usual evaluation of GCA. It is used in specific cases of extracranial GCA or when there is strong clinical suspicion but a negative temporal artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 48 year old man presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 48 year old man presents to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain and feeling unwell. He is typically in good health and enjoys long distance running. His medical history includes a previous finger injury from playing cricket and gallstones that have not caused any issues. During examination, his sclera is noted to be icteric. His heart rate is 106 bpm and his blood pressure is 125/85 mmHg. He has a temperature of 38.1ºC. There is significant rebound tenderness and guarding in the right upper quadrant, and his bowel sounds are quiet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The man in this scenario is experiencing Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. These symptoms suggest that he may have ascending cholangitis, which is caused by a bacterial infection in the biliary tree due to obstruction from biliary stasis (likely caused by his gallstones). Treatment involves resuscitation, IV antibiotics, and biliary drainage.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.

      Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.

      Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.

      Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

      Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      117.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
      What is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Repeat sample immediately

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.

      If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.

      However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and tired, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history, but she admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in both lung bases. Her blood tests are as follows:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      What is the causative organism?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is characterized by typical symptoms such as flu-like illness, dry cough, confusion, and relative bradycardia. Blood tests may reveal hyponatremia.

      Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia often occur in communities with shared water supplies, as hinted at in the question with the reference to the recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia frequently affects both lungs, as seen in the question. Additionally, Legionella can cause abnormal liver function tests and hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion in some cases, although this is not mentioned in the question.

      The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV infection to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.

      Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Eat a long-term, low-fibre diet

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:

      Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.

      Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.

      Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.

      Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.

      Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
      Which of the following is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis

      Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.

      Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.

      Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.

      Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.

      Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      87.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers. He describes a flu-like illness in recent days, with myalgia and rigours every two days. He has previously been well, other than an episode of suspected malaria on a gap year in Brazil three years ago, which was felt to be successfully treated. He has not been abroad since.
      On examination, he has splenomegaly, scleral icterus and a temperature of 39.1°C.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 100 × 109 150–450× 109/l
      Blood film Awaited
      Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fluctuating Pyrexia: Malaria vs. Other Causes

      The patient in question is experiencing fluctuating rigours of malaria, despite not having been in a malaria-affected zone for two years. This suggests a recurrence of pre-existing malaria, with the most likely subtype being P. vivax due to its ability to lie dormant in the liver for extended periods. While dengue fever is a possibility, the history of fluctuating pyrexia is more indicative of malaria, which also causes anaemia and thrombocytopenia. P. falciparum is a reasonable differential, but less likely given the patient’s travel history. P. malariae is rare and typically presents with fevers recurring every three days, making it less likely. Yellow fever is also unlikely due to the patient’s travel timeline and lack of jaundice. Overall, malaria is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman is being seen in the asthma clinic. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is being seen in the asthma clinic. She is currently on salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 400 mcg bd, but is experiencing frequent asthma exacerbations and has recently undergone a course of prednisolone. In accordance with NICE guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      31.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/5) 40%
Infectious Diseases (1/4) 25%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/3) 67%
Respiratory Medicine (2/2) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Passmed