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  • Question 1 - What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of a dataset from its average?

      Your Answer: Range

      Correct Answer: Mode

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Terms in Evidence-Based Medicine

      A basic understanding of statistical terms is essential in comprehending trial data and utilizing evidence-based medicine effectively. One of the most crucial statistical terms is the standard deviation, which measures the dispersion of a data set from its mean. It summarizes how widely dispersed the values are around the center of a group.

      Another important term is the mode, which refers to the most frequently occurring value in a data set. The range describes the spread of data in terms of its highest and lowest values. On the other hand, the 95% confidence interval (or 95% confidence limits) presents the range of likely effects and includes 95% of results from studies of the same size and design in the same population.

      Lastly, the weighted mean difference examines the difference in means between different sets of values, weighted for differences in the way they were recorded. Understanding these statistical terms is crucial in interpreting and analyzing trial data and making informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      16.2
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain

      Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:

      1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.

      2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.

      3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).

      4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.

      5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      23.6
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old man on your telephone list reports experiencing two small floaters that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man on your telephone list reports experiencing two small floaters that have appeared in his left eye, partially obstructing his vision over the past day. He has been working on computer screens more frequently than usual over the past week and wears glasses for myopia. He denies any pain or injury to either eye and has not visited an optician in several years.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange same-day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with new-onset flashes or floaters, it is crucial to refer them urgently for assessment by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours. In this case, the patient’s new-onset floaters could be a sign of retinal detachment, which requires immediate attention to prevent loss of sight. Therefore, the optician’s assessment of her glasses prescription should be delayed until after the ophthalmology review. Irrigation and antibiotic cover are unnecessary since there is no history of a foreign body or pain in the eye. It is important to prioritize the urgent ophthalmology review and not delay it by arranging a face-to-face assessment the following day. Additionally, blaming the use of computer screens for the floaters is unlikely and observing for further time is not a sufficient response to potential sight-threatening causes.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. It can cause reversible visual loss if detected and treated before it affects the macula. However, if left untreated and symptomatic, it can lead to permanent visual loss. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes mellitus, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma such as boxing.

      Symptoms of retinal detachment include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss progressing from the periphery to the center of the visual field, and reduced peripheral visual fields. If the macula is involved, central visual acuity and outcomes become much worse. The swinging light test may reveal a relative afferent pupillary defect if the optic nerve is affected. Fundoscopy can show the loss of the red reflex and retinal folds appearing as pale, opaque, or wrinkled forms. However, if the break is small, it may appear normal.

      Management of retinal detachment involves urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for assessment with a slit lamp and indirect ophthalmoscopy for pigment cells and vitreous hemorrhage. Any patients with new onset flashes and floaters should be referred within 24 hours to prevent permanent visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor

      When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.

      Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.

      Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old with longstanding COPD remains breathless despite treatment. She is taking regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old with longstanding COPD remains breathless despite treatment. She is taking regular short acting bronchodilators as required but you decide to move to the next step in treatment.

      According to the NICE recommended stepwise treatment of COPD what is the recommended dosing regime of her muscarinic antagonist in the next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three times daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Patients with Persistent Symptoms

      Patients who continue to experience symptoms or exacerbations despite treatment with short acting beta agonists or short acting muscarinic antagonists should progress to the next step in their treatment plan. This involves introducing long acting derivatives. It is recommended to offer once daily long acting muscarinic antagonists over four times daily short acting preparations. This can help improve patient compliance and provide more consistent symptom relief. By following this treatment plan, patients can better manage their respiratory symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old man presents to you with complaints of vision problems in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to you with complaints of vision problems in his right eye. He has been experiencing crooked edges on his door and occasional blurring of his vision. He has noticed that he tends to turn slightly while driving, but his peripheral vision remains unaffected. He denies any pain in his eye. Upon examination, his visual acuity is normal and his fundi appear unremarkable. However, when asked to look at a lined piece of paper, he reports seeing breaks in the lines. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eye Conditions: A Guide for General Practitioners

      Ophthalmology is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s work, yet it is often under-taught. It is essential to be aware of diagnoses and to categorize routine and urgent eye conditions. This guide aims to provide a brief overview of some common eye conditions.

      Age-related macular degeneration is a condition that can often be asymptomatic, and visual loss is usually mild. Patients may experience visual distortions, blurring of vision, and difficulty reading. There may also be a difference in size and color between both eyes.

      Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden, painless unilateral visual loss. Primary closed-angle glaucoma and uveitis usually present with severe and progressive eye pain, along with blurred vision. Amaurosis fugax refers to transient retinal ischemia and symptoms include rapid onset of blindness developing over seconds, as if a curtain was drawn across the eye, and lasts seconds or minutes.

      It is important for general practitioners to be familiar with these conditions and to refer patients to ophthalmologists when necessary. By understanding these eye conditions, general practitioners can provide better care for their patients and ensure that they receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 8 - You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.

      The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start losartan

      Explanation:

      For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - In an emergency surgery one morning you see a 12-year-old patient with an...

    Incorrect

    • In an emergency surgery one morning you see a 12-year-old patient with an infective exacerbation of asthma. She is under the respiratory specialist at the local hospital as she has had longstanding problems with poor disease control. Her current medications consist of salbutamol 2 puffs PRN, Symbicort 400/6 2 puffs BD, montelukast 10 mg OD and theophylline 400 mg BD. She is allergic to penicillin.

      She reports a one week history of progressive chest tightness and cough productive of green purulent phlegm. Following your assessment you feel she warrants antibiotic treatment.

      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Drug Interactions in Theophylline Metabolism

      Theophylline is a medication that undergoes hepatic metabolism, making it susceptible to interactions with other drugs. These interactions can either increase or decrease its metabolism, affecting its plasma concentration and ultimately its clinical effectiveness. Due to its narrow therapeutic index, concurrent prescription of drugs that affect its metabolism can lead to toxicity or limit its effectiveness.

      Certain antibiotics, such as azithromycin, ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin, can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline if co-prescribed. Therefore, it is important to consider these interactions when prescribing medications to patients taking theophylline.

      In cases where the patient is penicillin allergic, doxycycline is a safe option as it doesn’t interfere with theophylline metabolism. By being aware of these interactions, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of theophylline in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of recurrent vertigo that has been going on for 6 months. She reports experiencing episodes that last from a few minutes to several hours, accompanied by tinnitus and decreased hearing in her left ear. She denies any identifiable triggers that worsen her symptoms. She has no significant medical history. Her ear and cranial nerve examinations are normal.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting minutes to hours, accompanied by unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus. This clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which should be confirmed by referral to an ENT specialist and formal audiometry. The cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it may be associated with raised endolymph pressure in the inner ear. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, labyrinthitis, and vestibular neuronitis are not likely diagnoses, as they present with different symptoms and characteristics.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 11 - A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers with significant pain around his foot and ankle, which started after ankle surgery. He has been reviewed by orthopaedics and a specialist pain clinic.

      What management options are recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      For patients with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), early physiotherapy is a highly recommended management option. It is often necessary to involve a pain specialist and provide ongoing neuropathic analgesia.

      Although counselling may be beneficial for chronic pain, it is not a recommended treatment option. Referring patients to psychiatry is not appropriate as there is no clear evidence of a mental health issue.

      Opiate analgesia and triptans are not recommended for CRPS management.

      Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

      Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.

      Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.

      Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 12 - Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 26-year-old man who complained of hearing loss and was diagnosed with bilateral impacted wax. Despite using olive oil drops for a week, there was no improvement.

      What other options can be considered at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate drops

      Explanation:

      When attempting to remove impacted earwax, it is recommended to try olive oil drops first. If this method is unsuccessful, other options such as almond oil drops, sodium bicarbonate drops, and sodium chloride drops can be considered. Otomize and betamethasone ear drops are commonly used for treating otitis externa. It is important to avoid attempting to remove earwax through ear candling or the use of cotton buds.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman requests a steroid cream for her vulval itch. She mentions...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman requests a steroid cream for her vulval itch. She mentions that her aunt recommended she get some from the GP, as it worked for her.

      Would you kindly request the patient to come in for an in-person consultation?

      What is the primary rationale for requesting the patient to come in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Identification of an underlying cause for vulval itching is possible in patients

      Explanation:

      Pruritus vulvae can usually be attributed to an underlying cause, which can be determined through a thorough history and physical examination. The most common cause is contact dermatitis, but there are various skin conditions and infections that can also lead to vulval itching, including psoriasis, lichen simplex/planus/sclerosus, candidiasis, trichomoniasis, scabies, pubic lice, and even (pre-)malignant conditions like VIN.

      Prescribing medication over the phone, video-link, or online is permitted by the GMC, as long as the healthcare provider is satisfied with the consultation and has taken into account the limitations of the communication medium and the need for examination or access to the patient’s records.

      The patient has control over their information and can disclose any relevant details over the phone. Depending on the potential diagnoses, swabs and urine samples may be necessary.

      Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.

      To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 15 - You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You observe that she has been on alendronate for the past 4 years following a FRAX score that indicated a risk of fracture. She has not experienced any fractures before. Her other medications consist of ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. She reports no adverse effects from her medications.

      What is the best course of action concerning her bisphosphonate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a repeat DEXA scan and reassess need to continue alendronate

      Explanation:

      According to the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group and NICE guidelines, individuals with osteoporosis who are undergoing treatment with alendronate should have their 10 year fracture risk evaluated again after 5 years. After this point, it may be appropriate to discontinue treatment, although this decision should be made on a case-by-case basis. Patients who are over 75, have a history of hip or vertebral fracture, have experienced any low trauma fracture while on treatment, or are still taking steroid therapy should continue with their treatment.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.

    A friend found her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents in a confused and drowsy state.

      A friend found her this morning after she had been out drinking the previous night but also states that she had been upset after her boyfriend had 'dumped her'.

      Examination reveals that she is drowsy with a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15. She has a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils which react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min and has exaggerated reflexes with down-going plantar responses. Examination of the abdomen reveals a palpable bladder.

      Which of the following substances is she most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of anticholinergic overdose, including drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Close monitoring is necessary as ventricular arrhythmias and seizures may occur. Treatment for seizures involves phenytoin, while lidocaine can be used for ventricular arrhythmias. Bicarbonate can correct metabolic acidosis.

      Paracetamol overdose typically presents with few symptoms or signs initially, but can lead to fulminant hepatic failure later on. Opiates cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines typically only cause marked drowsiness. Ecstasy often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, but can also lead to severe hyponatremia when associated with excessive water consumption, resulting in drowsiness and obtundation.

      In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 17 - Sophie, a 25-year-old female, attends the GP surgery on a Wednesday afternoon at...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 25-year-old female, attends the GP surgery on a Wednesday afternoon at 14:00 after having had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse the preceding Saturday night at 23:00. She is not currently using any contraception.

      Her last menstrual period was 12 days prior to the episode and she has not had any previous episodes of unprotected sexual intercourse. She has a regular period every 30 days. She has never been pregnant. Her PMH includes Migraines and Eczema. DH - sumatriptan prn, emollients. She has no known drug allergies. She is requesting emergency contraception and wishes to have ongoing contraception.

      Which is the single most appropriate management from the options below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be offered ellaone (ulipristal acetate) and quick started on the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception for Naomi

      Naomi has presented more than 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI), making Levonelle ineffective. Additionally, she is taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) which can reduce the effectiveness of ulipristal acetate. Therefore, the most appropriate management for her is the emergency intrauterine device (IUD), which is the most effective emergency contraceptive and provides ongoing contraceptive cover. It is important to note that progesterone-containing contraception should be delayed until after 5/7 after ellaone (ulipristal acetate) to reduce the risk of it being less effective as an emergency contraceptive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic

      When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.

      The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.

      It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.

      In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as he is experiencing worsening breathing difficulties. The child has a history of asthma and has been hospitalized twice before due to exacerbations. During the examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 90% on air, heart rate is 140 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 40 breaths/minute, and he is using accessory muscles to breathe. Additionally, he is having difficulty completing full sentences.

      Which aspect of the child's medical history indicates a potentially life-threatening exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Severe asthma exacerbation is characterized by the following: difficulty in completing full sentences, use of accessory muscles, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/ min, and a heart rate of 140 breaths/ min.

      Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 48-year-old female patient with breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. The patient has been prescribed a daily dose of 20 mg of tamoxifen. What is the most frequent adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen Side Effects According to BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used to set questions for the AKT, and it lists the frequency of side effects for medications. Tamoxifen, for example, has common or very common side effects such as headaches, while all the other options are rare or very rare. Patients taking tamoxifen should be informed about the increased risk of thromboembolism and advised to watch for symptoms of DVT and PE. Additionally, patients should be warned about the increased risk of endometrial cancer and instructed to report any relevant symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential side effects and counsel patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine is the appropriate treatment. Choose the one accurate statement regarding the use of terbinafine.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months’ therapy is needed

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infection Treatment Options

      Fungal nail infections are commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes fungi. These two types of fungi are responsible for over 90% of cases, with T. rubrum being the most common culprit. Systemic treatment is recommended for fungal nail infections as it is more effective. However, the slow growth of nails means that they may not appear normal even after successful treatment.

      Terbinafine is currently the first-line treatment for fungal nail infections, with evidence showing greater efficacy compared to itraconazole. However, itraconazole is more effective against candida. Treatment with terbinafine usually takes around 3 months to be effective. It is important to note that terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old, in which case griseofulvin must be used.

      There have been rare cases of liver toxicity with terbinafine, and very rare reports of severe skin reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, it is advisable to monitor hepatic function before treatment and every 4-6 weeks during treatment. If abnormalities in liver function tests occur, treatment should be discontinued.

      Itraconazole can be given in pulses for 7 days every month to treat fungal nail infections. Two pulses are recommended for fingernails, and three for toenails.

      In conclusion, fungal nail infections can be effectively treated with systemic antifungal medications such as terbinafine and itraconazole. However, it is important to monitor for potential side effects and to follow the recommended treatment regimen for optimal results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

    In...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

      In the past he has used a friend's 'blue' inhaler which helped ease his symptoms. He feels that his symptoms are worse following a run of shifts in work and mentions that when he went on holiday in the summer for two weeks his chest improved significantly.

      He has been in work today and on examination he has a mild diffuse wheeze audible throughout his chest.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rate measurements

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma and its Diagnosis

      The history of a patient who works as a baker raises concerns about occupational asthma, which is often caused by sensitizing agents found in plant products. It is estimated that 10-15% of adults with new or recurrent asthma have an occupational element to their symptoms. If a patient reports that their symptoms improve when away from the workplace, occupational asthma should be strongly suspected.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, the most useful approach is to have the patient perform serial peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. The Oxford Handbook of Respiratory Medicine recommends that the patient record a PEFR every two hours from waking to sleep for four weeks, with no changes to their treatment. The patient should document home, work, and holiday periods, and an expert should interpret the results.

      If you suspect work-related asthma, it is important to arrange PEFR measurements and refer the patient to a chest physician or occupational physician for assessment and interpretation of the PEFR diary. Early diagnosis and management of occupational asthma can prevent long-term respiratory damage and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the appointment for his right pterygium, attends.

      He was referred to the ophthalmologist by his Optician because the pterygium is encroaching on his visual axis. He is complaining of constant irritation, but there is no inflammation of the eye. There is no ocular pain or discharge.

      What is the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient a short course of topical ocular lubricants

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pterygium and When to Refer to an Ophthalmologist

      Pterygium is a condition that can cause irritation and grittiness in the eye due to its irregular surface, which can lead to dryness in certain areas. If the pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, it can threaten the patient’s vision and requires referral to an ophthalmologist. Other reasons for referral include inducing irregular astigmatism, chronic inflammation, or being cosmetically unacceptable.

      While waiting for an ophthalmology appointment, the best management for symptomatic relief is to use ocular lubricants. If there is evidence of acute inflammation, an ophthalmologist may prescribe topical steroids or NSAIDs. In some cases, surgery may be necessary.

      It’s important to note that if a patient has not been referred and their pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, they should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Understanding when to refer patients with pterygium can help ensure they receive the appropriate care and management for their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports a sensation of locking and a painful clicking when extending her knee. There is no history of recent trauma. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort during knee flexion and extension.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. X-rays and MRI are used for diagnosis, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary for further management.

      While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case in this scenario. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, causes vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the pain, swelling, and knee clunking in this case are more indicative of a more serious condition.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee.

      Signs of OCD include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed. Wilson’s sign can also be used to detect a medial condyle lesion. Diagnosis is typically made through X-rays and MRI scans, which can show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies and evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage, and assess the stability of the lesion.

      Early diagnosis is crucial in managing OCD, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion. Treatment options may include rest, physical therapy, and surgery in severe cases. By understanding OCD and its symptoms, patients can seek early intervention and prevent further damage to their joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 26 - When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual...

    Incorrect

    • When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine

      The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).

      The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.

      Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.

      In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.

      Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Incidence

      Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in her right hand. Upon examination, she displays atrophy of the thenar eminence and experiences sensory loss in the palmar region of the lateral (radial) three fingers. Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      It is highly likely that this patient is suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of not having...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of not having a period for six months. Previously, she had a regular 28-day cycle with a five-day bleed. Which of the following investigations would be the least helpful initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum progesterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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