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Question 1
Incorrect
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A woman in her early fifties comes in with a painful shoulder and limited range of motion. The shoulder is sensitive to touch, and there is no record of injury. During the examination, both active and passive movement are restricted due to pain. Based on these symptoms, you suspect the patient has a frozen shoulder. What is the primary location of inflammation in this condition?
Your Answer: Articular cartilage of the humeral head
Correct Answer: Shoulder capsule
Explanation:Frozen shoulder is caused by inflammation of the shoulder capsule, leading to pain and reduced range of movement. Other conditions that can cause shoulder pain include biceps tendonitis, shoulder arthritis, and glenoid labrum tears.
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old female visits her GP with worries about having gone through menopause due to the absence of periods for 1 year. What is the reason for the cessation of the menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: The demise of ovarian follicles
Explanation:The ovarian cycle consists of three main stages: the follicular phase (day 1-10), the ovulatory phase (day 11-14), and the luteal phase (day 15-28). During the follicular phase, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) stimulate the growth of 10-20 follicles, from which one oocyte is selected while the others become atretic. The mature follicle releases oestrogen, which stimulates the renewal and thickening of the uterine lining. In the ovulatory phase, the mature follicle (2 cm) ruptures and exits. Finally, during the luteal phase, the oocyte travels through the uterine tubule while the remaining follicular cells develop into the corpus luteum. As the ovaries age, the number of available and viable ovarian follicles decreases, resulting in a reduced response to FSH and LH.
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation visits her GP complaining of a rash on her arm. The rash has been present for two days and she has been feeling generally unwell with a mild fever. Upon examination, the GP observes a well-defined, raised, reddish patch on her left forearm that is most red at the border. Additionally, there is associated axillary lymphadenopathy. The GP orders a full blood count, CRP, and a swab of the lesion. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Erysipelas is a skin infection that is localized and caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is often seen in elderly patients with weakened immune systems, such as those with diabetes mellitus. Symptoms include a raised, painful rash with clear boundaries.
Ringworm is commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum. This results in a circular, scaly, and itchy rash that is red in color.
While Staphylococcus epidermidis is a normal part of the skin’s flora, it is more commonly associated with infections of foreign devices and endocarditis rather than skin infections.
Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection
Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.
The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it like?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A lipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing out and hydrophobic tails facing in
Explanation:The Function and Structure of the Mammalian Cell Membrane
The mammalian cell membrane serves as a protective barrier that separates the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. It also acts as a filter for molecules that move across it. Unlike plant and prokaryotic cells, mammalian cells do not have a cell wall. The main component of the cell membrane is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids, which have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The phospholipids in the bilayer are oriented with their hydrophilic heads facing outward and their hydrophobic tails facing inward. This arrangement allows for the separation of the watery extracellular environment from the watery intracellular compartment.
It is important to note that the cell membrane is not a monolayer and the phospholipids are not linked head-to-tail. This is in contrast to DNA, which has a helical chain formation. Overall, the structure and function of the mammalian cell membrane are crucial for maintaining the integrity and proper functioning of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and tiredness. She reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. She maintains an active lifestyle and attends fitness classes weekly. Her medical history includes hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, constipation, and depression.
The physician orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Hb: 113 g/l
- Platelets: 239 * 109/l
- WBC: 6 * 109/l
- Neuts: 2 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 2 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.3 * 109/l
- Na+: 142 mmol/l
- K+: 3.2 mmol/l
- Bilirubin: 12 µmol/l
- ALP: 23 u/l
- ALT: 10 u/l
- γGT: 23 u/l
- Urea: 4 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 50 µmol/l
- Albumin: 30 g/l
Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Prolonged use of senna increases the risk of hypokalemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood results. The symptoms of mild hypokalemia are non-specific and include fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation, and rhabdomyolysis. Given the patient’s medical history of constipation, it is likely that she has been taking a laxative, which could be either osmotic or a stimulant. Both types of laxatives are known to cause hypokalemia, and in this case, senna is the likely culprit.
Heparin can cause hyperkalemia, especially when used in conjunction with spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and trimethoprim. Heparin inhibits aldosterone synthesis, leading to increased potassium retention and sodium excretion. This effect is more pronounced in elderly individuals, diabetics, and those with renal failure. The risk of hyperkalemia increases with higher doses, prolonged use, and unfractionated heparin therapy.
Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body without depleting potassium. Amiloride causes hyperkalemia by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at various points in the kidneys, which reduces potassium and hydrogen secretion and subsequent excretion.
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that is known to cause hyperkalemia and is therefore not the cause of the patient’s hypokalemia.
Understanding Laxatives
Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.
Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.
Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.
In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. She undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interleukin-8
Explanation:Interleukins (IL) are cytokines that have various important roles in the immune system. One such IL is IL-8, which is produced by macrophages and is responsible for the chemotaxis of neutrophils. This is crucial in the acute inflammatory response, as neutrophils are recruited to areas of inflammation.
Another important IL is IL-2, which is produced by T helper 1 cells and stimulates the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. This makes it essential for fighting infections.
IL-4, produced by T helper 2 cells, activates B cells and can also induce the differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells. It plays a crucial role in dealing with infections.
IL-5, also produced by T helper 2 cells, primarily stimulates the production of eosinophils.
Finally, IL-10 is produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What role do chylomicrons serve in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To move lipids from the gut to the liver
Explanation:The Role of Chylomicrons in Lipid Transport
Chylomicrons play a crucial role in transporting lipids from the gut to the liver. When fats from the diet are absorbed in the small intestine, they form chylomicrons for transportation to the liver. These large lipoproteins are capable of transporting relatively large amounts of lipid compared to other lipoproteins.
Lipid digestion begins in the stomach, where partial digestion and emulsification occur. As the chyle enters the small intestine, it mixes with biliary and pancreatic secretions, including pancreatic lipase and other lipases that further digest the lipid. The bile contains more cholesterol than the diet usually, and this cholesterol is also absorbed in a process known as the enterohepatic circulation.
Digested triglyceride particles form micelles in the intestinal lumen, which aid in the absorption of the lipids into the enterocytes of the brush border. Once inside the enterocyte, triglycerides are packaged into chylomicrons, which enter the lymphatic circulation and then the bloodstream.
Chylomicrons are modified by the enzyme lipoprotein lipase on endothelium and become chylomicron remnants. The chylomicron remnants are taken up by the liver and used to produce other lipoproteins. Overall, chylomicrons are essential for the efficient transport of lipids from the gut to the liver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing central chest pain that spreads to his left arm. His ECG reveals ST-elevation in the anterior leads, and he is set to undergo urgent PCI. The cardiologist plans to access the femoral artery. What is the accurate surface landmark for identifying the femoral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The mid-inguinal point, which is the surface landmark for the femoral artery, is located at the midpoint between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. It should not be confused with the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is where the deep inguinal ring is located and runs from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle. While the other three options are not specific surface landmarks, it is worth noting that the superficial inguinal ring, which is the exit of the inguinal canal, is typically located superolateral to the pubic tubercle within a range of 1-2 cm.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps muscle arise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle
Explanation:The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin of the long head, while the lateral and medial heads are connected to the back of the humerus, specifically between the teres minor insertion and the olecranon fossa.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An intercalating medical student conducts a case-control study for her dissertation, examining the life-long exposure to marijuana in groups of patients with and without COPD.
What type of bias is this study most susceptible to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Critical appraisal of papers is essential for doctors to practice evidence-based medicine, as mandated by the GMC. Detecting potential sources of bias in research is a crucial aspect of this skill, which is commonly tested in medical school finals. Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, as patients with COPD may be more likely to remember their past marijuana use and its extent, potentially skewing the results. Other types of bias include detection bias, observer bias, and publication bias.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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As a doctor on the respiratory ward, you are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old male patient who has contracted community-acquired pneumonia. The consultant has asked you to recommend an appropriate antibiotic for the treatment of this patient. Knowing that he has an allergy to penicillin, you decide to prescribe clarithromycin.
What is the mode of action of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds to 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting translocation
Explanation:Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. Clarithromycin and erythromycin are examples of macrolide antibiotics used to treat respiratory and skin infections. Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, while penicillins prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking and fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase. Penicillins and fluoroquinolones are bactericidal, while tetracyclines and macrolides are bacteriostatic. Gentamicin is used to treat various bacterial infections but has side effects of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin can treat almost any bacterial infection but has a side effect of tendon damage. No antibiotic binds to the 80S subunit.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You have been requested to evaluate a 45-year-old Caucasian individual who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Despite making dietary modifications and engaging in physical activity, their blood pressure remains above 160/100 mmHg, prompting you to recommend medication.
During the consultation, the patient inquires about the drug's mechanism of action. You clarify that the medication obstructs an enzyme responsible for converting a peptide hormone into its active state.
Based on the medication you have prescribed, which of the following alterations is expected to happen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced ADH release
Explanation:The drug in question is most likely an ACE inhibitor, which is commonly prescribed as first-line therapy for hypertension in older patients of certain races. ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the enzyme responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is a key component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that regulates blood pressure. Angiotensin II has several actions that help to counteract drops in blood pressure, including vasoconstriction, increased aldosterone secretion, and increased ADH release. ACE inhibitors have the opposite effect, leading to reduced levels of ADH. However, ACE inhibitors can also cause a buildup of bradykinin, which may result in a persistent dry cough as a side effect.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of amiloride for elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for her first ultrasound after discovering she is pregnant. The scan reveals that the placenta is properly implanted. What modifications take place in the endometrium during days 5-13 in response to fetal tissue implantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decidualization
Explanation:The blastocyst typically implants in the endometrium around day 6-7 and finishes by day 10, which is during the secretory phase when progesterone from the corpus luteum is present. A woman will only test positive for pregnancy after implantation has occurred. During implantation, the blastodisc is formed.
Apposition is the process of the blastocyst aligning with the endometrium, which is influenced by signals from both the endometrium and the blastocyst. The endometrium releases COX-2, growth factors, cytokines, and hormones like estrogen and progesterone, while the blastocyst releases EGF, LIF signaling, growth factors, and cytokines. NSAIDs should be avoided during the peri-implantation stage due to the importance of COX-2 in apposition.
Attachment is the next stage, which occurs when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium through pinopods and microvilli. The endometrium is only receptive to implantation during a narrow window of the menstrual cycle, but sperm can survive for up to 7 days, leading to unexpected pregnancies.
Penetration is the final stage, where the blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium, and the development of the placenta begins. Haemochorial placentation is characterized by changes in the uterus, including the differentiation of the endometrium into the decidua, enlarged stromal cells, and NK cells, as well as the transformation of the uterine spiral arteries.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes complains of feeling dizzy, sweaty and confused. Upon checking his glucose levels, it is found that he is experiencing hypoglycaemia which is resolved with a glucose drink. Which medication is the most probable cause of this hypoglycaemic episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide
Explanation:Mechanisms of Hypoglycaemia in Sulphonylurea Therapies
Sulphonylurea therapies, including gliclazide, glimepiride, and glibenclamide, are known to cause hypoglycaemia. This is due to their ability to increase pancreatic insulin secretion, which can lead to a drop in blood glucose levels. On the other hand, metformin and pioglitazone work differently to control blood glucose levels. Metformin reduces the amount of glucose produced by the liver, while pioglitazone improves the body’s sensitivity to insulin. Neither of these medications typically causes hypoglycaemia.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for hypoglycaemia when prescribing sulphonylurea therapies and to monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of low blood glucose levels. Additionally, patients should be educated on the importance of monitoring their blood glucose levels regularly and seeking medical attention if they experience any symptoms of hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents for a routine occupational health evaluation. He consumes 38 cans of 4% lager per week and has a history of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome 6 months ago. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, a purulent cough and a fever over the past month. He reports that he lost 5kg in this period, and also experiences night sweats. One month ago, he returned to the UK from a two-month-long mission trip to India, where he worked as a volunteer in mission hospitals.
On examination, he appears to be tachypnoeic and uncomfortable. Crepitations are heard at the apices of both lungs, and a productive cough is noted.
He is admitted to the isolation ward, and the attending physician obtains samples for an acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear. However, why is an AFB smear alone insufficient in achieving a definitive diagnosis for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AFB smear is not specific for TB as all mycobacteria will stain positive
Explanation:An AFB smear is not a definitive test for TB as it can also detect other mycobacteria. However, it is one of the initial investigations for patients with symptoms suggestive of TB, such as this man with a purulent cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss, especially if they have a travel history to an endemic area like India. A culture is necessary to confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and determine its susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. The AFB smear is a quick and simple test that can be performed in most healthcare institutions, and it can detect both active and latent TB.
Tuberculosis can be screened for using the Mantoux test, which involves injecting a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and reading the results a few days later. A positive result indicates hypersensitivity to the tuberculin protein, which may be due to previous TB infection or BCG vaccination. False negative results can occur in certain situations, such as in very young children or individuals with certain medical conditions. The Heaf test, which was previously used in the UK, has since been discontinued.
To diagnose active tuberculosis, a chest x-ray may reveal upper lobe cavitation or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum smear tests involve examining three specimens for the presence of acid-fast bacilli using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. While this test is rapid and inexpensive, its sensitivity is between 50-80% and is decreased in individuals with HIV. Sputum culture is considered the gold standard investigation, as it is more sensitive than a smear and can assess drug sensitivities. However, it can take 1-3 weeks to obtain results. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) allow for rapid diagnosis within 24-48 hours, but are less sensitive than culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male with Parkinson's disease (PD) arrives at the emergency department with sudden chest pain, indicating a possible heart attack. What treatment should be avoided in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide should not be given to patients with Parkinsonism due to its dopamine antagonist properties which can worsen the symptoms of the disease. However, it can be prescribed as an antiemetic when administering morphine to ACS patients who are not contraindicated. Oxygen is safe for PD patients, while clopidogrel is used for its antiplatelet effects.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is prescribed clopidogrel to manage his peripheral artery disease-related claudication pain. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel prevents clot formation by blocking the binding of ADP to platelet receptors. Factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa and are used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism and atherothrombotic events. Dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor, is used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism. Heparin/LMWH increase the effect of antithrombin and can be used to treat acute peripheral arterial occlusion, prevent and treat deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA at the end of glycolysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and its Enzyme Complex
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme complex that plays a crucial role in metabolism. It is composed of multiple copies of several enzymes, including E1, E2, and E3. E1, also known as pyruvate dehydrogenase, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires thiamine pyrophosphate, a derivative of the vitamin thiamine, to function properly. E2, a transacetylase enzyme, is situated in the core of the molecule and requires lipoamide to work effectively. Lipoamide contains a thiol group that enables it to participate in redox reactions. E3, a dehydrogenase enzyme, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires a molecule of FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) to function. Flavin structures are obtained from the vitamin riboflavin in the diet.
Thiamine is essential for normal pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and it must be obtained from the diet as the body can only store relatively small amounts. Thiamine deficiency is common and can lead to a range of potentially serious complications, including Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Korsakoff’s psychosis, and peripheral neurological symptoms. Overall, the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex is under strict metabolic control and plays a critical role in energy production and metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a hepatic artery branch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic artery
Explanation:The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is visiting the cardiology clinic due to experiencing shortness of breath. She has been having difficulty swallowing food, especially meat and bread, which feels like it is getting stuck.
During the examination, a mid-late diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible during expiration.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Left atrial enlargement in mitral stenosis can lead to compression of the esophagus, resulting in difficulty swallowing. This is the correct answer. Aortic regurgitation would present with an early diastolic murmur, while mitral regurgitation would cause a pansystolic murmur. Pulmonary regurgitation would result in a Graham-Steel murmur, which is a high-pitched, blowing, early diastolic decrescendo murmur.
Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain on the right side. Upon further inquiry, she describes the pain as crampy, intermittent, and spreading to her right shoulder. She has no fever. The patient notes that the pain worsens after meals.
Which hormone is accountable for the fluctuation in pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:The hormone that increases gallbladder contraction is Cholecystokinin (CCK). It is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine, particularly in response to a high-fat meal. Although it has many functions, its role in increasing gallbladder contraction may exacerbate biliary colic caused by gallstones in the patient described.
Gastrin, insulin, and secretin are also hormones that can be released in response to food intake, but they do not have any known effect on gallbladder contraction. Therefore, CCK is the most appropriate answer.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure at home. She is currently confused and her family provides a collateral history. According to them, the patient has been complaining of headaches and fatigue for the past few weeks, which they attributed to her job that requires frequent travel to Latin America. A CT scan of her head reveals the presence of multiple cystic lesions. Which helminth is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taenia solium
Explanation:A patient who recently immigrated from Latin America has been admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing a seizure. A CT scan of the head has revealed multiple cystic lesions, which are indicative of an infection with Taenia solium, also known as the pork tapeworm. This parasite is a common cause of seizures in developing countries and can cause vague symptoms such as headaches, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. If the larvae of Taenia solium enter the central nervous system, they can cause seizures in patients.
Pinworm, also known as Enterobius vermicularis, is a common helminth that primarily affects children. It causes perianal itching that is worse at night and is prevalent in the United States, Western Europe, and Oceania, as well as other parts of the world.
Schistosoma haematobium is a parasite that affects the urinary tracts and intestines, causing symptoms such as haematuria, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea. It is spread through contact with contaminated freshwater and is more common in tropical regions of Africa, Latin America, and Southeast Asia.
Strongyloides stercoralis is another parasite that can cause abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and a widespread pruritic rash. It is more prevalent in East Asia and Latin America.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Samantha is undergoing an evaluation with the psychologist. Her sister has joined the session to provide her with moral support. With Samantha's consent, the psychologist is inquiring her sister about her personality.
Samantha's sister characterizes her to the psychologist as someone who appears to be lively, charming and sociable at first. However, as you spend more time with her, you come to realize that she is excessively theatrical, constantly seeking attention and admiration, and she can be quite manipulative.
What kind of personality disorder does Samantha have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorders: General Criteria and Specific Types
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that are characterised by deviations from the cultural norm in cognition, affect, impulse control, or relating to others. According to ICD-10, individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder must meet certain general criteria, including long-term evidence of the deviation since childhood or adolescence, distress to the individual or negative impact on their social environment, and the absence of an alternative mental disorder or organic brain injury.
There are several specific types of personality disorders, each with their own unique characteristics. Histrionic personality disorder is characterised by self-dramatisation, suggestibility, shallow affectivity, and a continual seeking for excitement and attention. Borderline personality disorder is associated with disturbances in self-image, intense relationships, emotional crises, and deliberate self-harm. Anankastic personality disorder is similar to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, with individuals becoming preoccupied with detail, rules, and schedules to the point of hindering completion of tasks and relationships. Schizoid personality disorder is characterised by emotional detachment and solitary activities, while paranoid personality disorder involves high levels of suspicion and distrust towards others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A neurologist is consulted for a patient who has displayed limited visual fields in one eye during an examination. Upon conducting an MRI, the neurologist discovers a tumor in the right temporal lobe, near the border with the occipital region. What type of visual impairment is the patient most likely experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left superior homonymous quadrantanopia
Explanation:Temporal lobe lesions result in contralateral homonymous quadrantanopias, with damage to the Meyer’s loop and optic radiations causing this condition. The optic radiations receiving information from the superior quadrants are located more inferiorly while those from the inferior travel more superiorly. As the lesion is located in the lower part of the right temporal lobe near the occipital region, it is likely to affect the left superior quadrant. It is important to note that lesions on the temporal lobe correspond to superior quadrants rather than inferior, and damage to the right side of the brain affects the left visual field. Additionally, temporal lobe lesions cause quadrantanopias and not hemianopias.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of increased joint pain and fatigue. She reports no significant medical history but mentions that her sister was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). On examination, there are no notable findings. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 118 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 260 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells: 7.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- ANA: Negative
- ANCA: Negative
- Anti-La antibody: Negative
- Rheumatoid factor: Positive
Which blood test result is the most reliable indicator that SLE is unlikely in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANA (antinuclear antibodies)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with profuse diarrhoea one week after undergoing a cholecystectomy. The surgery was uncomplicated, except for a minor bile spillage during gallbladder removal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile infection
Explanation:Broad spectrum antibiotics are only given during a cholecystectomy if there is intraoperative bile spillage. It is not standard practice to administer antibiotics for an uncomplicated procedure. Surgeons typically address any bile spills during the operation, which greatly reduces the risk of delayed pelvic abscesses. As a result, such abscesses are very uncommon.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain that started an hour ago. She experienced sweating, nausea, and vomiting. An electrocardiogram showed a non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction in the anterior leads, and a blood test revealed elevated levels of troponin. The woman was admitted to the coronary care unit for treatment. After a few days, the interventional cardiologist discussed with the woman the possibility of inserting a stent to prevent future myocardial infarctions. A new type of drug-eluting stent was recently tested in a small group of patients at a hospital. The researchers discovered that the new stent was not more effective than the currently available stents in reducing future myocardial infarctions. What type of error or bias is more likely in this trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II error
Explanation:1: A study is considered to be statistically significant when the probability of obtaining the observed results by chance is very low. This means that the observed results are likely to be due to the intervention or treatment being studied.
2: A p-value is a measure of the probability that any observed difference is due to chance. A lower p-value indicates a lower probability of chance and a higher likelihood that the observed difference is due to the intervention or treatment being studied.
3: Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, leading to an apparent increase in survival time. This is not a true increase in survival time, but rather a result of earlier detection.
4: Type II errors occur when a study’s sample size is too small to detect a difference. To prevent type II errors, a larger sample size should be recruited.
5: Confounding bias occurs when a variable interacts with both the outcome and predictor variables. If not controlled for, the effect of the predictor variable cannot be accurately determined.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the definition of liver cirrhosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nodules, fibrosis, and architectural disruption
Explanation:Cirrhosis: End-Stage Fibrosis of the Liver
Cirrhosis is a condition that describes the changes that occur in the liver when it reaches end-stage fibrosis. This happens due to chronic inflammation that leads to the death of liver cells or hepatocyte apoptosis. Initially, the dead cells are replaced by new ones through hepatocyte regeneration. However, in cases of chronic inflammation, activated stellate cells deposit fibrous tissue in the liver, leading to the formation of large bands that stretch between portal tracts. These tracts are also expanded with fibrosis, and areas of hepatocyte regeneration occur, forming nodules. Unfortunately, at this stage, the normal relationship between hepatocytes, portal triads, and central vein is lost, leading to poor drainage of portal blood through the liver. This results in increased back-pressure and portal hypertension. It is important to note that these features alone do not necessarily indicate cirrhosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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