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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.
She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.
She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.
Blood tests show:
Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)
WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.
Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose
Explanation:Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children
Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.
To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.
It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isotretinoin
Explanation:Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions
Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.
Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.
Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.
Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.
In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical error?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
Explanation:Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is known as a Type I error.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of dysuria. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, her abdomen appears normal, and a urine dipstick test reveals the presence of leukocytes and nitrites. The patient has no significant medical history. Besides urine microscopy, what is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral antibiotics for 3 days + follow-up if not settled
Explanation:Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.
According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.
Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried as she has episodes where she cries uncontrollably and pulls her legs up to her tummy. She appears to be in pain and he is unable to calm her down. The crying doesn't seem to be related to feeding. The episodes last for around 30 minutes to 1 hour and occur for a total of about 3 hours a day. He finds it difficult to soothe her and is feeling exhausted.
She is breastfed and is feeding well. She is growing appropriately and is having normal wet and dirty nappies.
During the examination, she appears to be a healthy and content baby. No abnormalities are found.
Which statement below, regarding infantile colic, is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colic is associated with crying which most often occurs in the late afternoon or evening
Explanation:Infantile colic is characterized by repeated episodes of excessive and inconsolable crying in an otherwise healthy and thriving infant. This condition typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by around 3-4 months of age. The crying often occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by the infant drawing its knees up to its abdomen or arching its back. Colic affects both breastfed and bottle-fed infants and occurs equally in both sexes. However, it can lead to complications such as parental stress, anxiety, and depression, sleep deprivation, family tension, and attachment difficulties between parent and infant. It may also result in premature cessation of breastfeeding or weaning onto solid foods, as well as an increased risk of child maltreatment.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of persistent urticaria, which he has experienced over the last six months. He obtains relief by taking antihistamine tablets. He takes no other medications and has restricted his diet to fresh food in an attempt to reduce the histamine exposure in his diet. He has not been in contact with any new chemicals or materials.
What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An autoimmune response
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Urticaria
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, can be caused by a variety of factors. It can be idiopathic, immunological, or non-immunological. Chronic urticaria is diagnosed when a patient experiences daily or episodic wheals for at least six weeks. Histamine-releasing autoantibodies are present in at least 30% of patients with chronic urticaria. Contact urticaria is a rapid, localised reaction to certain triggering substances. Pseudoallergens, such as certain drugs or food additives, can aggravate wheals in any form of urticaria. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are immunoglobulin E mediated, can cause acute urticaria. Type IV hypersensitivity and contact irritant effects are seen in contact allergic dermatitis and contact irritant dermatitis. Understanding the different causes of urticaria can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood tests. She schedules an appointment with you to discuss the results. She denies any sensory loss, weakness, headache, palpitations, or visual disturbance. She reports having a well-balanced diet. Upon examination, including neurological examination, everything appears normal. Her BMI is within the normal range. The following are the results:
- Hb 104 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- MCV 109 fl (80-100)
- Ferritin 76 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12 130 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate 12.3 nmol/L (> 3.0)
- Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular (IM) hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:The usual management for Vitamin B12 deficiency involves intramuscular B12 replacement, with a loading regime followed by injections every 2-3 months. In the case of a woman with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels, the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies (IFAB) suggests pernicious anaemia, which requires lifelong hydroxocobalamin injections at 2-3 monthly intervals. While most patients with B12 deficiency are treated with IM replacement, NICE guidelines during the COVID pandemic recommend oral cyanocobalamin where possible, but this is not appropriate for this patient. Ferrous sulphate is a suitable treatment for iron deficiency anaemia. A haematology referral may be necessary if initial treatment is unsuccessful.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to discuss contraception with you.
She had previously been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She is considering long-acting reversible contraception and would like some further information regarding the risk of uterine perforation with an intrauterine device.
Which of the following is an important risk factor for uterine perforation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insertion during lactation
Explanation:Risk Factors for Uterine Perforation with Intrauterine Contraception
The rate of uterine perforation associated with intrauterine contraception (IUC) is up to 2 per 1000 insertions, with a higher risk in breastfeeding women. According to a recent drug safety update from the medicines and healthcare products regulatory agency, the most significant risk factors for uterine perforation during IUC are insertion during lactation and insertion within 36 weeks after giving birth. Women should be informed of the risks and symptoms to recognize. Age is not a risk factor for uterine perforation. Intrauterine contraception can be inserted at any time during the menstrual cycle if it is reasonably certain that the woman is not pregnant. The Mirena intrauterine system is used to manage menorrhagia, while the copper coil can cause heavy vaginal bleeding, but menorrhagia itself is not a reported risk factor for perforation on insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks guidance on whether taking an antidepressant would be helpful. According to the latest NICE recommendations, which of the following factors would support the use of an antidepressant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her depression complicates a chronic health problem e.g. Compliance with COPD medication
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known cause of acute pancreatitis in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 54-year-old gentleman for his diabetic annual review appointment. He has type 1 diabetes which was diagnosed when he was 12-years-old. He tells you that over the last 72 hours he has noticed new onset flashers and floaters in his right eye. Today he has felt that the vision in his right eye has become 'extremely blurry'.
You can see that his last diabetic retinopathy screening was performed just over a month ago and the report you have states that the retinal photographs taken showed 'pre-proliferative retinopathy' in his left eye and 'proliferative retinopathy' in the right eye. Following this the screening service has referred him for outpatient ophthalmological assessment at the local hospital, which is pending.
On examination there is a loss of the red reflex in the right eye and right eye visual acuity is reduced to 'hand movements'.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment
Explanation:Diabetic Retinopathy Screening and Urgent Ophthalmological Assessment
All individuals with diabetes should undergo an annual retinal assessment through the local diabetic retinopathy screening service. This assessment aims to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy and refer patients for further specialist ophthalmological assessment if necessary. However, in cases where a diabetic presents with acute eye problems, urgent same-day ophthalmological assessment is required to prevent the progression of eye problems.
Retinal detachment is a serious complication of diabetic retinopathy that may present with floaters and flashing lights. Unfortunately, these symptoms may not prompt patients to seek medical attention, and early detachment of the retina may go unnoticed until it progresses to the macula. At this point, central vision is significantly affected, and urgent intervention is required.
During examination, the typical red reflex is lost, and the fundus reveals a grey retina that protrudes forward. The extent of the detachment determines the degree to which the red reflex is diminished.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 62-year-old female
Explanation:The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.
Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days
Explanation:Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her lower limbs. Upon examination, both of her knees are warm and swollen, with tenderness upon palpation of the joint. The joints exhibit crepitus and painful active and passive movement, but there is no ligamental instability. Which of the following findings would indicate an inflammatory cause of joint pain, rather than osteoarthritis, in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Swelling and warmth
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Inflammatory Arthritis and Osteoarthritis: Symptoms and Signs
When it comes to joint pain, it can be difficult to determine whether it is caused by inflammatory arthritis or osteoarthritis. However, there are certain symptoms and signs that can help distinguish between the two.
Swelling and warmth are more likely to be associated with inflammatory arthritis, as it is characterized by the presence of synovial fluid and inflammation. On the other hand, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with bony joint enlargement and tenderness, rather than swelling and warmth.
Crepitus, or joint cracking and popping, can occur in both types of arthritis, but is more common in osteoarthritis due to joint-space narrowing. Joint instability can also occur in all types of arthritis, but is most commonly caused by injury or trauma that has damaged ligaments.
Painful range of motion is another symptom that can occur in both inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis. However, it can be managed with analgesia and physiotherapy.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and signs of inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Explanation:Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction
The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.
– Link 1: [insert link]
– Link 2: [insert link]
– Link 3: [insert link] -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen
Explanation:Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is a common symptom or condition associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin treatment
Explanation:Associated Conditions with Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects the hand’s connective tissue, causing the fingers to bend towards the palm. Along with genetic factors, several other conditions are associated with Dupuytren’s contracture. These include diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, acromegaly, leukaemia, and pregnancy. Additionally, alcoholic liver disease, Peyronie’s disease, and phenytoin treatment are also linked to Dupuytren’s contracture. It is essential to be aware of these associated conditions to identify and manage Dupuytren’s contracture effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has advanced pancreatic cancer. He is currently taking 40 mg prolonged release morphine twice a day and 15 mg of morphine oral solution three times a day. He is experiencing drowsiness and difficulty swallowing medication. You determine that a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine via a syringe driver is necessary. What is the most suitable dosage of subcutaneous morphine in this scenario? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
Explanation:Dosage Calculation Errors
Dosage calculation errors can have serious consequences for patients. Here are some examples of errors and how to correct them:
1. 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
To calculate the 24 hour dose, add together the current doses in 24 hours and convert to an equivalent subcutaneous dose. For morphine, divide by 2. The breakthrough dose is 1/6 of the baseline dose.2. 45 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose over 24 hours is correct but the breakthrough dose is incorrect. The dose for breakthrough pain is 1/6 of the baseline dose.3. 60 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The 24 hour dose needs to incorporate PRN doses and be adjusted for administration by injection rather than oral.4. 90 mg/24 hours, 15 mg for breakthrough pain
The error made here is not converting the dose from oral to subcutaneous. This is done by dividing the oral dose by 2.5. 30 mg/24 hours, 5 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose needs to include any PRN doses taken. The current regimen should be converted from oral to subcutaneous correctly, but the 30 mg of oral solution taken should also be taken into account. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him.
He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he remains convinced that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him.
During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and tends to have a paranoid outlook.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. She appears to be highly sensitive and holds grudges when insulted, while also questioning the loyalty of those around her and being hesitant to confide in others. Her family has also noted her tendency towards paranoia. Borderline personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizophrenia are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once weekly at least 24 hours after methotrexate dose
Explanation:According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, methotrexate is typically prescribed once a week and is often accompanied by a co-prescription of folic acid. This is done to minimize the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Folic acid is taken on a day when methotrexate is not being taken. The British National Formulary recommends a weekly dose of 5mg for adults to prevent methotrexate-induced side effects in rheumatic disease. It is important to take the folic acid dose on a different day than the methotrexate dose.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a blood clot 3 weeks ago but has been recovering well. However, the patient had to discontinue taking clopidogrel 75 mg due to severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea after switching from aspirin 300 mg daily. Since then, the symptoms have subsided.
What would be the best medication(s) to recommend for preventing another stroke in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole
Explanation:When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking aspirin or modified-release dipyridamole alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended by NICE for this purpose, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents after a severe panic attack when she was about to board a plane. She reports general uneasiness about travelling in any form of transport and has started avoiding it if possible. Six months earlier, she sustained minor injuries in a fatal plane crash. She has also become irritable and intolerant to noise, has been awoken by dreams about accidents and admits to being depressed.
Which of the following is the most suitable management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behaviour therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that requires appropriate treatment. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line treatment for those with severe symptoms or persistent symptoms beyond the first month after the event. This therapy includes exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, and stress management. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing is an alternative therapy for prolonged symptoms. Antidepressants may be used as an adjunct to psychological therapy or if patients decline or fail to respond to psychological therapy.
Hypnotics such as temazepam may be considered for short-term use, but they are not first-line treatment for PTSD. Mirtazapine is a suitable second-line treatment if cognitive therapy is unsuitable or ineffective. Relaxation and non-directive therapy should not be routinely offered as they do not address traumatic memories.
For mild symptoms present for less than four weeks after the event, watchful waiting should be considered, with follow-up within one month. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for PTSD to improve symptoms and overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Common Modes of Disease Transmission
Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.
Modes of Disease Transmission
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One year
Explanation:DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive
The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.
The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.
It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.
Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.
Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.
Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.
Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.
Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.
He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.
What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.
His family history reveals that his mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg, his BMI is 30.2 kg/m2.
His investigations reveal:
Fasting cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2) 200 mg/dL (<200)
Triglycerides 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69) 124 mg/dL (40-150)
HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) 42 mg/dL (>60)
Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) 111 mg/dL (54-108)
In addition to his waist measurement which one of this man's observations is a criterion for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Triglyceride concentration of 1.4 mmol/L (124 mg/dL)
Explanation:Understanding the Metabolic Syndrome
The metabolic syndrome is a group of features that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. The latest definition by the IDF includes central obesity (waist circumference of ≥94 cm for men and ≥80 cm for women) plus any two of the following: hypertriglyceridemia (>1.7 mmol/L), low HDL concentration (<1.03 mmol/L for males and <1.29 mmol/L for females), high blood pressure (≥130/85 mmHg or on treatment for hypertension), and fasting glucose (≥5.6 mmol/L or known to have type 2 diabetes). In our patient's case, the elevated fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L fulfills this diagnostic criterion. It is important to note that BMI is not a factor in the diagnostic criteria, as waist circumference is a more significant predictor of risk. Understanding the metabolic syndrome and its diagnostic criteria is crucial in identifying and managing individuals at risk for cardiovascular disease and diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and drained and requests some tests. She has a medical history of hypertension treated with valsartan, chronic atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure managed with digoxin and furosemide, and asthma for which she uses salbutamol. During the examination, her potassium level is measured and found to be low at 3.1 mmol/l. Which medication is the probable culprit for her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salbutamol
Explanation:Medications and their effects on potassium levels
Whilst both salbutamol and furosemide can lead to hypokalaemia, furosemide has a more significant impact on potassium levels at therapeutic doses. On the other hand, digoxin toxicity may cause vomiting and hypokalaemia, but it is not directly linked to low potassium levels. In contrast, spironolactone and valsartan are known to cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels to ensure appropriate monitoring and management of electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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