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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient in her mid-40s complains of numbness on the left side of her face. During cranial nerve examination, it is discovered that the left, lower third of her face has lost sensation, which is the area controlled by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. Through which structure does this nerve branch pass?
Your Answer: Foramen rotundum
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve travels through the foramen ovale. Other nerves that pass through different foramina include the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve through the foramen rotundum, the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves through the foramen magnum, and the meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve through the foramen spinosum.
Foramina of the Skull
The foramina of the skull are small openings in the bones that allow for the passage of nerves and blood vessels. These foramina are important for the proper functioning of the body and can be tested on exams. Some of the major foramina include the optic canal, superior and inferior orbital fissures, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and jugular foramen. Each of these foramina has specific vessels and nerves that pass through them, such as the ophthalmic artery and optic nerve in the optic canal, and the mandibular nerve in the foramen ovale. It is important to have a basic understanding of these foramina and their contents in order to understand the anatomy and physiology of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass through the foramen ovale?
Your Answer: Accessory meningeal artery
Correct Answer: Maxillary nerve
Explanation:OVALE is a mnemonic that stands for Otic ganglion, V3 (Mandibular nerve: 3rd branch of trigeminal), Accessory meningeal artery, Lesser petrosal nerve, and Emissary veins.
Foramina of the Base of the Skull
The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.
The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducens nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man who was previously diagnosed with prediabetes with an HbA1c of 46 mmol/mol 18 months earlier, has a repeat HbA1c that comes back at 50 mmol/mol despite lifestyle measures and an education programme.
You diagnose him with type 2 diabetes mellitus and discuss the next steps with him. You jointly agree to start an oral anti-hyperglycaemic agent to improve his diabetes control and suggest starting with metformin to increase insulin sensitivity.
How does metformin exert its effect?Your Answer: Binding to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas
Correct Answer: Activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
Explanation:Metformin activates the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) to improve insulin response and glucose uptake. GLP1 agonists enhance insulin release and reduce glucagon release by binding to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas. Sulfonylureas close ATP-sensitive potassium (K-ATP) channels on pancreatic beta cells, leading to depolarization. Thiazolidinediones bind to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma in adipocytes to promote adipogenesis and fatty acid uptake in peripheral fat. DPP-4 inhibitors block the action of DPP-4, which destroys incretin, a hormone that helps the body produce more insulin when needed and reduce glucose production by the liver when not needed.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A fifteen-year-old comes in with a swollen, red, and tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. After diagnosis and treatment for gout, he confesses to having experienced three previous episodes. What medical condition is linked to gout?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:Gout is commonly associated with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an inherited enzyme deficiency also known as ‘juvenile gout’. This condition is also characterized by self-injuring behavior, cognitive impairment, and nervous system impairment. However, juvenile idiopathic arthritis and osteoarthritis, which also cause joint pain and swelling, are not strongly linked to gout. On the other hand, pseudogout is associated with hyperparathyroidism.
Predisposing Factors for Gout
Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.
In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.
It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica and prescribed prednisolone. What is the most likely adverse effect he may experience?
Your Answer: Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: Hyperglycaemia
Explanation:Hyperglycemia is the correct answer. Most patients who take steroids experience an increase in appetite and weight gain, so anorexia or weight loss are not appropriate responses.
Steroid hormones can also affect the aldosterone receptor in the collecting duct, potentially leading to hyponatremia.
Although changes in vision are possible due to steroid-induced cataracts, they are much less common.
High levels of non-endogenous steroids have several risk factors, including hyperglycemia, high blood pressure, obesity (particularly around the waist), muscle wasting, poor wound healing, and mood swings or depression.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a recent onset of confusion. Her daughter reports that she had a fall at home last month and hit her head but did not seek medical attention as she appeared to be fine. A CT scan of her head reveals a hyper-dense crescent-shaped area in the left hemisphere. What is the likely diagnosis, and between which meningeal layers is the blood collecting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arachnoid mater
Explanation:The middle layer of the meninges is called the arachnoid mater. In an elderly patient with a history like the one described, a subacute subdural hematoma is likely the cause. This occurs when blood collects in the space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. The arachnoid mater is a very thin layer that is attached to the inside of the dura mater and separated from the innermost layer (pia mater) by the subarachnoid space. Acromion and bone are incorrect answers as they are not related to the meninges, and pia mater is incorrect because it is the innermost layer of the meninges that is attached to the brain and spinal cord.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is undergoing renal transplant surgery. Shortly after the donor kidney has been inserted, the transplanted organ begins to lose its color and becomes limp. Is hyperacute transplant rejection the likely cause of this? What is the underlying mechanism behind it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-existing recipient antibodies against donor HLA/ABO antigens
Explanation:Hyperacute transplant rejection is a rapid rejection of a donor organ that can occur within minutes to hours after transplantation. This rejection is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens in the donor organ. If the rejection is widespread, it can activate the coagulation cascade and lead to occlusive thrombosis of the donated organ. Donor organs are carefully matched to recipients to minimize the risk of rejection.
Mast cell degranulation is an allergic reaction that is mediated by IgE and results in the release of histamine.
Acute rejection occurs days to weeks after transplantation and is an inflammatory process against the donated organ. Immunosuppressives can be used to slow down this process.
Chronic rejection occurs months to years after transplantation and is characterized by atrophy of the organ and arteriosclerosis, rather than acute inflammatory processes.
Graft vs Host disease occurs when donor T-cells mount a cell-mediated response against host tissues. This can lead to cholestasis, jaundice, a widespread rash, and diarrhea. It typically occurs within the first year following transplantation.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes complains of feeling dizzy, sweaty and confused. Upon checking his glucose levels, it is found that he is experiencing hypoglycaemia which is resolved with a glucose drink. Which medication is the most probable cause of this hypoglycaemic episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide
Explanation:Mechanisms of Hypoglycaemia in Sulphonylurea Therapies
Sulphonylurea therapies, including gliclazide, glimepiride, and glibenclamide, are known to cause hypoglycaemia. This is due to their ability to increase pancreatic insulin secretion, which can lead to a drop in blood glucose levels. On the other hand, metformin and pioglitazone work differently to control blood glucose levels. Metformin reduces the amount of glucose produced by the liver, while pioglitazone improves the body’s sensitivity to insulin. Neither of these medications typically causes hypoglycaemia.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for hypoglycaemia when prescribing sulphonylurea therapies and to monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of low blood glucose levels. Additionally, patients should be educated on the importance of monitoring their blood glucose levels regularly and seeking medical attention if they experience any symptoms of hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man complains of facial pain and discomfort during meals. He has been experiencing halitosis and a dry mouth. Additionally, he has a lump under his left mandible. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stone impacted in Whartons duct
Explanation:The signs are indicative of sialolithiasis, which usually involves the formation of stones in the submandibular gland and can block Wharton’s duct. Stensen’s duct, on the other hand, is responsible for draining the parotid gland.
Diseases of the Submandibular Glands
The submandibular glands are responsible for producing mixed seromucinous secretions, which can range from more serous to more mucinous depending on parasympathetic activity. These glands secrete approximately 800-1000ml of saliva per day, with parasympathetic fibers derived from the chorda tympani nerves and the submandibular ganglion. However, several conditions can affect the submandibular glands.
One such condition is sialolithiasis, which occurs when salivary gland calculi form in the submandibular gland. These stones are usually composed of calcium phosphate or calcium carbonate and can cause colicky pain and postprandial swelling of the gland. Sialography is used to investigate the site of obstruction and associated stones, with impacted stones in the distal aspect of Wharton’s duct potentially removed orally. However, other stones and chronic inflammation may require gland excision.
Sialadenitis is another condition that can affect the submandibular glands, usually as a result of Staphylococcus aureus infection. This can cause pus to leak from the duct and erythema to be noted. A submandibular abscess may develop, which is a serious complication as it can spread through other deep fascial spaces and occlude the airway.
Finally, submandibular tumors can also affect these glands, with only 8% of salivary gland tumors affecting the submandibular gland. Of these, 50% are malignant, usually adenoid cystic carcinoma. Diagnosis usually involves fine needle aspiration cytology, with imaging using CT and MRI. Due to the high prevalence of malignancy, all masses of the submandibular glands should generally be excised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of fatigue and constipation. Upon examination, no significant findings were observed except for the following blood results:
- Hb: 125 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 162 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 142 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 6.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 105 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP: 2 mg/L (<5)
- TSH: 105.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 6.8 pmol/L (9.0-18)
The appropriate medication was prescribed to treat the underlying condition. What is the receptor targeted by this drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuclear
Explanation:Levothyroxine functions by binding to nuclear receptors, while drugs such as lidocaine primarily act on ion channels, specifically voltage-gated sodium channels. G-protein coupled receptors are more intricate, with drugs binding to the receptor causing a series of events within the G-protein subunits, ultimately leading to the production of secondary messengers like cyclic AMP or protein phosphorylation cascades. Adrenoreceptors are an example of G-protein coupled receptors.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been experiencing mechanical back pain for a few years. Upon waking up one morning, he experiences a sudden onset of pain in his back that travels down his left leg. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolapse of nucleus pulposus
Explanation:The cause of the symptoms is likely to be intervertebral disk prolapse, which occurs when the nucleus pulposus herniates.
Intervertebral Discs
Intervertebral discs are composed of two main parts: the outer annulus fibrosus and the inner nucleus pulposus. The annulus fibrosus is made up of multiple layers of fibrocartilage, while the nucleus pulposus contains loose fibers suspended in a mucoprotein gel with a jelly-like consistency. The nucleus of the disc acts as a shock absorber, and pressure on the disc can cause the posterior protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. This is most commonly seen in the lumbrosacral and lower cervical areas.
The discs are separated by hyaline cartilage, and there is one disc between each pair of vertebrae, except for C1/2 and the sacrococcygeal vertebrae. Understanding the structure and function of intervertebral discs is important in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal conditions. By providing support and cushioning to the spine, these discs play a crucial role in maintaining spinal health and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man presents to the emergency department with symptoms of alcohol abuse. Upon further inquiry, he acknowledges having a persistent issue with excessive drinking. He reports no difficulties in maintaining a well-rounded diet.
Which vitamin should be emphasized as the most crucial for him to supplement regularly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Alcoholics are at risk of developing a thiamine deficiency, which can lead to serious health issues such as Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Therefore, it is recommended that they supplement with thiamine to prevent this deficiency. Vitamin A supplementation is not necessary for individuals with alcohol issues, and there are few medical indications for vitamin A supplementation in general. While alcoholics may be at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency, it is typically possible to obtain enough of this vitamin from the diet unless they follow a vegan diet. Similarly, vitamin B3 deficiency is rare in alcoholics unless they also become malnourished.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of neck discomfort. During the neurological examination, the doctor observes numbness in the thumb. Which dermatome is associated with this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C6
Explanation:The index finger and thumb are the primary locations of the C6 dermatome.
Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.
Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of vertigo that has been going on for three days. He also reports experiencing left-sided ear pain and a change in his sense of taste, as well as constant ringing in his left ear. He took paracetamol on his own, but the vertigo persisted, so he decided to seek medical attention.
During the examination, the doctor observes that the man has a drooping left face with involvement of the forehead. Upon otoscopic examination, vesicles are seen in the external auditory canal of the left ear. A neurological examination is performed, which is normal except for the left facial paralysis.
What is the appropriate treatment for this man's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and corticosteroids
Explanation:Ramsay Hunt syndrome is treated with a combination of oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. This condition is caused by the varicella zoster virus, as evidenced by the presence of vesicles on the left ear and involvement of the seventh and eighth cranial nerves. Symptoms include facial paralysis and hearing impairments. Treatment typically involves a seven to ten day course of oral acyclovir and a five day course of corticosteroids, such as prednisolone.
It is important to note that oseltamivir (tamiflu) is an antiviral used for influenzae, while chloroquine is typically used for malaria. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and is not effective in treating viral infections. While corticosteroids can provide relief from inflammation, they are not the primary treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome when used alone.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As a doctor on the respiratory ward, you are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old male patient who has contracted community-acquired pneumonia. The consultant has asked you to recommend an appropriate antibiotic for the treatment of this patient. Knowing that he has an allergy to penicillin, you decide to prescribe clarithromycin.
What is the mode of action of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds to 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting translocation
Explanation:Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. Clarithromycin and erythromycin are examples of macrolide antibiotics used to treat respiratory and skin infections. Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, while penicillins prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking and fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase. Penicillins and fluoroquinolones are bactericidal, while tetracyclines and macrolides are bacteriostatic. Gentamicin is used to treat various bacterial infections but has side effects of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin can treat almost any bacterial infection but has a side effect of tendon damage. No antibiotic binds to the 80S subunit.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP with blood in her urine for the past 2 days. Her mother reports that this is the first time this has happened to the child, and that the child did not complain of any pain during micturition. The child's medical history is significant for having an episode of fever and pharyngitis four weeks ago, which was associated with a swollen, 'strawberry' tongue and an erythematous sandpapery rash. She was treated with a 10-day course of amoxicillin, which has been successfully completed. The child has recovered entirely from that episode, and did not have any residual symptoms. There is no other known medical conditions or known drug allergies.
On examination, the GP notes mild periorbital swelling and pedal oedema. An abdominal examination is performed and is unremarkable. Examination of the oral cavity is also unremarkable, and no rashes are noted. The child's blood pressure is 140/95 (normal range: SBP 97-115 mmHg, DBP: 57-76 mmHg) and her temperature is 36.5ºC.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 6-year-old girl who presents with blood in her urine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a probable cause of the child’s recent infection, given the symptoms of fever, pharyngitis, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a sandpapery rash. This infection is caused by group A Streptococcus, which can lead to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) as a potential complication. PSGN can present as nephritic syndrome, which is evident in the child’s current symptoms of haematuria, hypertension, and oedema. PSGN typically occurs 10-30 days after the acute infection due to molecular mimicry.
Another possible cause of nephritic syndrome is IgA nephropathy, which is triggered by an acute infection. However, it usually occurs during or immediately after the acute infection, is more common in males, and peaks in the second to third decade of life.
While urinary tract infection can cause haematuria, the child’s lack of dysuria and fever makes it unlikely. Additionally, urinary tract infections do not typically cause hypertension or oedema.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) can manifest 1-3 weeks after an upper respiratory tract infection. However, the child does not exhibit other HSP symptoms such as abdominal pain or arthralgia, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps muscle arise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle
Explanation:The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin of the long head, while the lateral and medial heads are connected to the back of the humerus, specifically between the teres minor insertion and the olecranon fossa.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male visits the HIV clinic for regular blood tests to monitor his condition. Which type of cells are utilized to assess the advancement of HIV in affected individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4 T cells
Explanation:The progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is measured using CD4 count. If the CD4 count is below 200cells/mm3, it indicates a diagnosis of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Although the number of NK cells decreases in HIV, it is not used to determine disease progression. HIV often activates polyclonal B cells. The reticulocyte count may decrease in HIV, but it is not linked to disease progression.
Immunological Changes in Progressive HIV
In progressive HIV, there are several immunological changes that occur. These changes include a reduction in CD4 count, an increase in B2-microglobulin, a decrease in IL-2 production, polyclonal B-cell activation, a decrease in NK cell function, and reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses. These changes can lead to a weakened immune system and an increased susceptibility to infections. It is important for individuals with HIV to receive proper medical care and treatment to manage these immunological changes and maintain their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. During routine daily blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Hb 105 g/L
WCC 14.2 * 109/l
CRP 98 mg/l
Na+ 136 mmol/l
K+ 6.1 mmol/l
Glucose 12.8 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l
eGFR 56 mL/min/1.73m2 (>90 mL/min/1.73m2)
The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. He is currently taking paracetamol, amlodipine, furosemide, and spironolactone.
What is the most appropriate modification to his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop spironolactone
Explanation:To address the hyperkalaemia in this patient, the most appropriate step would be to stop the potassium-sparing diuretic, spironolactone. Starting metformin or erythropoietin, or increasing furosemide, would not be the most appropriate actions at this time.
Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old falls at home and fractures his femoral neck, remaining immobile and unfound for three days without access to food. What lipid serves as a soluble metabolic fuel for skeletal and cardiac muscle, the kidney, and brain during periods of fasting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketone bodies
Explanation:The Six Major Classes of Lipids and Their Functions
There are six major classes of lipids, each with their own unique functions in the body. Fatty acids are a type of lipid that can be used as a source of energy or stored in adipose tissue. Triacylglycerols serve as a storage depot and transport form for fatty acids. Ketone bodies are synthesized from fatty acids and amino acids in the liver during periods of starvation and in diabetic ketoacidosis, and are used as a fuel source by selected tissues. Patients with excess ketones may have a fruity smelling breath.
Cholesterol is a component of the plasma membrane and is used to synthesize bile acids, steroids, and vitamin D. Phospholipids are a major component of cell membranes and play a role in cell signaling. Sphingolipids are also part of the structure of membranes and act as surface antigens.
Overall, lipids play important roles in energy storage, membrane structure, and signaling in the body. the functions of each class of lipid can help us better understand the complex processes that occur within our bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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During a parent-teacher conference, a student tells their teacher that 'all the older students are mean and unhelpful but the younger students are kind and friendly'. A few hours later they tell the complete opposite to one of the older students.
This is an example of which of the following ego defence mechanisms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Splitting is a belief that individuals are either completely good or completely bad at different times, which stems from an inability to tolerate ambiguity. This behavior is frequently observed in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Other related behaviors include idealization, which involves expressing overly positive thoughts about oneself and others while disregarding negative thoughts, identification, which is the unconscious adoption of another person’s characteristics, qualities, or traits, and projection, which involves attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an external source (as opposed to displacement).
Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. He is health-conscious and likes to maintain his fitness.
Upon examination, his blood work revealed a deficiency in vitamin D, for which he was prescribed calcitriol. He was advised to return for a follow-up appointment in two weeks to monitor his blood results.
During his follow-up appointment, his blood work showed normal results, except for an electrolyte abnormality.
What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality seen in his blood results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High phosphate
Explanation:The action of calcitriol on the body results in an increase in the reabsorption of phosphate by the kidneys, leading to an increase in plasma phosphate levels. Additionally, calcitriol promotes osteoclast activity, which further contributes to an increase in plasma calcium levels through bone resorption. It should be noted that calcitriol does not have any significant effect on potassium and magnesium levels. On the other hand, the hormone PTH has the opposite effect on plasma phosphate levels, causing a decrease in its concentration.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:The 30S ribosomal unit is the target of aminoglycosides, which hinder protein synthesis.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not secreted by the islets of Langerhans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum release secretin.
Hormones Released from the Islets of Langerhans
The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are responsible for the production and secretion of several hormones that play a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. The beta cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for producing insulin, which accounts for 70% of the total secretions. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and tissues throughout the body.
The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans produce glucagon, which has the opposite effect of insulin. Glucagon raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. The delta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce somatostatin, which helps to regulate the release of insulin and glucagon.
Finally, the F cells in the islets of Langerhans produce pancreatic polypeptide, which plays a role in regulating pancreatic exocrine function and appetite. Together, these hormones work to maintain a delicate balance of blood glucose levels in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man acquires an infection in the pulp of his pinky finger. What is the closest location to which this infection can spread?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal to the flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The tendon sheath that runs from the little finger to the proximal part of the carpal tunnel poses a considerable risk of facilitating the spread of infections towards the proximal direction.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are on a post-take ward round with your consultant and review a 50-year-old man who was admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain, confusion and pyrexia. He has a history of alcoholic cirrhosis and known asymptomatic ascites. An ascitic tap was performed overnight which revealed a neutrophil count of 375/mm³ and was sent for urgent microscopy & culture.
What is the most probable organism to be cultured from the ascitic tap?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: E. coli
Explanation:The most frequently isolated organism in ascitic fluid culture in cases of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is E. coli. While Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella, and Streptococcus can also cause spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, they are not as commonly found as E. coli.
Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which reveals a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.
Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for patients with ascites who have had an episode of SBP or have fluid protein levels below 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.
Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition. Proper management can help improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are shadowing a cardiologist during a clinic session and the first patient is an 80-year-old man who has come for his annual check-up. He reports experiencing swollen ankles, increased shortness of breath, and difficulty sleeping flat. He has a history of heart failure but has been stable for the past 10 years. He believes that his condition has worsened since starting a new medication, but he cannot recall the name of the drug. Unfortunately, the electronic medical records are down, and you cannot access his medication history. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydralazine
Explanation:Hydralazine is unique among these drugs as it has been known to cause fluid retention by elevating the plasma concentration of renin. Conversely, the other drugs listed are recognized for their ability to reduce fluid overload and promote fluid elimination.
Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematosus and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.
Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male is having a scrotal orchidectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons manipulate the spermatic cord. What is the origin of the outermost layer of this structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The external oblique aponeurosis provides the outermost layer of the spermatic cord, which is acquired during its passage through the superficial inguinal ring.
Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes
The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.
The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old weightlifter comes to your clinic with a painful shoulder. He has been experiencing a dull, intermittent ache in the posterior aspect of his shoulder for the past 10 days, which is triggered by his usual weightlifting exercises. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and the pain is induced by abducting the arm against resistance. Quadrangular space syndrome is one of your differentials for this patient. What are the questions you should ask based on the nerve's functions that pass through the quadrangular space?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The nerve that passes through the quadrangular space is the axillary nerve. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids and levator scapulae muscles, while the musculocutaneous nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm and provides sensory innervation to the lateral surface of the forearm. The radial nerve passes through the triangular interval in the arm and supplies the posterior compartment of the arm. The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch and supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Quadrangular space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery as they pass through the quadrangular space, and can cause shoulder pain and deltoid muscle wasting.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is referred to haematology via the 2-week wait pathway due to worsening thoracic back pain that started 3 weeks ago. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, the pain is exacerbated by movement and occurs even at rest and during bedtime. Her blood test results show a Hb level of 97 g/L (female normal range: 115-160 g/L), platelets of 200 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC count of 4.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). Additionally, her calcium level is 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L), phosphate level is 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/L), magnesium level is 0.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0 mmol/L), TSH level is 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5 mU/L), and free thyroxine (T4) level is 16 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18 pmol/L). Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the underlying pathophysiology that causes hypercalcemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines
Explanation:Increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines released by myeloma cells is the primary cause of hypercalcaemia in multiple myeloma, which typically affects individuals aged 60-70 years and presents with bone pain or pathological fractures from osteolytic lesions. Hypercalcaemia in kidney failure is associated with hyperphosphataemia and does not cause bone pain. Elevated calcitriol levels are linked to granulomatous disorders like sarcoidosis and tuberculosis, which do not typically cause bone pain. Rebound hypercalcaemia occurs after rhabdomyolysis, which usually results from a fall and long lie. Although primary hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalcaemia and can lead to bone pain or pathological fractures, it is not associated with anaemia.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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