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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
      What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Diet high in citrus fruits

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer

      Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      78.5
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to Surgical Outpatients, reporting abdominal pain after eating. He has a medical history of a heart attack and three transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). The doctor diagnoses him with chronic mesenteric ischaemia. What section of the intestine is typically affected?

      Your Answer: Ileocaecal segment

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesenteric Ischaemia: Common Sites of Affection

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be likened to angina of the intestine. It is typically seen in patients who have arteriopathy or atrial fibrillation, which predisposes them to arterial embolism. When these patients eat, the increased vascular demand of the bowel cannot be met, leading to ischaemia and abdominal pain. The most common site of mesenteric ischaemia is at the splenic flexure, which is the watershed between the superior and inferior mesenteric arterial supplies.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia occurs when a blood clot blocks the blood supply to a section of the bowel, causing acute ischaemia and severe abdominal pain. While the sigmoid colon may be affected in mesenteric ischaemia, it is not the most common site. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The hepatic flexure, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, and the ileocaecal segment, which is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, are not the most common sites of mesenteric ischaemia. The jejunum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, may also be affected, but it is not the most common site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      41.9
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old mechanic visits his GP complaining of intermittent jaundice that has been occurring for the past 5 months. He has been feeling fatigued lately and occasionally experiences mild itching on his arms. He denies any pain or weight loss. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis, which was diagnosed 13 years ago and has been managed with mesalazine, anti-diarrhoeals, and steroids. The GP orders liver function tests, which reveal the following results:
      total bilirubin 38 mmol/l
      aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 32 iu/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 iu/l
      alkaline phosphatase 310 u/l.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cholestatic Jaundice in a Patient with UC

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that should be considered in a patient with UC who presents with a raised alkaline phosphatase level. This is because approximately two-thirds of patients with PSC also have coexisting UC, and between 3% and 8% of UC sufferers will develop PSC. Chronic cholecystitis would present with pain, which is not present in this patient, making PSC the more likely diagnosis. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain and obstructive liver function tests, which are not present in this case. Primary biliary cholangitis is more likely to affect women aged 30-60, and given the patient’s history of UC, PSC is more likely. Pancreatic carcinoma would be associated with weight loss and obstructive liver function tests. Therefore, in a patient with UC presenting with cholestatic jaundice, PSC should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      221
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.

      Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      111.7
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
      On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      150
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  • Question 6 - A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with four months of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid food. He also complains of regurgitation of undigested food and retrosternal chest pain when this happens. He no longer looks forward to his meals and thinks he may be starting to lose weight. He has no other medical problems. He has never smoked or drank alcohol and denies drug use. He presented two months ago with similar symptoms and a different GP treated the patient with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI), which his symptoms did not respond to.
      Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) does not show any ischaemic changes.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 125/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Acute Coronary Syndrome, Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm, Oesophageal Carcinoma, and Pill-Induced Oesophagitis

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various conditions. Among the possible diagnoses, achalasia is the most suitable response for a patient who presents with dysphagia to both solids and liquids with regurgitation of food. Achalasia is a rare motility disorder that affects the oesophagus, resulting in the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax. The patient may also have a normal ECG and no atherosclerotic risk factors, ruling out acute coronary syndrome. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, which causes intermittent and poorly coordinated contractions of the distal oesophagus, is less likely as the patient has continuous symptoms. Oesophageal carcinoma, which typically presents with progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids, is also unlikely as the patient lacks risk factors for the disease. Pill-induced oesophagitis, on the other hand, should be suspected in patients with heartburn or dysphagia and a history of ingestion of medications known to cause oesophageal injury. In summary, the differential diagnosis for dysphagia includes achalasia, acute coronary syndrome, diffuse oesophageal spasm, oesophageal carcinoma, and pill-induced oesophagitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      55.8
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  • Question 7 - A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall....

    Correct

    • A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall. Her son indicates that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last 2 months. She has had diarrhoea for the last 3 weeks, thought to be related to an outbreak of norovirus at her nursing home, and has been vomiting occasionally. On examination you notice a scaly red rash on her neck and hands.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pellagra

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Medical Conditions

      Pellagra: A Serious Condition Caused by Niacin Deficiency

      Pellagra is a severe medical condition that can lead to death if left untreated. It is characterized by three classical features, including diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. The condition is caused by a deficiency of niacin, which is required for all cellular processes in the body. Pellagra can also develop due to a deficiency of tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin. Treatment for pellagra involves vitamin replacement with nicotinamide.

      Scurvy: Bleeding Gums and Muscle Pains

      Scurvy is a medical condition that can cause red dots on the skin, but it typically presents with bleeding gums and muscle pains. The condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in the body. Treatment for scurvy involves vitamin C replacement.

      Post-Infective Lactose Intolerance: Bloating and Abdominal Discomfort

      Post-infective lactose intolerance is a medical condition that typically presents after gastrointestinal infections. It can cause bloating, belching, and abdominal discomfort, as well as loose stool. However, the history of skin changes and forgetfulness would point more towards pellagra.

      Depression: Not Related to Skin Changes or Diarrhoea/Vomiting

      Depression is a medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms, including low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue. However, it is not related to skin changes or diarrhoea/vomiting.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Painful Swollen Joints and Red ‘Butterfly’ Rash

      SLE is a medical condition that typically presents with painful swollen joints and a red ‘butterfly’ rash over the face. Other common symptoms include fever, mouth ulcers, and fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.5
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after her friends told...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after her friends told her that her skin and eyes have become yellow. She says that she has noticed this too, but over the past month it has become worse. Her clothes have become loose lately. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dyslipidaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
      She has a 30-pack-year smoking history and consumes approximately 30 units of alcohol per week. In the past, the patient has had repeated admissions to the hospital for episodes of pancreatitis and she mentions that the surgeon explained to her that her pancreas has become scarred from these repeated episodes and is likely to cause her ongoing abdominal pain.
      Which of the following is a risk factor for this patient’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      Pancreatic cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by various risk factors. One of the most common risk factors is chronic pancreatitis, which is often caused by excessive alcohol intake. Other risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, and obesity.

      In the case of a patient with weight loss and painless jaundice, pancreatic cancer is the most likely diagnosis. This is supported by the patient’s history of repeated acute pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse, which can lead to chronic pancreatitis and increase the risk of developing pancreatic cancer.

      COPD, on the other hand, is caused by smoking but is not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Obesity is also a risk factor for pancreatic cancer, as it increases the risk of developing diabetes mellitus, which in turn increases the risk of pancreatic cancer. Hypertension, however, is not a recognised risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

      It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent the development of pancreatic cancer. Quitting smoking, reducing alcohol intake, maintaining a healthy weight, and managing diabetes mellitus and hypertension can all help to reduce the risk of developing this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - You have a geriatric patient who presents with massive haematemesis. He is agitated...

    Incorrect

    • You have a geriatric patient who presents with massive haematemesis. He is agitated with a pulse of 110 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. He is a known alcoholic.
      What is the best step in the management for this elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Insertion of Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding: Endoscopy, Laparotomy, Sengstaken-Blakemore Tube, and IV Antibiotics

      In cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, prompt and appropriate management is crucial. For patients with severe haematemesis and haemodynamic instability, immediate resuscitation and endoscopy are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Crossmatching blood for potential transfusion is also necessary. Urgent endoscopy within 24 hours of admission is advised for patients with smaller haematemesis who are haemodynamically stable.

      Laparotomy is not necessary unless the bleeding is life-threatening and cannot be contained despite resuscitation or transfusion, medical or endoscopic therapy fails, or the patient has a high Rockall score or re-bleeding. The insertion of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be considered for haematemesis from oesophageal varices, but endoscopy remains the primary diagnostic and therapeutic tool.

      Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended for patients with suspected or confirmed variceal bleeding at endoscopy. However, arranging for a psychiatric consult is not appropriate in the acute phase of management, as the patient requires immediate treatment and resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      89.6
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman presents with acute abdominal pain and a temperature of 38.5...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with acute abdominal pain and a temperature of 38.5 °C, pulse 130 bpm and blood pressure 100/70 mmHg. She does not allow any attending doctor to touch her abdomen, as she is in severe pain.
      Past records reveal that she was suffering from ulcerative colitis, for which she was on oral mesalazine and azathioprine. She has recently had diarrhoea for which she has taken loperamide.
      What is the next appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Blood azathioprine levels

      Correct Answer: Erect X-ray of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Suspected Toxic Megacolon in a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis

      When a patient with ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with fever and severe abdominal pain after taking anti-diarrhoeal agents, toxic megacolon should be considered as a potential complication. This rare but life-threatening condition can be precipitated by electrolyte disturbances, antimotility agents, opiates, barium enema studies, and colonoscopies during acute UC episodes. To diagnose toxic megacolon, a straight X-ray of the abdomen is necessary to show colonic dilation with a diameter greater than 6 cm and loss of haustrations, which is typically found in the transverse colon. Perforation and peritonitis are also possible complications, which can be detected by an erect chest X-ray. Regular clinical examination is crucial since patients with toxic megacolon may not exhibit signs of peritonitis after perforation due to steroid use. While blood tests for serum electrolytes, C-reactive protein (CRP), and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) may be useful in diagnosing UC, they are not specific to toxic megacolon. Azathioprine toxicity is also unlikely in this case, as it typically presents with bone marrow suppression and is only a concern when used concurrently with allopurinol or in patients lacking TPMT activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?

      Your Answer: PABA test

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.

      Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
      submucosal mass within the
      stomach
      Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions

      Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man, who had recently undergone treatment for an inflamed appendix, presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man, who had recently undergone treatment for an inflamed appendix, presented with fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile infection and started on oral vancomycin. However, after 3 days, his diarrhoea continues and his total white cell count (WCC) is 22.7 (4–11 × 109/l). He remembers having a similar illness 2 years ago, after gallbladder surgery which seemed to come back subsequently.
      Which of the following treatment options may be tried in his case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal transplant

      Explanation:

      Faecal Transplant: A New Treatment Option for Severe and Recurrent C. difficile Infection

      Severe and treatment-resistant C. difficile infection can be a challenging condition to manage. In cases where intravenous metronidazole is not an option, faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) has emerged as a promising treatment option. FMT involves transferring bacterial flora from a healthy donor to the patient’s gut, which can effectively cure the current infection and prevent recurrence.

      A randomized study published in the New England Journal of Medicine reported a 94% cure rate of pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. difficile with FMT, compared to just 31% with vancomycin. While FMT is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in recurrent cases that are resistant to antibiotic therapy, it is still a relatively new treatment option that requires further validation.

      Other treatment options, such as IV clindamycin and intravenous ciprofloxacin, are not suitable for this condition. Oral metronidazole is a second-line treatment for mild or moderate cases, but it is unlikely to be effective in severe cases that are resistant to oral vancomycin. Total colectomy may be necessary in cases of colonic perforation or toxic megacolon with systemic symptoms, but it is not a good choice for this patient.

      In conclusion, FMT is a promising new treatment option for severe and recurrent C. difficile infection that is resistant to antibiotic therapy. Further research is needed to fully understand its effectiveness and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is potentiated by histamine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gastric Acid Secretion: Factors that Stimulate and Inhibit its Production

      Gastric acid, also known as stomach acid, is a vital component in the process of digesting food. Composed of hydrochloric acid, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, it is secreted in the stomach and plays a crucial role in breaking down ingested food contents. In this article, we will explore the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion.

      Stimulation of Gastric Acid Secretion

      There are three classic phases of gastric acid secretion. The cephalic (preparatory) phase is triggered by the sight, smell, thought, and taste of food acting via the vagus nerve. This results in the production of gastric acid before food actually enters the stomach. The gastric phase is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach, particularly protein-rich food, caused by stimulation of G cells which release gastrin. This is the most important phase. The intestinal phase is stimulated by luminal distension plus the presence of amino acids and food in the duodenum.

      Potentiation and Inhibition of Gastric Acid Secretion

      Histamine potentiates gastric acid secretion, while gastrin inhibits it. Somatostatin, secretin, and cholecystokinin also inhibit gastric acid production.

      Importance of Gastric Acid Secretion

      Gastric acid secretion reduces the risk of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, a condition characterized by excess gastric acid production that can lead to multiple severe gastric ulcers, requiring high-dose antacid treatment. Understanding the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
    HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
      HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
      Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:

      Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.

      Susceptible to Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.

      Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.

      Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.

      Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating episodes, and intermittent shortness of breath. During physical examination, a murmur is detected in the pulmonary valve. Urine testing reveals a high level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid content. What substance is likely responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Neuroendocrine Tumors and Hormones: Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Related Hormones

      Carcinoid syndrome is a condition caused by a neuroendocrine tumor, typically found in the gastrointestinal tract, that releases serotonin. Symptoms include flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm, and in some cases, carcinoid heart disease. Diagnosis is made by finding high levels of urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone, is used to treat VIPomas and carcinoid tumors. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) can cause copious diarrhea but does not cause valvular heart disease. Nitric oxide does not play a role in carcinoid syndrome, while ghrelin regulates hunger and is associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. Understanding these hormones can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroendocrine tumors.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
      What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - You are asked to see a 78-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 78-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is complaining of abdominal pain.
      Which of the following is not an indication for an abdominal X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigation of suspected gallstones

      Explanation:

      When to Use Abdominal X-Ray: Indications and Limitations

      Abdominal X-ray is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal tract. However, its usefulness is limited in certain situations, and other imaging modalities may be more appropriate. Here are some indications for performing an abdominal X-ray:

      1. Clinical suspicion of obstruction: Dilated loops of bowel may be seen on X-ray in the context of bowel obstruction.

      2. Suspected foreign body: A plain abdominal X-ray can help identify foreign bodies in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in children.

      3. Abdominal foreign body: Many foreign objects may be visualized on X-ray, but a thorough history should be obtained to determine the nature of the object and potential complications.

      4. Constipation: Depending on the clinical picture, an abdominal X-ray may reveal impaction or a cause for the patient’s constipation.

      However, an abdominal X-ray is not indicated in the investigation of suspected gallstones, as many stones are radiolucent, and other imaging modalities such as ultrasound, MRCP, and ERCP are more sensitive. Therefore, the decision to use an abdominal X-ray should be based on the specific clinical scenario and the limitations of the test.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a witnessed fall. He struck his head on the pavement. He is known to the nursing staff, having been brought in on numerous occasions for the management of alcohol intoxication. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, but he is minimally responsive to verbal commands and has slurred speech. He has an elevated serum alcohol level. A computed tomography (CT) brain is reported as normal. He is admitted for overnight observation, hydrated with intravenous dextrose and given acetaminophen for pain relief.
      By day 2 of his admission, he remains confused and inappropriate. He appears at times indifferent and does not pay attention to questioning. When he does respond, his answers are tangential and he does not appear to know his own name. On morning ward rounds, you notice that he has a bilateral rectus palsy which was not present at the time of admission. A repeat CT of his brain is normal.
      To which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is this presentation is most likely due?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of B Vitamins in Neurological Health

      B vitamins play a crucial role in neurological health, and deficiencies can lead to a range of symptoms and conditions. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, and gait ataxia, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 and is commonly seen in chronic alcohol users and those with anorexia nervosa or hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B3 deficiency can cause neurologic symptoms, photosensitivity dermatitis, and GI upset, while vitamin B2 deficiency can lead to normochromic, normocytic anemia, pharyngitis, cheilitis, glossitis, and stomatitis. Vitamin B5 deficiency is rare but can cause paraesthesiae of the extremities and GI upset. Vitamin B12 deficiency has multi-system effects, including neurologic syndromes, haematologic syndrome, and skeletal changes. It is crucial to address any potential deficiencies in B vitamins to prevent these neurological complications.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.

      The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.

      The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with mild jaundice following a flu-like illness. During a review by a gastroenterologist, he has been told that a diagnosis of Gilbert’s syndrome is probable.
      Which of the following test results most suggests this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome: Absence of Bilirubin in Urine and Other Characteristics

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects 5-10% of the population in Western Europe. It is characterized by intermittent raised unconjugated bilirubin levels due to a defective enzyme involved in bilirubin conjugation. Despite this, patients with Gilbert’s syndrome have normal liver function, no evidence of liver disease, and no haemolysis. Attacks are usually triggered by various insults to the body.

      One notable characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome is the absence of bilirubin in the urine. This is because unconjugated bilirubin is non-water-soluble and cannot be excreted in the urine. In unaffected individuals, conjugated bilirubin is released into the bile and excreted in the faeces or reabsorbed in the circulation and excreted in the urine as urobilinogen.

      Other characteristics that are not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome include decreased serum haptoglobin concentration, elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity, and increased reticulocyte count. Haptoglobin is an acute phase protein that is decreased in haemolysis, which is not associated with Gilbert’s syndrome. AST activity is associated with normal liver function, which is also a characteristic of Gilbert’s syndrome. A raised reticulocyte count is observed in haemolytic anaemia, which is not present in Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Increased urinary urobilinogen excretion is also not expected in Gilbert’s syndrome as it is associated with haemolytic anaemia. Understanding the characteristics of Gilbert’s syndrome can aid in its diagnosis and management, which typically does not require treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain, fever, and jaundice requiring recurrent hospital admissions. During her last admission, she underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has a history of ulcerative colitis for the past 15 years.

      Investigations revealed elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (100 U/L), serum alkaline phosphatase (383 U/L), and serum total bilirubin (45 μmol/L). However, her serum IgG, IgA, and IgM levels were normal, and serology for hepatitis B and C was negative. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed dilated intrahepatic ducts and a common bile duct of 6 mm.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis, PSC, and Other Related Conditions

      Cholangitis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of biliary pain, fever, and jaundice. On the other hand, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a progressive disease that affects the bile ducts, either intrahepatic or extrahepatic, or both. The cause of PSC is unknown, but it is characterized by a disproportionate elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. Patients with PSC are prone to repeated episodes of acute cholangitis, which require hospitalization. Up to 90% of patients with PSC have underlying inflammatory bowel disease, usually ulcerative colitis. Imaging studies, such as MRCP, typically show multifocal strictures in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. The later course of PSC is characterized by secondary biliary cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and liver failure. Patients with PSC are also at higher risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a marked elevation in transaminitis, the presence of autoantibodies, and elevated serum IgG. Choledocholithiasis, another related condition, is usually diagnosed by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen, which shows a dilated common bile duct (larger than 6 mm) and stones in the bile duct. Meanwhile, primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is unlikely to cause recurrent episodes of cholangitis. Unlike PSC, PBC does not affect extrahepatic bile ducts. Finally, viral hepatitis is unlikely in the absence of positive serology. these conditions and their characteristics is crucial in providing proper diagnosis and treatment to patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod pierced his abdomen. He underwent emergency surgery and survived. After a year, he complains of abdominal pain and frequent stools, and is diagnosed with anemia. His blood tests show a vitamin B12 level of 41 (160–900 pmol/l) and serum folate of 35 ug/l (4.20 - 18.70 ug/l). He denies any dietary intolerance or rectal bleeding. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Culture of small intestinal fluid

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

      Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, steatorrhoea, and megaloblastic anaemia. It is often seen in patients who have had abdominal surgery and is characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the small intestine. The gold standard for diagnosis of SIBO is culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, with a duodenal aspirate showing >105 CFU/ml considered a sensitive marker for SIBO.

      SIBO is thought to develop as a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, with decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility being important. Any structural defect can have an effect on gut motility, and intestinal surgery predisposes patients to diverticular formation or stricture formation, both of which will lead to an increased risk of SIBO.

      Bacterial overgrowth responds to antibiotic therapy, with many antibiotics being effective in SIBO, including metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, and rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.

      Other diagnostic tests for SIBO include hydrogen breath tests, which can give quick results but may be confounded by factors such as intestinal transit time, diet, smoking, and methane-producing bacteria. Serum folate levels and blood IgA-tTG levels are not diagnostic of SIBO, but intestinal biopsy specimens (unwashed) may be sent for culture.

      In conclusion, SIBO is a common cause of malabsorption in the Western world, particularly in conditions where there is intestinal stasis or formation of a blind loop. Diagnosis is made through culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, and treatment involves antibiotic therapy.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amounts of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Their Differentiation

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate management. The following are some common causes of upper GI bleeding and their distinguishing features.

      Bleeding Oesophageal Varices
      Portal hypertension due to chronic liver failure can lead to oesophageal varices, which can rupture and cause severe bleeding, manifested as haematemesis. Immediate management includes resuscitation, proton pump inhibitors, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding.

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      A Mallory-Weiss tear causes upper GI bleeding due to a linear mucosal tear at the oesophagogastric junction, secondary to a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure. It occurs in patients after severe retching and vomiting or coughing.

      Peptic Ulcer
      Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, with the majority of ulcers in the duodenum. However, sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. It is important to ask about a history of indigestion or peptic ulcers. Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers.

      Gastric Ulcer
      Sudden-onset haematemesis of a large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices.

      Oesophagitis
      Oesophagitis may be very painful but is unlikely to lead to a significant amount of haematemesis.

      Understanding the Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden upper abdominal pain and loss of appetite....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden upper abdominal pain and loss of appetite. Upon examination, she has enlarged liver, abdominal distension, and swelling in both legs. Notably, there are visible veins on her back that flow upwards. What is the most probable underlying factor for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome: A Rare Disorder with Obstruction of Hepatic Venous Outflow

      Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a rare disorder that involves obstruction or narrowing of the hepatic veins, which can lead to hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. This condition is caused by venous thrombosis that forms anywhere from the hepatic venules up to the entrance of the inferior vena cava (IVC) at the right atrium. BCS typically presents with abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly, and obstruction of the IVC can cause prominence of venous collaterals in the back with upward direction flow and bipedal oedema.

      Recognized risk factors for BCS include prothrombotic conditions, myeloproliferative conditions, hormonal treatment, pregnancy and puerperium, infections, malignancy, trauma, and autoimmune/rheumatological conditions such as sarcoidosis. Alcoholism, hyperthyroidism, hyperlipidaemia, and acute infection are not typically associated with BCS.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of BCS and to identify any underlying risk factors in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and metabolic bone disease are detected during investigations. A small intestine biopsy reveals severe villous atrophy, particularly in the proximal segments. The patient responds well to a gluten-free diet for one year, but her symptoms return despite maintaining the diet. A repeat biopsy shows changes similar to the previous one. What condition should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T-cell intestinal lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Non-Responsive Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease, also known as gluten-sensitive enteropathy, is associated with specific human leukocyte antigen subtypes. The hallmark of this disease is the disappearance of clinical features and intestinal histologic findings upon discontinuing gluten in the diet. However, in cases where patients who were previously responding well to a gluten-free diet stop responding, the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma, a complication of coeliac disease, should be strongly considered.

      Other conditions, such as tropical sprue, dermatitis herpetiformis, collagenous sprue, and refractory sprue, may also present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction. Tropical sprue does not respond to gluten restriction, while dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease associated with coeliac disease and does not cause failure of response to a gluten-free diet. Collagenous sprue is characterized by the presence of a collagen layer beneath the basement membrane and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. Refractory sprue, on the other hand, is a subset of coeliac disease where patients do not respond to gluten restriction and may require glucocorticoids or restriction of soy products.

      In conclusion, when a patient with coeliac disease stops responding to a gluten-free diet, it is important to consider the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma and differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the house officer and requests a prescription for prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Antibiotics for Gut Surgery

      Prophylactic antibiotics are commonly used in gut surgery to prevent wound infections, which can occur in up to 60% of cases. The use of prophylactic antibiotics has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of these infections. Co-amoxiclav is the preferred choice for non-penicillin allergic patients, as it is effective against the types of bacteria commonly found in the gut, including anaerobes, enterococci, and coliforms.

      While cefotaxime is often used to treat meningitis, it is not typically used as a prophylactic antibiotic in gut surgery. In patients with mild penicillin allergies, cefuroxime and metronidazole may be used instead. However, it is important to note that cephalosporins should be avoided in elderly patients whenever possible, as they are at a higher risk of developing C. difficile infections. Overall, the use of prophylactic antibiotics is an important measure in preventing wound infections in gut surgery.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 61-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset severe epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset severe epigastric pain for the last eight hours. The pain radiates to the back and has been poorly controlled with paracetamol. The patient has not had this type of pain before. He also has associated nausea and five episodes of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting. He last moved his bowels this morning. His past medical history is significant for alcoholism, epilepsy and depression, for which he is not compliant with treatment. The patient has been drinking approximately 25 pints of beer per week for the last 15 years. He has had no previous surgeries.
      His observations and blood tests results are shown below. Examination reveals tenderness in the epigastrium, without rigidity.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 37.0 °C
      Blood pressure 151/81 mmHg
      Heart rate 81 bpm
      Respiratory rate 19 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      C-reactive protein 102 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      White cell count 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Amylase 992 U/l < 200 U/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest that they have acute pancreatitis, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcoholism or gallstone disease. This condition is characterized by severe epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, and an increase in pancreatic enzymes like amylase within 6-12 hours of onset. Lipase levels can also aid in diagnosis, as they rise earlier and last longer than amylase levels. Acute mesenteric ischemia, perforated peptic ulcer, pyelonephritis, and small bowel obstruction are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

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      • Gastroenterology
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