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Question 1
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A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra
Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a fever and intense pain in his knee. Upon examination, the right knee is visibly swollen and red, with limited range of motion in both flexion and extension. The joint is warm to the touch. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 94/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 130/72 mmHg, and temperature 39.2 ºC. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. He is sexually active and lives with his girlfriend. What is the most likely causative organism for his condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:The most common organism found in young adults with septic arthritis is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This is especially true for sexually active individuals, like the patient in this case, who present with a hot, swollen joint, reduced range of motion, and fever. To confirm the source of infection, a synovial fluid sample should be taken before administering antibiotics. While Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis overall, it is not the most common in young adults. Chlamydia trachomatis and Campylobacter can also cause reactive arthritis, but they present with different symptoms than what this patient is experiencing.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back of his right arm that has been getting bigger for the past three months. Recently, the lump has become very painful. The doctor orders a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chondrosarcoma
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is Ewing’s sarcoma, which is a malignant bone tumour that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is commonly found in the pelvis and long bones and can cause severe pain. X-rays may show an onion skin appearance. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, and the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein is a key finding in cases of Ewing’s sarcoma.
Chondrosarcoma is an incorrect diagnosis as it is a malignant tumour of cartilage that typically affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-aged individuals.
Giant cell tumour is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells that is commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones and has a double-bubble or soap bubble appearance on x-ray. It is more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.
Osteochondroma is another incorrect diagnosis as it is the most common benign bone tumour and typically presents as a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. It is most commonly found in males under 20 years old and is therefore unlikely given the presentation.
Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is indicative of diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 6.5 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 7.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Based on Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is determined by analyzing plasma glucose concentrations. A fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L indicates diabetes mellitus. To confirm the diagnosis, two plasma glucose readings must be taken according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient. However, in a symptomatic patient, only one reading is required. It is important to note that the threshold for diagnosis is not 7.1 mmol/L, but rather any value above 7.0 mmol/L. Candidates should be cautious not to misread or misinterpret the question and options. If the options do not make sense, it is recommended to review the question and options to ensure that they have been read correctly and not misunderstood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?Your Answer: Rectal involvement
Explanation:Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.
Rectal Involvement
UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.Transmural Inflammation
Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.Duodenal Involvement
UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.Symptoms and Severity
Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old asthmatic woman has been brought to the emergency department after experiencing seizures during her pregnancy. She is currently 35 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational hypertension by her doctor. She is taking oral medication to manage her condition. Upon examination, her urine test shows proteinuria (3+) and her blood pressure is elevated at 170/115 mmHg. As a result, the baby is delivered and the patient's seizures have ceased. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her seizures after delivery, given her probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate for 24 hours after delivery/last seizure
Explanation:The correct answer is that magnesium sulphate treatment should continue for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure. This treatment is used to prevent and treat seizures in mothers with eclampsia. In this case, the patient is showing signs of eclampsia due to high protein levels in her urine, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and seizures. Therefore, she needs to be admitted and continue magnesium treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure. Magnesium helps prevent seizures by relaxing smooth muscle tissues and slowing uterine contractions. Labetalol is not the correct answer as it is used for long-term treatment of hypertension, which may not be necessary for this patient after delivery. Nifedipine with hydralazine may be more suitable for her hypertension as she is asthmatic. Magnesium sulphate treatment for 12 or 48 hours after delivery or the last seizure is not recommended according to guidelines, which suggest 24 hours is the appropriate duration.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male visits his doctor two days after finishing a marathon. He expresses worry about the reddish-brown hue of his urine and his overall feeling of illness. What is the pigment responsible for the urine discoloration?
Your Answer: Bilirubin
Correct Answer: Myoglobin
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria
Rhabdomyolysis is a common condition that occurs after extreme physical exertion, such as running a marathon. It is characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, which releases myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin is a small molecule that is normally found in muscle cells, but when released into the circulation, it can cause urine to turn a dark color.
There are several causes of rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, including trauma, compartment syndrome, crush injuries, ischemia, severe electrolyte imbalances, bacterial and viral infections, and inherited metabolic disorders like McArdle’s disease. In rare cases, certain drugs like barbiturates and statins can also cause rhabdomyolysis.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis, such as muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine, as it can lead to serious complications like kidney failure if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as rehydration and electrolyte replacement, and may require hospitalization in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes for three years comes in for her annual check-up. Despite optimizing her oral hypoglycemic therapy, she has gained around 5 kg in weight over the past year and her HbA1c has worsened. She is also taking ramipril, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine, but her blood pressure remains difficult to control, with a reading of 172/102 mmHg. During the examination, she has developed abdominal striae, thin skin with bruising, and proximal weakness. The doctor suspects Cushing's syndrome. What is the most appropriate test for this patient?
Your Answer: 9 am cortisol concentration
Correct Answer: 24 hour urine free cortisol concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. To diagnose this condition, appropriate screening tests are necessary. The preferred test is the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, where 1 mg of dexamethasone is given at 11 pm, and cortisol levels are measured at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal.
Another effective test is a 24-hour urine collection to measure free cortisol in the urine. An elevated cortisol level, usually above 250 nmol/day, indicates Cushing’s syndrome. However, random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests do not provide any diagnostic information.
In investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome, chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to perform appropriate screening tests to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Irish man presents to the Dermatology clinic with a 3-cm pigmented lesion on his right shin. He also has a Fitzpatrick skin type 1. The lesion appears macular and contains three different shades of pigment. What is the most crucial next step?
Your Answer: Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months
Correct Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:Importance of Biopsy in Diagnosing Melanoma
When a patient with type 1 or 2 skin presents with a pigmented lesion that is large and has multiple colors, it is suggestive of melanoma. It is crucial to inquire about any changes over time and symptoms such as bleeding or itching. A comprehensive medical history should include family history of skin cancers, risk factors such as sun exposure, hobbies, travel, sunburns as a child, previous skin cancers or abnormal moles, and history of immunosuppression. The ABCDE rule should be followed for suspicious pigmented lesions.
A biopsy is necessary for diagnosis and determining the prognosis of melanoma based on the Breslow depth. Clinical photographs and follow-up in 3 months may be appropriate in some cases, but if there is a suspicion of melanoma, an urgent biopsy is necessary. Scrapings for mycology are not useful in diagnosing pigmented lesions, and measuring ACE levels is not appropriate in this scenario.
In conclusion, a biopsy is essential in diagnosing melanoma and determining its prognosis. It is crucial to follow the ABCDE rule and obtain a comprehensive medical history to identify any risk factors. Early detection and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever. His father informs the admitting doctor that the child has had a temperature for three days, has been irritable, and is quite inactive. The child has also mentioned that his right leg has been sore, and has been reluctant to walk, although there has been no history of injury.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 39 oC, and the doctor notes an area of swelling and redness over the right shin. Following investigation, a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is made.
Which one of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?Your Answer: Spread from local cellulitis is the most common
Correct Answer: The most common site is metaphysis of the femur
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Common Sites, Risk Factors, and Causative Organisms
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria spreading through the bloodstream, local cellulitis, or penetrating trauma. The most common site of infection in children is the metaphysis of the long bones, while in adults, it is the vertebrae, followed by the humerus, maxilla, and mandibular bones. X-rays may not show abnormalities in the early stages, but bone scans can provide more detailed imaging. Intravenous drug usage is a significant risk factor, and Salmonella species are the most common causative organism in patients with sickle-cell anaemia, while S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species are common in adults and children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of RUQ pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has a past medical history of gallstones. The patient reports experiencing severe stabbing pain that began earlier today. Upon examination, her heart rate is 110 beats/min (normal 60-100 beats/min), her temperature is 38.5°C (normal 36.1-37.2°C), and she is positive for Murphy's sign. There is no evidence of jaundice, and she had a bowel movement this morning. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for RUQ Pain: Acute Cholecystitis, Pancreatitis, Ascending Cholangitis, Gallstone Ileus, Biliary Colic
When a patient presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, it is important to consider several potential diagnoses. A positive Murphy’s sign, which is pain on deep palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, strongly suggests gallbladder involvement and makes acute cholecystitis the most likely diagnosis. Biliary colic is less likely as the patient is febrile, and ascending cholangitis is unlikely as the patient is not jaundiced. Pancreatitis is a possibility, but the pain is typically focused on the epigastrium and radiates to the back.
Gallstone ileus is a rare condition in which a gallstone causes obstruction in the small bowel. It would present with symptoms of obstruction, such as nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, with complete constipation appearing later. However, since this patient’s bowels last opened this morning, acute cholecystitis is a much more likely diagnosis.
It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and rule out other conditions, but in this case, acute cholecystitis is the most likely diagnosis. Treatment involves pain relief, IV antibiotics, and elective cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and tenderness. The parents report observing a small amount of blood in the diaper and some bilious vomit. They have also noticed reduced movement and difficulty feeding over the past few days. The infant was born prematurely at 29 weeks after premature rupture of membranes. What investigation is most likely to provide a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stool sample
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:The definitive test for diagnosing necrotising enterocolitis is an abdominal x-ray. If the x-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in the gut wall), it confirms the presence of NEC. Treatment involves stopping oral feeds, providing barrier nursing, and administering antibiotics such as cefotaxime and vancomycin. In severe cases, a laparotomy may be necessary, but this is a poor prognostic indicator and is not performed for diagnostic purposes. While a stool culture is often performed in cases of NEC, it is not a definitive test. It is important not to confuse NEC with intussusception, which typically affects older children (5-12 months) and presents with a distended abdomen and the passage of red currant jelly stool. In such cases, an ultrasound scan is usually the initial investigation and will show a target sign. A digital rectal exam is not a diagnostic test and only confirms the presence of feces in the rectum.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient in the emergency department waiting room suddenly collapses due to feeling unwell. Upon transfer to the resuscitation area, the patient's heart rate is recorded at 38 bpm and blood pressure at 86/60mmHg. What is the initial step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: IV normal saline
Correct Answer: Atropine 500 micrograms IV
Explanation:Patients who exhibit signs of shock and bradycardia should be administered 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum of 3mg. In the case of this patient, who has experienced syncope and is unstable, atropine is necessary. Amiodarone is used for tachycardias, while bisoprolol is used for rate control in longstanding tachycardias. DC cardioversion is used for tachycardia, and if atropine is ineffective, transcutaneous pacing may be considered. IV saline would not be beneficial in this case, as the patient’s hypotension is caused by bradycardia rather than hypovolemia.
Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2021 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight that the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms depends on two factors. Firstly, identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Secondly, identifying the potential risk of asystole, which can occur in patients with complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, or ventricular pause > 3 seconds.
If adverse signs are present, Atropine (500mcg IV) is the first line treatment. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing in patients with risk factors for asystole. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient is seen in clinic. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis, asthma, type II diabetes, dyspepsia, chronic kidney disease and atrial fibrillation. He is currently taking metformin, salbutamol, paracetamol, omeprazole and digoxin. Blood tests show a continued decline in renal function, with a GFR previously at 34 ml/min/1.73 m2 now at 26 ml/min/1.73 m2. Which medication should be discontinued at this point?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Medication Use in Renal Failure: Considerations and Contraindications
Renal failure can significantly impact medication management, as certain drugs may be contraindicated or require dosage adjustments to avoid adverse effects. Metformin, for example, should not be used in renal failure due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Salbutamol and paracetamol, on the other hand, can be safely used in renal failure. Omeprazole may cause acute interstitial nephritis, but it is important to consider the underlying cause of renal failure (such as diabetes) before determining its appropriateness. Digoxin can be used in renal failure, but with caution and at reduced dosage due to its renal excretion. Healthcare providers should carefully evaluate medication use in patients with renal failure to ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is in the Intensive Care Unit. He has an arterial blood gas that demonstrates pH 7.50, PaCO2 7.2 kPa, PaO2 10.2 kPa and HCO3− 36 mmol/l.
Which of the following is most likely to adjust the patient’s blood pH to normal range?Your Answer: Decrease the tidal volume
Explanation:Adjusting Ventilation to Treat Metabolic Alkalosis
To treat a patient with metabolic alkalosis, the arterial blood gas must be adjusted to a normal pH range. One way to achieve this is by increasing the patient’s PaCO2, which can be done by reducing the tidal volume during ventilation. This decreases the amount of CO2 expelled during breathing.
Increasing the respiratory rate or tidal volume would have the opposite effect, reducing CO2 and further increasing blood pH. Administering intravenous bicarbonate is also not recommended as blood bicarbonate levels are already elevated.
Increasing the patient’s minute ventilation would also lower PaCO2, so it is important to carefully adjust ventilation to achieve the desired effect. By understanding the relationship between ventilation and blood pH, healthcare professionals can effectively treat metabolic alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has not responded to methotrexate and sulfasalazine and is now being considered for etanercept injections. What potential side effect is linked to the use of etanercept?
Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis
Explanation:The reactivation of TB is a possible side effect of TNF-α inhibitors.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department having been picked up by a patrolling police car. He was found wandering around a roundabout in his nightgown, and when stopped, had no recollection of where he lived or of his own name. A mini-mental assessment reveals that he is disorientated to time and place and has poor memory. Physical examination is unremarkable. A full history is taken following contact with his wife and she reports that her husband has been suffering from worsening memory and cognition. A differential diagnosis includes dementia. Investigations are requested.
What is the most common cause of dementia in the United Kingdom?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Types of Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Dementia is a progressive loss of cognitive function that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own causes, symptoms, and management strategies. In this article, we will discuss the most common types of dementia, including Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia.
Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60% of cases in the UK. It is a progressive brain disorder that causes memory loss, disorientation, altered personality, and altered cognition. While there is no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, treatment with antioxidants and certain drugs, such as anticholinesterases, can slow or reduce cognitive decline.Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a rare autosomal dominant condition that affects approximately 12 per 100,000 of the UK population. It can cause dementia at any stage of the illness.Vascular Dementia
Vascular dementia is the second most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 17% of cases in the UK. It is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, which can result from conditions such as stroke or high blood pressure.Dementia with Lewy Bodies
Dementia with Lewy bodies is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 4% of cases. It is characterized by abnormal protein deposits in the brain, which can cause hallucinations, movement disorders, and cognitive decline.Frontotemporal Dementia
Frontotemporal dementia is a rare form of dementia that accounts for around 2% of cases in the UK. It typically causes personality and behavioral changes, such as apathy, disinhibition, and loss of empathy.In conclusion, dementia is a complex and challenging condition that can have a significant impact on individuals and their families. While there is no cure for most types of dementia, early diagnosis and management can help to slow the progression of symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During rectal examination, a suspicious lesion is found below the pectinate line, raising concern for malignancy. You proceed to palpate for lymphadenopathy.
Where might you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?Your Answer: External iliac
Correct Answer: Inguinal
Explanation:Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region
The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. Understanding the different lymph nodes and their drainage patterns can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.
Inguinal lymph nodes are responsible for draining the anal canal below the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes. The external iliac nodes are responsible for draining the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder. On the other hand, the internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the anal canal above the pectinate line.
The superior mesenteric nodes are responsible for draining parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum. Lastly, the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.
In conclusion, understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He reports feeling well today but has a history of chronic respiratory tract infections and lung issues. He is immunocompetent.
During the examination, his temperature and blood pressure are normal. His heart rate is regular and his breathing is effortless. The GP detects a diastolic murmur with a snap that is most audible at the right fifth intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Congestive heart failure
Correct Answer: Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Chronic Respiratory Infections and a Heart Murmur
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia: A Congenital Syndrome of Ciliary Dysfunction
The patient described in the case likely has primary ciliary dyskinesia, also known as Kartagener’s syndrome, which is a congenital syndrome of ciliary dysfunction. This disorder affects the proper beating of Ciliary, leading to the accumulation of infectious material within the respiratory tree and abnormal cell migration during development, resulting in situs inversus. Additionally, abnormal Ciliary can lead to non-motile sperm and infertility.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Although the GP noticed a diastolic murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis, the patient does not have symptoms of congestive heart failure. Asthma could be associated with chronic lung and respiratory tract infections, but it would not explain the heart murmur. Squamous cell lung cancer is less likely in a man who is 40 years old with a normal respiratory examination and would not explain the heart murmur. Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension usually causes progressive breathlessness, a dry cough, and fine inspiratory crepitations on examination, rather than the picture here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?
Your Answer: To stop taking corticosteroid inhaler for duration of pregnancy
Correct Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 56-year-old cleaner is diagnosed with a T-score of -2.7 after a DXA scan to evaluate bone density due to experiencing two fractures within a year. Bisphosphonate therapy once weekly and a vitamin D supplement are initiated. What is the target cell type of bisphosphonates?
Your Answer: Osteoclasts
Explanation:Bisphosphonates: Mechanism of Action on Bone Cells
Bisphosphonates are a class of drugs used in the treatment of various bone disorders. They work by inhibiting bone breakdown, which reduces the amount of calcium released into the circulation. This is achieved through their dual action on calcium phosphate crystals in bone and osteoclasts, the cells responsible for bone resorption. Bisphosphonates also indirectly prevent osteoblast and osteocyte apoptosis, which are involved in bone synthesis. However, they do not act on renal tubular cells or intestinal mucosal cells. Understanding the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates on bone cells is crucial in their clinical use for conditions such as osteoporosis, multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease, and hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?
Your Answer: 12
Explanation:The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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As part of a learning exercise, an elderly person drew a small black square and a black circle, 4 inches horizontally apart, on a piece of white paper. The elderly person then held the paper at arm’s length and closed their left eye, while focusing on the black square, which was to the left of the black circle, with their right eye. They moved the paper slowly towards them until the black circle disappeared.
Which of the following anatomical structures is responsible for the disappearance of the black circle?Your Answer: Optic disc
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Optic Disc, Macula Lutea, Fovea Centralis, Dilator Pupillae, and Sphincter Pupillae
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. Within the eye, there are several important structures that play a role in vision. Here are five key components of the eye and their functions:
1. Optic Disc: This is the area where the optic nerve exits the retina. It lacks photoreceptor cells, creating a blind spot in our visual field. The optic disc is lighter in color than the surrounding retina and is the point from which branches of the central retinal artery spread out to supply the retina.
2. Macula Lutea: This small, yellow-colored area is located next to the optic disc. It has a higher visual sensitivity than other areas of the retina.
3. Fovea Centralis: This is the central depression of the macula lutea and contains the largest number of densely compact cone photoreceptors. It has the highest visual sensitivity of any area of the retina.
4. Dilator Pupillae: This structure is found in the iris and is innervated by sympathetic fibers. It dilates the pupillary opening.
5. Sphincter Pupillae: Also found in the iris, this structure is innervated by parasympathetics and constricts the pupillary opening.
Understanding the anatomy of the eye and how these structures work together is essential for maintaining good vision and identifying potential problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar scores at birth. During examination, the infant is found to have micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patau syndrome
Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:A neonate is born exhibiting micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are all classic signs of Edward’s syndrome. This childhood genetic syndrome is often diagnosed prenatally, but in some cases, it may not be detected until after birth when the neonate presents with low apgar scores. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for those with Edward’s syndrome is very high, and the average life expectancy is only 5-12 days. Survivors of this syndrome often experience complications affecting multiple organs. It is important to note that many genetic syndromes share similar features, making clinical diagnosis challenging without genetic testing. As such, it is essential to be familiar with the most common features of each syndrome for final medical examinations.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 33-year-old woman who presents with severe pelvic pain that is unresponsive to paracetamol. The pain started four months ago and occurs four days before the onset of her menstrual cycle. The pain worsens as her period approaches and gradually improves once it ends. She also reports changing her menstrual pads every four hours.
Sarah began menstruating at the age of 14 and has had fairly regular cycles. In the past, she only experienced mild pain that was relieved with paracetamol, and her periods were not heavy. She is sexually active but uses condoms during intercourse.
During pelvic examination, no abnormalities were observed on speculum examination, and her abdomen examination was unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step in Sarah's management?Your Answer: Consent and insert a intrauterine progesterone system and review in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Prescribe ibuprofen and refer to gynaecology for further investigation
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for further investigation. This is because secondary dysmenorrhoea, which is characterized by painful cramping in the lower abdomen before or after menstruation along with new menorrhagia, suggests an underlying pathology that needs to be addressed. While mefenamic acid can help manage the pain, it is not enough to simply review the patient in two weeks without organizing referrals or investigations. The insertion of an intrauterine progesterone system may be appropriate for primary dysmenorrhoea and some cases of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but this should not be the only course of action. Additional analgesia should be considered if paracetamol is not controlling the pain. An abdominal ultrasound is not suitable for investigating pelvic organs, and a transabdominal or transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is necessary to obtain views of the uterus, ovaries, Fallopian tubes, cervix, and vagina.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary Care Ward. He has suffered from an acute myocardial infarction two days earlier. On examination, he is profoundly unwell with a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. He has crackles throughout his lung fields, with markedly decreased oxygen saturations; he has no audible cardiac murmurs. He is intubated and ventilated, and catheterised.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Troponin T 5.8 ng/ml <0.1 ng/ml
Urine output 30 ml in the past 3 h
ECG – consistent with a myocardial infarction 48 h earlier
Chest X-ray – gross pulmonary oedema
Which of the following fits best with the clinical picture?Your Answer: Nitrate therapy is likely to be the initial management of choice
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cardiogenic Shock Following Acute Myocardial Infarction
Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. One potential treatment option is the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump, which can provide ventricular support without compromising blood pressure. High-dose dopamine may also be used to preserve renal function, but intermediate and high doses can have negative effects on renal blood flow. The chance of death in this situation is high, but with appropriate treatment, it can be reduced to less than 10%. Nesiritide, a synthetic natriuretic peptide, is not recommended as it can worsen renal function and increase mortality. Nitrate therapy should also be avoided as it can further reduce renal perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary to improve outcomes for patients with cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Correct
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without any support?
Your Answer: 13-15 months
Explanation:Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. Her mother noticed her face twitching and mouth drooling while trying to wake her up this morning. The episode lasted for 30 seconds and the girl was fully aware of what was happening. The girl has been feeling drowsy and confused for the past 15 minutes. She has been healthy and has no medical conditions. Her mother is concerned that she has been staying up late for the past few nights, which may have contributed to her fatigue. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:The correct answer is benign rolandic epilepsy, which is a syndrome that typically affects children between the ages of 4-12. The main symptom is a focal seizure that occurs before or after bedtime, involving facial twitching, drooling, and twitching of one limb or side of the body. The EEG will show centrotemporal spikes, indicating that the seizure originates in the rolandic fissure. This condition has a good prognosis and may not require treatment depending on the severity and frequency of the seizures.
Incorrect answers include absence seizure, infantile spasms, and juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Absence seizure is a generalised seizure that does not involve limb twitching or focal symptoms. Infantile spasms typically occur in infants and are associated with developmental delays. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a focal syndrome that involves myoclonic jerks and daytime absences, which can progress to secondarily generalised seizures.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 20-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department following a fall from his skateboard, where he landed on his outstretched right hand. On examination, the patient reports experiencing considerable pain and tenderness between the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons of his right hand. An X-ray is conducted, but no abnormalities are detected.
What is the best initial approach to managing this injury?Your Answer: Immobilise using Futuro splint or standard below-elbow backslab before specialist review
Explanation:For non-displaced or minimally displaced scaphoid fractures (less than 0.5mm), immobilization for 6 weeks is sufficient for union. However, since these fractures can lead to avascular necrosis and other long-term complications, it is crucial to seek specialized medical attention. It is unnecessary to immobilize the elbow with a standard above-elbow backslab for suspected scaphoid fractures.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A 19-year-old male is admitted after intentionally consuming 50 grams of paracetamol. After 24 hours, he is evaluated for a possible liver transplant. What factor would be the strongest indicator for the need of a liver transplant?
Your Answer: Arterial pH 7.25
Explanation:In cases of paracetamol overdose, liver transplantation may be considered if the arterial pH remains below 7.3 for more than 24 hours after ingestion. Other factors such as creatinine levels, encephalopathy grade, and INR must also be significantly abnormal to warrant transplantation.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain is sharp in nature, is exacerbated by coughing and came on gradually over the past 12 hours. On examination, she is unable to stand on one leg comfortably and experiences pain on hip extension. The is no rebound tenderness or guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative, and her temperature is 37.4ºC. The following tests are done:
Hb 135 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 11 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 24 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inguinal hernia
Correct Answer: Acute appendicitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for individuals experiencing pain in the peri-umbilical region is acute appendicitis. Early appendicitis is characterized by this type of pain, and a positive psoas sign is also present. A neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is observed on the full blood count, indicating an infection. Ovarian torsion can cause sharp pain, but it is typically sudden and severe, not gradually worsening over 12 hours. Inguinal hernia pain is more likely to be felt in the groin area, not peri-umbilical, and there is no mention of a mass during the abdominal examination. Suprapubic pain and lower urinary tract symptoms such as dysuria are more likely to be associated with a lower urinary tract infection. In the absence of high fever and/or flank pain, an upper urinary tract infection is unlikely.
Understanding Acute Appendicitis
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, leading to oedema, ischaemia, and possible perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is usually peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers, compatible history, and examination findings. Imaging may be used in some cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. The treatment of choice for acute appendicitis is appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.
In conclusion, acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the pathogenesis, symptoms, and management of acute appendicitis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset back pain that improves with lying down. She has a history of ulcerative colitis, for which she has just finished a course of steroids following a flare, went through menopause 15 years ago, and has not had symptoms of it since. Her BMI is 20 kg/m².
Blood tests are taken and an x-ray confirms a vertebral compression fracture. A FRAX® score is calculated to be 12% and a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is arranged which shows the following:
Calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Vitamin D 18.2 ng/ml (≥20.0)
T-score -2.6
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Vitamin D supplements then alendronic acid
Explanation:Calcium supplementation should only be prescribed alongside bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient.
Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus?
Your Answer: Continuous 'machinery' murmur
Correct Answer: Bisferiens pulse
Explanation:A collapsing pulse is linked to PDA.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the Eye Casualty complaining of a painful decrease in vision in her left eye that has been occurring over the past six hours. She reports no other symptoms.
During the examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36. The left eye has reduced color vision. Eye movements do not show any double vision, but the pain intensifies. The swinging torch test is performed, and it is discovered that the left pupil dilates when the torch light is moved from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy reveals a swollen optic disc and exudates that align like a star at the macula in the left eye.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Papilloedema
Correct Answer: Neuroretinitis
Explanation:Differentiating Subtypes of Optic Neuritis
Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss and other symptoms. However, there are several subtypes of optic neuritis that can present differently.
Neuroretinitis is a subtype of optic neuritis that involves both the retina and optic disc. A macular star pattern of lipid exudates may be present in the macula.
Papillitis is another subtype of optic neuritis that is characterized by swelling of the optic disc.
Papilloedema, on the other hand, is optic disc swelling that is typically caused by increased intracranial pressure.
Post-viral demyelination is a subtype of optic neuritis that can occur after a viral illness.
Retrobulbar neuritis is a subtype of optic neuritis where the optic disc is not affected.
It is important to differentiate between these subtypes of optic neuritis in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for evaluation. He has a history of multiple fractures, delayed dental development, hearing impairment, and abnormal bone growth. The healthcare provider suspects osteogenesis imperfecta. What laboratory findings are expected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal adjusted calcium, normal PTH, normal ALP and normal PO4
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, typically presents with normal levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4. This group of disorders affects collagen metabolism, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures. The mildest and most common form is type 1, which is usually diagnosed in childhood and may present with blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with raised adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal or raised ALP levels, and low PO4 levels. Hypoparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium, high PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and variable PO4 levels. Malignant PTH-related protein, which can occur in certain cancers such as squamous cell lung cancer, may present with raised adjusted calcium, low PTH levels, raised ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels, with normal ALP levels also possible.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Semen analysis
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing
When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.
If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ºC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.
Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.
Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following events during pregnancy can potentially sensitize a RhD-negative woman and necessitate the administration of anti-D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previously non-sensitised 16 weeks pregnant woman undergoing amniocentesis
Explanation:Sensitization occurs when fetal red blood cells, which are RhD-positive, enter the bloodstream of a mother who is RhD-negative. This can lead to the formation of antibodies in the mother’s circulation that can destroy fetal red blood cells, causing complications such as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn in subsequent pregnancies where the fetus is RhD-positive. To reduce the risk of sensitization, anti-D immunoglobulin is administered in situations where there is a likelihood of fetomaternal hemorrhage. Anti-D works by neutralizing RhD-antigens from fetal red cells, but it cannot reverse sensitization if the mother already has antibodies in her circulation. Prophylactic anti-D is given to non-sensitized RhD-negative women at 28 and 34 weeks to prevent small fetomaternal hemorrhages in the absence of a known sensitizing event. Various events during pregnancy, such as vaginal bleeding, chorionic villus sampling, and abdominal trauma, can potentially cause sensitization. Source: RCOG. Rhesus D prophylaxis, the use of anti-D immunoglobulin.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a metallic heart valve has undergone an elective paraumbilical hernia repair. Due to her valve, she is administered unfractionated heparin during the perioperative period. Assuming her renal function is normal, what is the recommended method for monitoring the therapeutic effectiveness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measurement of APTT
Explanation:Monitoring is necessary for unfractionated heparin, unlike low molecular weight heparins which do not require it. The APTT is measured to perform this monitoring.
Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents for a general check-up. He is well in himself and reports no symptoms.
On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 33 kg/m2 and there are some thickened folds of skin in his axilla and the nape of his neck. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. He is a non-smoker and does not drink.
A set of blood work is ordered. He demonstrated impaired fasting glucose in addition to the results below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
Cholesterol 5.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglyceride 3.9 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 30 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the next best investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound liver
Explanation:Choosing the Best Investigation: A Case Study
In this case study, a patient presents with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), raised ALT, impaired glucose regulation, acanthosis nigricans, and a high BMI. The question is, what investigation should be done next?
Ultrasound liver is the best investigation in this case. It is quick, inexpensive, and can provide enough information to guide management at initial stages. Weight management and dietary modification can help abate symptoms.
Screening for hereditary haemochromatosis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient does not complain of arthritis, diabetes, or changes to the skin.
Haematinics are not necessary, as the Hb is normal.
A CT scan of the abdomen would be useful, but it is costly and would result in the patient receiving radiation. It should not be the next best investigation.
Serum ceruloplasmin is not necessary, as there is nothing in the history to suggest Wilson’s disease.
In conclusion, choosing the best investigation requires careful consideration of the patient’s history and symptoms. In this case, ultrasound liver is the most appropriate next step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for an hour. Upon examination, he is tall and slim with a blood pressure reading of 135/80 mmHg and an early diastolic murmur. The electrocardiogram reveals 1 mm ST elevation in II, III, and aVF. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan of chest
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Chest Pain
This patient’s presentation of chest pain may not be typical and could potentially be caused by an inferior myocardial infarction or aortic artery dissection. However, thrombolysis could be dangerous and should be avoided until a proper diagnosis is made. Due to the patient’s young age, a wide range of potential diagnoses should be considered.
The patient’s physical characteristics, including being tall and slim with an aortic diastolic murmur, suggest the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection. To confirm this diagnosis, a thorough examination of all peripheral pulses should be conducted, as well as checking for discrepancies in blood pressure between limbs. Additionally, a plain chest x-ray should be scrutinized for signs of a widened mediastinum, an enlarged cardiac silhouette, or pleural effusions.
In summary, a young patient presenting with chest pain requires a thorough differential diagnosis to determine the underlying cause. Careful examination of physical characteristics and diagnostic tests can help identify potential conditions such as Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection, and avoid potentially harmful treatments like thrombolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.
Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.
Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.
Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit
Explanation:Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be referred for immediate assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital before their scan. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.
In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is currently in labour and giving birth to her first child on the Labour Ward. She has been in labour for a while now and has just had a vaginal delivery, with a healthy baby boy born 30 minutes ago. The midwife contacts you as the placenta has not yet been delivered, although the woman's observations are stable and there is minimal blood loss.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next in managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe for 30 min and then initiate intramuscular (im) Syntocinon® and breastfeeding
Explanation:Management of Retained Placenta in Obstetrics
Retained placenta is a common complication in obstetrics that requires prompt management to prevent severe bleeding and other complications. Here are the steps involved in managing retained placenta:
Observation and Intramuscular Syntocinon® and Breastfeeding
After delivery, the clock starts, and the midwife should observe the patient for 30 minutes. If there is no bleeding, the patient can be observed for another 30 minutes while establishing IV access and crossmatching blood. During this time, im Syntocinon® and breastfeeding can be used to stimulate spontaneous expulsion.Full Obstetric Emergency Team Resuscitation
If the patient is bleeding heavily, retained placenta is classified as an obstetric emergency, and resuscitation is necessary. IV access should be confirmed, and blood should be grouped and crossmatched.Commence a Syntocinon® Infusion
To encourage separation of the placenta from the uterus, Syntocinon® is given im into the quadriceps, rather than as an infusion.Observation with IM Syntocinon® and Breastfeeding
The patient can be observed for another 60 minutes with im Syntocinon® and breastfeeding to encourage spontaneous expulsion.Surgical Removal under General Anaesthesia
If after an hour, the placenta is still retained, the patient should be taken to theatre for surgical removal under general anaesthesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired sense of smell. He has a height on the 90th centile and weight on the 95th centile. There is no pubertal development in his external genitalia and his testicular volumes are 3 mL bilaterally. Upon investigation, his plasma luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone levels are both 1.0 U/L (1-10), while his serum testosterone level is 2.0 pmol/L (9-33). His free T4 level is 20 pmol/L (10-22) and his plasma thyroid stimulating hormone level is 3.2 mU/L (0.4-5). A CT brain scan shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:The patient has Kallmann’s syndrome, characterized by hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia. Klinefelter’s and Noonan’s also cause hypogonadism, while Prader-Willi is associated with hypogonadism and hyperphagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant
Explanation:The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has been experiencing itchy skin, particularly after bathing, and headaches. He has been diagnosed with a condition that requires regular venesection and medical therapy to reduce his risk of clots. Assuming he has received lifestyle advice, what is the appropriate medical management for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is the recommended medication for patients with polycythaemia vera to lower the risk of thrombotic events caused by hyperviscosity. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperviscosity due to an excess of red blood cells in their serum. Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) and reducing the production of thromboxane from arachidonic acid, which decreases platelet aggregation and lowers the risk of thrombotic events.
Apixaban is not the first-line prophylaxis for polycythaemia vera and is therefore incorrect for this patient. It is typically used for provoked or unprovoked deep vein thrombosis by directly inhibiting activated factor X (Xa) and preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug commonly used in acute coronary syndrome management but is not recognized as a treatment for polycythaemia vera in national guidelines, making it an incorrect option for this patient.
Hydroxyurea is a chemotherapy drug that is a recognized treatment for polycythaemia vera. However, it is not appropriate as a first-line option for thrombotic event prophylaxis, and aspirin should be the initial medication prescribed for this patient.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the right trigeminal nerve.
Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy in an elderly patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bite weakness on the right
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Cranial Nerve Lesions
Cranial nerves are responsible for various functions in the head and neck region. Damage to these nerves can result in specific symptoms that can help identify the location and extent of the lesion. Here are some common symptoms of cranial nerve lesions:
1. Bite weakness on the right: The masticatory muscles are served by the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Therefore, weakness in biting on the right side can indicate damage to this nerve.
2. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue: The facial nerve carries taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.
3. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle: The muscles of facial expression, including the buccinator, are supplied by the motor fibers carried in the facial nerve. Paralysis of this muscle on the right side can indicate damage to the facial nerve.
4. Hyperacusis: The stapedius muscle, which is innervated by the facial nerve, helps dampen down loud noise by attenuating transmission of the acoustic signal in the middle ear. Damage to the facial nerve can result in hyperacusis, a condition where sounds are perceived as too loud.
5. Loss of taste in posterior third of the tongue: The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the posterior third of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman complains of worsening intermittent dysphagia over the past year. She experiences severe retrosternal chest pain during these episodes and has more difficulty swallowing liquids than solids.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal dysmotility
Explanation:Causes of Dysphagia: Understanding the Underlying Disorders
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various underlying disorders. Mechanical obstruction typically causes dysphagia for solids more than liquids, while neuromuscular conditions result in abnormal peristalsis of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia for liquids more than solids. However, oesophageal dysmotility is the only condition that can cause more dysphagia for liquids than solids due to uncoordinated peristalsis.
Achalasia is a likely underlying disorder for oesophageal dysmotility, which causes progressive dysphagia for liquids more than solids with severe episodes of chest pain. It is an idiopathic condition that can be diagnosed through a barium swallow and manometry, which reveal an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Oesophageal cancer and strictures typically cause dysphagia for solids before liquids, accompanied by weight loss, loss of appetite, rapidly progressive symptoms, or a hoarse voice. Pharyngeal pouch causes dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, and halitosis, and patients may need to manually reduce it through pressure on their neck to remove food contents from it.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause retrosternal chest pain, acid brash, coughing/choking episodes, and dysphagia, typically where there is a sensation of food getting stuck (but not for liquids). Benign oesophageal stricture is often associated with long-standing GORD, previous surgery to the oesophagus, or radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis
Explanation:Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.
If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.
While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.
A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.
Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She is unable to stand or walk for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has a purple rash on her eyelids, red nodules on her knees and elbows, and painful cracked skin on her fingers. Which autoantibody is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antinuclear (ANA)
Explanation:AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome, to hospital. She has been feeding poorly and has been constipated.
On examination, her abdomen is distended.
A colonic biopsy shows absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa.
What is the initial management for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation
Explanation:Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation is the initial management for Hirschsprung’s disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa is a diagnostic criterion, and serial rectal irrigation should be performed before surgery to prevent enterocolitis. Conservative management is not recommended according to current guidelines, and high dose steroids have no role in this scenario. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but serial rectal irrigation should be performed beforehand to prevent enterocolitis. Laxatives are not appropriate for medical management in Hirschsprung’s disease.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.
Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.
Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.
Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.
Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man undergoes a right middle lobectomy of his lung for lung cancer. A chest drain is inserted at the time of surgery to allow full lung reinflation. Three days after the operation, you notice that air bubbles escape through the chest drain into the water seal whenever the patient coughs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Air leak from the area of resected lung
Explanation:Causes of Air Leak from the Area of Resected Lung
Following a lung resection, air may escape through the chest drain due to an air leak from the edge of the resected lung. This can be worsened by talking or coughing, which increases airway pressure. If the chest drain is removed, the patient is at risk of developing a pneumothorax. Conservative management is the first-line approach, which involves leaving the existing chest drain in place and on suction. If significant air leakage occurs, a second drain may be inserted. If the air leak persists, a second operation may be necessary to repair the defect.
Other potential causes of bubbling in the chest drain when the patient coughs include a blocked chest drain, empyema with gas-forming organisms, and recurrent lung cancer. However, these conditions would present differently and have additional symptoms that are absent in cases of air leak from the area of resected lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by a group of individuals who quickly leave before medical staff can speak with them. The patient is barely conscious, with a respiratory rate of 8/min, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and a pulse of 60 bpm. Needle track marks are visible on his arms, and his pupils are constricted. What is the first treatment you would provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Opiate Toxicity and the Role of Naloxone
Opiate toxicity is a common occurrence among individuals who abuse street drugs like heroin. This condition is characterized by respiratory depression and small pupils, which can lead to unconsciousness. To address this issue, naloxone is often administered as it is an opiate receptor antagonist that can quickly relieve the symptoms of opiate toxicity. However, it is important to note that naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opiates, which means that multiple doses may be necessary to fully address the issue. Overall, naloxone plays a crucial role in addressing opiate toxicity and can help save lives in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is commencing therapy for tuberculosis and is educated on the potential side effects associated with each medication. Due to one of the drugs being recognized for depleting and counteracting pyridoxine in the body, leading to peripheral neuropathy, it has been determined that the patient will be initiated on pyridoxine supplements to minimize the risk.
Which medication is accountable for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid, it is recommended to prescribe pyridoxine as a supplement. This is particularly important in the management of tuberculosis, where multiple drugs are used, each with their own potential side effects. While ethambutol is also used in the treatment of tuberculosis, it is not the best answer as it can cause visual impairment and affect red-green discrimination. Pyrazinamide is not relevant as it does not oppose pyridoxine in the body, and rifampicin is not typically associated with peripheral neuropathy.
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, who is a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
Your GP placement supervisor has requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
What is the initial treatment for this eye condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection
Explanation:Treatment Options for Diabetic Maculopathy
Diabetic maculopathy is a condition that affects the retina and can lead to vision loss. There are several treatment options available to manage this condition, including anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection, focal laser photocoagulation, community diabetic eye screening, increase daily insulin dose, and pan-retinal photocoagulation.
Anti-VEGF intravitreal injection is a first-line treatment that works by stopping abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. This treatment targets VEGF, a protein that promotes the growth of new blood vessels.
Focal laser photocoagulation is another treatment option, but it is not recommended for lesions near the fovea due to the risk of damaging vision.
Community diabetic eye screening is not appropriate for diabetic maculopathy, as it requires more specialized treatment.
Increasing the daily insulin dose is not recommended unless blood glucose levels are erratic.
Pan-retinal photocoagulation is typically used in cases of proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Overall, the best treatment option for diabetic maculopathy will depend on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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What is the neuronal factor that influences the velocity of action potential transmission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axon myelination
Explanation:Factors Affecting Action Potential Speed in Neurons
Action potential speed in neurons is influenced by various structural factors. The diameter and length of the axon determine the amount of resistance an action potential will encounter during propagation. Axonal myelination is another important factor that increases the speed of action potentials by enabling saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier. Myelin sheaths, which are electrically insulating materials that wrap around axons, cause action potentials to propagate via saltatory conduction, thus increasing their speed. Additionally, the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels, especially sodium and potassium, play a critical role in the generation of action potentials.
On the other hand, there are factors that do not affect the propagation speed of an action potential. The number of dendrites a neuron has only affects the transmission of action potentials between neurons. The type of neurotransmitter and receptor type only influence the ultimate outcome of the action potential, but not its speed. Similarly, the postsynaptic potential only promotes or inhibits action potentials, but does not affect their speed of conduction.
In summary, the speed of action potentials in neurons is determined by structural factors such as axon diameter and length, axonal myelination, and the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels. Other factors such as the number of dendrites, type of neurotransmitter and receptor, and postsynaptic potential do not affect the speed of action potential propagation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
Blood work shows:
Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.
Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.
Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a week-long history of confusion. He has been generally healthy but takes atenolol for hypertension and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
During examination, his pulse is 88 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/88 mmHg, and temperature is 37.1°C. He is disoriented in time and place, but no other abnormalities are found.
Routine blood tests reveal:
- FBC Normal
- Sodium 120 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine 56 µmol/L (60-110)
- Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- Serum TSH Normal
- Plasma osmolality 260 mosmol/L (275-295)
- Urine osmolality 510 mosmol/L
- Urine sodium 48 mmol/L
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Explanation:Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)
The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by marked hyponatremia. To diagnose SIADH, the patient must have low serum sodium or osmolality levels, with an inappropriately high urine sodium and osmolality. Other causes such as glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, and diuretic therapy should be excluded.
There are several causes of SIADH, including malignancy, infection, cerebral disease, and medications. Bronchial carcinoma is a common malignancy associated with SIADH, especially in patients with a history of smoking. Severe infections, particularly pneumonia, can also cause SIADH. Cerebral diseases such as subarachnoid hemorrhage and meningitis can also lead to SIADH. Certain medications, including SSRI antidepressants, carbamazepine, thiazides, and indomethacin, can also cause SIADH.
In summary, SIADH is a condition that can lead to marked hyponatremia. It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications. the various causes of SIADH can help clinicians identify and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a car accident that caused severe thoracic injuries. Upon arrival, the patient's pulses cannot be detected and an ECG reveals asystole. CPR is initiated with a chest compression to rescue breath ratio of 30:2. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10ml 1 in 10,000 adrenaline delivered via intravenous (IV) injection
Explanation:Understanding Adrenaline and Its Indications
Adrenaline is a type of sympathomimetic amine that has both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulating properties. It is commonly used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. For anaphylaxis, the recommended adult life support adrenaline dose is 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV.
Adrenaline is responsible for the fight or flight response and is released by the adrenal glands. It acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and causes vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, resulting in a narrow pulse pressure. It also increases cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, while causing vasodilation in skeletal muscle vessels.
When adrenaline acts on α adrenergic receptors, it inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle. On the other hand, when it acts on β adrenergic receptors, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, stimulates ACTH, and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue.
In case of accidental injection, the management involves local infiltration of phentolamine. Understanding the indications and actions of adrenaline is crucial in emergency situations, and proper administration can help save lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream
Explanation:Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is about to come off the cardiac bypass circuit. What medication should be given to restore the patient's clotting function before closing the chest and removing the cannula?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protamine sulphate
Explanation:Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.
To prevent blood clots during cardiac bypass procedures, high amounts of heparin are given intravenously. However, if too much heparin is given, it can be reversed with protamine sulphate. Although fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may also work, it poses a risk of fluid overload.
Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. During her midwife appointment, glucose was detected in her urine and her fasting plasma glucose level was measured, resulting in a reading of 7.2mmol/L. What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:The correct course of action for managing gestational diabetes when the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis is to commence insulin. Offering a trial of diet and exercise changes or commencing metformin alone would not be appropriate in this case. However, discussing diet and exercise changes with the patient may still be helpful in managing the condition. Referral for an oral glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis is not necessary in this situation, as a diagnosis can be made based on the fasting plasma glucose level or 2-hour plasma glucose level.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a chronic and progressive history of photophobia, flashing lights, and reading difficulties over several months. She has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and is currently taking hydroxychloroquine. On fundoscopy, there is central depigmentation of a macula surrounded by thin speckled rings of hyperpigmentation, but otherwise normal. She denies any other symptoms and has not made any changes to her medication regimen. However, she has missed all of her follow-up appointments for the past 2 years. What is the underlying cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, leading to a ‘bull’s-eye maculopathy’ in its advanced form. This damage is irreversible and may continue to progress for over a year even after discontinuing the drug. Therefore, it is crucial to regularly monitor for early changes to prevent irreversible visual deterioration. The patient’s eye examination did not reveal any signs of dry age-related macular degeneration or cytomegalovirus retinitis. Lupus retinopathy is also unlikely as the patient has no other symptoms of poorly controlled lupus, and there were no signs of cotton wool spots, microaneurysms, hard exudates, or neovascularization on fundoscopy.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in her pelvis and femur. She has hip pain at rest, not relieved by paracetamol and naproxen.
Which of the following analgesic options would be most specific for metastatic bone pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous ibandronate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Metastatic Bone Pain
Metastatic bone pain can be a challenging symptom to manage in patients with advanced cancer. Here are some treatment options:
Intravenous Ibandronate: This bisphosphonate is administered intravenously and is effective in controlling pain from bony metastases.
Oral Gabapentin: Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain.
Oral Oxycontin: Oxycontin is an opioid that can relieve pain, but it is not specific to metastatic bone pain.
Oral Tramadol: Tramadol is an analgesic medication that can be taken orally, but according to NICE guidelines, ibandronic acid is the recommended treatment for metastatic bony pain.
Intravenous Morphine Sulfate: Intravenous morphine is not the preferred medication in palliative care, as it can be difficult to obtain intravenous access in frail patients. Subcutaneous delivery may be an alternative option.
Overall, the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, as well as the severity of their pain. A multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and the patient’s family can help to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who has recently returned from holiday to Australia presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient has no medical history of note and takes no medication, apart from the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP).
On examination, the patient is significantly breathless at rest, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min. Oxygen saturations are 91% on high-flow oxygen; her blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm and regular. Her temperature is 37.5 °C.
On examination of the chest, breath sounds are normal, with good air entry. No focal signs are found.
Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available to confirm or rule out the presence of PE.
Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the most commonly used test for patients with a high clinical probability of PE or those with a positive D-dimer test. Chest X-ray may be helpful in excluding alternative diagnoses, but specific signs of PE are rarely found. Electrocardiogram (ECG) may show signs of right heart strain and tachycardia, but it is not the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis. D-dimer test is non-specific and less useful in patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE. Ventilation-perfusion scanning may be useful when CT scanning is not available or contraindicated, but CTPA remains the method of choice to confirm the diagnosis.
In summary, a combination of clinical assessment and appropriate diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose PE accurately and promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiothoracic
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
In which dermatome was the stab wound located?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen
The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.
T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.
T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.
It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank pain that has been ongoing for two hours. The pain radiates down towards her groin and is constant, unaffected by changes in position. She reports feeling nauseous and has vomited once. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination, the patient is tender over the left costovertebral angle and shows signs of guarding, but no rebound tenderness. Her vital signs are heart rate 112/min, blood pressure 120/76 mmHg, temperature 38.1ºC, respiratory rate 14/min, and saturations 97%. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys reveals dilation of the renal pelvis on the left, while a CT scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder shows a 4 mm stone in the left ureter. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical decompression
Explanation:Patients who have obstructive urinary calculi and show signs of infection require immediate renal decompression and intravenous antibiotics due to the high risk of sepsis. In this case, the patient has complicated urinary calculi, with the stone blocking the ureter and causing hydronephrosis (as seen on the ultrasound scan) and fever, indicating a secondary infection. These patients are at risk of developing urosepsis, so it is crucial to perform urgent renal decompression through a ureteric stent or percutaneous nephrostomy to relieve the obstruction. Additionally, they must receive antibiotics to treat the upper urinary tract infection. Nifedipine may be useful for some patients with small, uncomplicated renal stones as it relaxes the ureters and helps in passing the stone. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is used for larger, uncomplicated stones or when medical therapy has failed. Conservative measures, such as increasing oral fluids and waiting for the stone to pass, are not appropriate for patients with obstructing renal stones complicated by infection.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 72
Incorrect
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On a night shift at the labour ward, the nursing staff pulls the emergency cord for a patient who is experiencing bleeding after giving birth. The severity of the postpartum hemorrhage can be determined based on the amount of blood loss and the time elapsed since delivery. What is the defining parameter for a major primary postpartum hemorrhage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood loss > 1000mls, within 24 hours of delivery
Explanation:Understanding Post-Partum Haemorrhage: Types and Management
Post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a common complication of childbirth that can lead to serious maternal morbidity and mortality. There are two types of PPH: primary and secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours of delivery and is further classified as major or minor based on the amount of blood loss. Major PPH is defined as bleeding from the genital tract with an estimated blood loss of >1000mls, while minor PPH is defined as blood loss <1000mls within 24 hours of delivery. The most common cause of primary PPH is uterine atony. Secondary PPH, on the other hand, occurs from 24 hours until 12 weeks post-partum and is characterized by abnormal bleeding from the genital tract. Any bleeding from 24 hours until 36 hours post-partum with blood loss >500mls is considered secondary PPH.
Management of PPH centers around adequate resuscitation, bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction, and the use of IV oxytocin. While obstetric haemorrhage is no longer a major cause of maternal death in developed countries, it remains a significant problem in developing countries. Understanding the types and management of PPH is crucial in preventing maternal morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which one of the following vaccines is not given routinely in the first 6 months of life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MMR
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A woman in her 40s has the BRCA2 mutation. What cancers are she and her family members at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, melanoma
Explanation:BRCA1 and BRCA2: Associated Cancers and Mechanisms of Action
The BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumour suppressor genes are commonly associated with breast cancer, but they also predispose individuals to other types of cancer such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. Mutations in both copies of BRCA2 can lead to Fanconi anaemia and an increased risk of certain types of leukaemia.
Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 play a role in repairing double-stranded DNA breaks, but through different mechanisms. BRCA2 is involved in homologous recombination, while BRCA1 is involved in non-homologous end-joining. This mechanism is utilized in the treatment of BRCA-associated cancers through the use of PARP inhibitors. PARP is a protein that repairs single-stranded DNA breaks, and inhibiting it creates multiple double-stranded breaks that cannot be fixed by BRCA-deficient cells, leading to cell death.
While BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations account for approximately 20% of familial breast cancer cases, they are also associated with other cancers such as prostate, pancreatic, ovarian, and melanoma. However, they are not associated with bladder cancer. Leukaemia, thyroid, and endometrial cancers are also not linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A man with mild dementia has just been admitted to the Emergency Department unit in Scotland following a fall. He has total external rotation of his left leg, indicating that he has a fractured neck of femur. He refused to be taken into the ambulance at home, and the GP successfully applied to a Justice of the Peace for a warrant to remove him to hospital. He still does not want any treatment, and will not allow examination of his hip.
What is the best legal option to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A section 47 certificate under Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000
Explanation:Appropriate Legal Options for Treatment Refusal in Scotland
When a patient refuses treatment in Scotland, it is important to consider the appropriate legal options available. Depending on the circumstances, different legislation may apply.
If the patient’s refusal does not fall under mental health legislation and their condition is not immediately life-threatening, the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 may be the operating legislation. In this case, a section 47 certificate can be used to proceed with treatment.
However, if there is an underlying mental health disorder, the Mental Health (Care and Welfare) (Scotland) Act 2003 may be applicable. An Emergency Treatment Certificate can be used in cases where there is an immediate risk to life, while a short-term detention certificate and compulsory treatment order can be used in other situations.
It is also important to consider the common law principle of necessity, which may apply in cases where there is an immediate risk to life.
Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the circumstances and applicable legislation when determining the appropriate legal options for treatment refusal in Scotland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg and grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. She has no known medical history. What clinical or biochemical finding could indicate a potential diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism: A Common Cause of Hypertension
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a prevalent cause of hypertension that typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it is often asymptomatic in its early stages and may not be diagnosed until several decades later. This condition may account for approximately 10% of hypertension cases and is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, onset of hypertension at a young age, and hypertension that is difficult to control with more than three medications.
The primary cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is either adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia, which preferentially affects the zona glomerulosa. Adrenal adenomas are usually unilateral, but bilateral adenomas can occur in a minority of cases. On the other hand, adrenal hyperplasia typically causes bilateral disease. Despite the decreased occurrence of hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis in primary hyperaldosteronism, it remains a significant contributor to hypertension and should be considered in patients with uncontrolled hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman in the clinic who has a past medical history of rheumatic fever. She has a known history of atrial fibrillation, but lately, she has been experiencing increased shortness of breath and reduced ability to exercise. During the physical examination, you notice a bluish-red discoloration on her cheeks. Based on these findings, what is the most probable valve problem that you will detect on echocardiogram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis: A Condition Caused by Rheumatic Heart Disease
The mitral valve is a crucial component of the heart located in the left ventricle. It guards the atrioventricular orifice and has two cusps, anterior and posterior, which receive chordae tendineae from multiple papillary muscles. These muscles and cords support the valve, allowing it to resist pressure during contractions of the left ventricle. However, almost all cases of mitral stenosis disease are due to rheumatic heart disease, which affects the valve over years. This results in thickening, cusp fusion, calcium deposition, and a narrowed orifice, leading to progressive immobility of the valve cusps. When the orifice reduces to 1 cm2 from the normal 5 cm2, severe mitral stenosis is present. This causes left atrial pressure to increase, leading to left hypertrophy and dilation, and eventually, pulmonary hypertension. Symptoms of increased shortness of breath occur due to pulmonary venous hypertension, and the development of pulmonary hypertension leads to right heart failure, weakness, fatigue, and reduced exercise tolerance. In severe cases, bilateral mitral facies or malar flush can occur, causing a cyanotic or dusty pink discoloration over the upper cheeks due to arteriovenous anastomoses and vascular stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital after a fall resulting in a fractured intracapsular neck of femur. He has been consented for a hemiarthroplasty and is third on the list for the following morning. He is currently on warfarin, but vitamin K has been administered to normalise his international normalised ratio (INR) before surgery. He has several co-morbidities, including atrial fibrillation, previous transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs), and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and he takes a long list of medications. The senior house officer has been asked to review his medications before surgery tomorrow. He is currently haemodynamically stable, normocardic, and apyrexial.
Which medication can he safely take on the day of surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Medication Management in Perioperative Care
During the perioperative period, it is important to carefully manage a patient’s medication regimen to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some guidelines for managing specific medications:
Digoxin: Antiarrhythmic drugs like digoxin should generally be continued on the day of surgery to prevent arrhythmias. It can be given intravenously if the patient cannot take it orally, but should be omitted if the patient is bradycardic.
Gliclazide: This medication should be omitted on the morning of a procedure and restarted once the patient is eating again postoperatively.
Ramipril: Patients on ACE inhibitors like ramipril have a higher risk of hypotension during anesthesia, especially if they are volume-depleted or undergoing epidural anesthesia.
Metformin: Metformin should be stopped before the preoperative fast begins and used with caution in those who are dehydrated or at risk of renal impairment.
Aspirin: Aspirin should be stopped when the risks of post-operative bleeding are high or when even minor bleeding could have significant consequences. Ideally, it should be stopped 5-7 days before elective surgery.
Proper management of medications during the perioperative period can help minimize risks and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old university student comes to the Emergency Department following a fireworks injury. She reports experiencing intense pain in her forearm. Upon examination, her left forearm appears pale pink and is extremely sensitive, with visible blisters. You conduct a palpation of the affected area and find no loss of sensation throughout the region.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second-degree, superficial
Explanation:Different Types of Burns and Their Characteristics
Burns can be classified into different types based on their severity and depth of tissue damage. Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is important for proper management and treatment.
First-degree burn: This type of burn affects only the epidermis and presents with redness, pain, and mild swelling. Blisters are not a feature of this type of burn.
Second-degree, superficial burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and part of the dermis, resulting in pink-colored skin with painful blisters. Management involves cleansing the wound, leaving the blisters intact, using a non-adherent dressing, and reviewing in 24 hours.
Second-degree, deep burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and deeper layers of the dermis, resulting in waxy skin with reduced blanching to pressure and reduced sensation. It is frequently less painful than superficial dermal burns.
Third-degree burn: This type of burn affects the epidermis and all of the dermis, resulting in white/brown/black-colored skin without pain or blister formation. The skin will be dry and leathery and will not heal.
Mixed-depth burn: This type of burn involves features of different types of burns and requires individualized management.
Understanding the characteristics of each type of burn is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline
Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man falls while skiing. He presents to your clinic with weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on valgus stress of his thumb. What is the most probable injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury
Explanation:There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury, also known as skier’s/gamekeeper’s thumb. This injury occurs when the thumb is forcefully abducted, causing damage to the UCL of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Symptoms include weak pincer grip, reduced range of motion, swelling, and burning pain. Treatment involves immobilization with a thumb spica, and surgery may be necessary for complete UCL rupture.
Another injury is a scaphoid fracture, which often occurs in older individuals who fall onto outstretched arms. Symptoms include pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box, reduced range of motion, and pain with wrist and thumb movement. Fractures in the proximal one-third of the bone or displaced fractures may require surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.
Extensor pollicis longus strain is another injury that can occur from repetitive thumb and wrist extension, such as in manual labor or gardening. Symptoms include pain over the thumb and dorsal wrist, worsened with palpation and extension. Treatment involves rest, ice, and pain relief.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons, which pass through the first dorsal compartment. Symptoms include pain and swelling on the lateral aspect of the wrist, and pain is reproduced with Finkelstein’s test.
Finally, Bennett’s fracture is a less common injury that often occurs in boxing and can lead to osteoarthritis later in life. It is an intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal bone, causing pain, bruising, swelling, and difficulty with pincer grip. Treatment may involve open reduction and fixation if there is significant displacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of a discharge from his urethra. Upon laboratory examination of the discharge, it is found to contain numerous neutrophils, some of which contain Gram-negative intracellular diplococci. The patient is administered ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly, which initially resolves the symptoms. However, the patient returns five days later with the same complaint. What is the most probable cause of this discharge?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted disease that often has no symptoms, especially in women. It can lead to infertility and presents with discharge, dysurea, and itching in men. Azithromycin is the preferred treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to complain of abdominal pain and light-headedness. On assessment, she has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, a heart rate of 120 bpm, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 98% and a temperature of 36.7 °C. She appears drowsy and pale, and the radial pulse is difficult to detect. Her abdomen appears rigid and is painful to palpate, and a bleed is suspected.
What type of shock is this patient most likely to have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypovolaemic
Explanation:Types of Shock and their Causes
Shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body’s organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. There are different types of shock, each with its own causes and symptoms.
Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume, usually more than 20%. This can occur due to trauma, surgery, or internal bleeding. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. Treatment involves urgent fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention.
Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to a substance, such as medication, food, or insect venom. Symptoms include swelling of the face and throat, hives, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves administering epinephrine and seeking emergency medical care.
Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. This can occur after a heart attack or other cardiac event. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cardiac issue and providing supportive care.
Neurogenic shock occurs due to damage to the central nervous system or spinal cord. Symptoms include low blood pressure, slow heartbeat, and warm skin. Treatment involves stabilizing the spine and providing supportive care.
Septic shock occurs as a result of a severe infection that spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include fever, low blood pressure, and confusion. Treatment involves administering antibiotics and providing supportive care.
In conclusion, recognizing the type of shock a patient is experiencing is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 84
Incorrect
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Which autoantibody is correctly matched with its associated disease in the following list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Disorders and Associated Antibodies
Autoimmune disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. These disorders are often associated with the presence of specific antibodies that can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Here are some examples:
Pernicious Anaemia and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It is associated with the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, which bind to intrinsic factor and prevent the absorption of vitamin B12 in the gut.Primary Biliary Cholangitis and Anti-Jo-1 Antibodies
Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the liver. It is associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, but not anti-Jo-1 antibodies, which are associated with other autoimmune disorders like polymyositis and dermatomyositis.Myasthenia Gravis and Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel Antibodies
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It is associated with the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies, but not anti-striated muscle antibodies, which are found in other autoimmune disorders.Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA) and Anti-Myeloperoxidase (p-ANCA) Antibody
GPA is a type of vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It is associated with the presence of cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA), but not p-ANCA, which are found in other types of vasculitis.Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis and Thyroid-Stimulating Antibodies
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is associated with the presence of anti-thyroglobulin and anti-thyroperoxidase antibodies, which attack the thyroid gland and cause inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-month-old son to the general practitioner. She is concerned, as he has had an unusually high-pitched cry and has been drawing his legs up and vomiting. His last nappy revealed some bloody, slimy stools. She has recently started to wean him.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Pediatric Gastrointestinal Conditions: Symptoms and Differentiation
Intussusception: A pediatric emergency condition where a bowel segment invaginates into a neighboring part of the bowel, causing obstruction. Symptoms include vomiting, abdominal pain, passing blood and mucous per rectum, lethargy, and a palpable abdominal mass. Diagnosis is via ultrasonography, and treatment can be non-operative or operative depending on the severity.
Food Intolerance: Occurs following ingestion of an allergen and presents with diarrhea, vomiting, wheezing, pruritus, and rash. Typically seen in children at the age of weaning.
Colic: Excessive, high-pitched crying in infants, typically in the evenings. Can relate to a variety of causes, including gastro-oesophageal reflux, overfeeding, incomplete burping following feeds, and food allergy.
Pyloric Stenosis: Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle leading to gastric outlet obstruction. Presents in the first weeks of life with projectile non-bilious vomiting, a palpable mass in the abdomen, and visible peristalsis.
Cystic Fibrosis: An inherited condition associated with mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator, affecting the transmembrane transport of chloride ions and leading to thick secretions in the lungs and bowel. Symptoms include meconium ileus, constipation, abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, diarrhea, steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and rectal prolapse. Identified by heel-prick screening at birth or around the age of 6-8 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old G3P2 woman comes to the antenatal clinic seeking advice on Down syndrome screening. She is currently 12+6 weeks pregnant and has had 2 previous caesarean deliveries. Although her previous children did not have Down's syndrome, she is worried about the effect of her advancing age on the likelihood of her baby being born with the condition. What tests would you suggest for this patient to assess her risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency, β-hCG and PAPP-A
Explanation:A woman at 12 weeks gestation is seeking Down syndrome screening. Although her age increases the likelihood of her fetus having Down’s syndrome, it will not affect the initial screening process. The standard screening method involves an ultrasound to evaluate nuchal translucency and serum testing to measure levels of β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). This combined screening can also detect Edward’s (trisomy 18) and Patau (trisomy 13) syndromes. The triple test, which includes α-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, and β-hCG, is conducted between 15-20 weeks gestation to assess for Down’s syndrome. The quadruple test is also an option for women who have missed the window for combined antenatal screening. A biophysical profile, which evaluates fetal wellbeing through ultrasound detection of heart rate, breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume, is used to determine the need for rapid induction of labor.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with a one-day history of symptoms suggestive of severe pneumonia. Before admission, he had become increasingly confused. On examination, he is drowsy; his oxygen saturations were 90% on room air, blood pressure 142/75 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm, with coarse crackles in the right lung on auscultation. He is clinically euvolaemic. A chest X-ray reveals dense right lung consolidation. Computed tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. While in the Emergency Department, he has a tonic–clonic seizure.
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 112 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Urea 2.4 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 64 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Plasma osmolarity 261 mOsmol/kg 280–295 mOsmol/kg
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Random cortisol 450 nmol/l
9 am: 140–500 nmol/l
Midnight: 50–300 nmol/l
Urine osmolarity 560 mOsmol/kg 300–900 mOsmol/kg
Urine sodium 55 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate management of this patient’s hyponatraemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) 3% hypertonic saline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Severe Symptomatic Hyponatraemia Secondary to SIADH
Severe symptomatic hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) requires urgent treatment. The first-line treatment is a single infusion of 150 ml of 3% hypertonic saline or equivalent over 20 minutes, with serum sodium concentration measured after 20 minutes. The infusion should be repeated until a target of 5 mmol/l increase in serum sodium concentration is achieved, with a limit of 10 mmol/l in the first 24 hours and 8 mmol/l during every 24 hours thereafter until a serum sodium concentration of 130 mmol/l is reached. The serum sodium concentration should be checked after one, six, and 12 hours.
Fluid restriction of 800 ml/day is considered first line in moderate SIADH, but in severe cases, IV hypertonic saline is required urgently to raise the sodium concentration. Oral slow sodium tablets are second line after fluid restriction, but not suitable for severe symptomatic hyponatraemia. Demeclocycline is not recommended due to lack of evidence beyond modest efficacy and reports of acute kidney injury.
It is important to note that giving normal saline to a patient with SIADH will actually lower the serum sodium concentration even more, as sodium and water handling by the kidney are regulated independently. In SIADH, only water handling is out of balance from too much antidiuretic hormone, while sodium handling is intact. Therefore, administering normal saline will result in all of the sodium being excreted, but about half of the water being retained, worsening the hyponatraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old primigravida woman is admitted to the hospital with a headache, fever, vomiting, and three episodes of convulsions. These were tonic-clonic movements lasting one to two minutes. She has no history of hypertension or epilepsy. On admission, her blood pressure was 186/136 mmHg, heart rate 115 beats per minute, and temperature 36.9ºC. The patient is started on intravenous magnesium sulfate due to the suspected diagnosis. The evening senior house officer is responsible for performing a neurological examination to monitor her reflexes. What other parameters should be monitored during this treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate
Explanation:It is recommended to monitor reflexes and respiratory rate when administering magnesium sulphate.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with increased urinary frequency and thirst. Her initial observations and clinical examination revealed no abnormalities. On initial blood tests, the only abnormalities found are a urea of 10.5 mmol/l (normal range 2.5–6.5 mmol/l) and a borderline serum osmolality of 270 mOsmol/kg (normal range 270–295 mOsmol/kg). She subsequently had water deprivation testing. Time Investigation Result Normal range 0 hours Serum osmolality 270 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 4 hours – testing stopped Serum osmolality Urine osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg 285 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg After administration of desmopressin Urine osmolality 287 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the investigative results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Understanding Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating it from Primary Polydipsia and Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the nephron fails to concentrate urine despite adequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) due to insensitivity of the ADH receptors. In contrast, primary polydipsia is characterized by normal ADH secretion and renal sensitivity to ADH, but compulsive water consumption leading to polyuria. Cranial diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, is caused by impaired ADH secretion.
To differentiate between these conditions, a water deprivation test is conducted. In nephrogenic DI, after eight hours of water deprivation, serum osmolality increases while urine osmolality remains low. Administering 2 μg desmopressin has no effect as the ADH receptors remain insensitive. In primary polydipsia, ADH secretion increases during water deprivation, resulting in retention of water by the kidneys, leading to normal serum osmolality and increased urine osmolality. In cranial diabetes insipidus, serum osmolality increases after water deprivation, but administration of desmopressin should result in a return to normal serum osmolality and a concurrent rise in urine osmolality.
In cases where the water deprivation test shows abnormal results, further testing may be required. However, in the case of nephrogenic DI, the abnormal results indicate impairment in osmolality regulation due to insensitivity of the renal ADH receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Which death requires a report to be made to the coroner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 69-year-old male with pneumoconiosis is admitted with fever and breathlessness. He dies two days later from pneumonia.
Explanation:Reporting Deaths to the Coroner
Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung disease that may entitle the family to compensation if it has caused a reduction in the length or quality of life. In the UK, all deaths related to asbestos or pneumoconiosis should be reported to the coroner. It is the duty of the Registrar of Births, Deaths and Marriages to report a death to the coroner, but doctors should also be aware of the circumstances that require reporting. These include unknown causes of death, violent or unnatural deaths, deaths due to accidents, self-neglect or neglect by others, industrial illnesses or employment-related deaths, deaths due to abortion, deaths during or after an operation, suicides, deaths in police custody, and deaths due to acute intoxication.
Regarding deaths due to neglect, it is important to note that the fifth option does not necessarily require reporting to the coroner. When a patient dies, the paperwork asks whether they had an operation within the last year of life and whether it had a direct effect on shortening their life. Cases where a pulmonary embolism occurs two months after a procedure, for example, must be assessed individually to determine whether it is directly related to the operation. It is increasingly important to appropriately report deaths, particularly in light of recent inquiries and legislation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with a 24-hour history of increasing restlessness, agitation, vomiting, diarrhoea and tremors. Upon examination, he displays hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia and myoclonus, with a particular emphasis on the lower limbs. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. He has recently begun taking St John's wort to alleviate his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately attended by the Foundation Year One Doctor who notices that his airway has been compromised. The patient is immediately examined and found to be haemodynamically stable, with a history of hypertension and asthma. The anaesthetist immediately performs a rapid sequence induction and intubation (RSII) to clear the patient’s airway.
Which of the following inducing agents used in RSII is most likely to be used in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Common Inducing Anaesthetic Agents and Their Uses
Propofol, etomidate, ketamine, midazolam, and thiopental are all commonly used inducing anaesthetic agents with varying properties and uses.
Propofol is the drug of choice for RSII procedures in normotensive individuals without obvious cardiovascular pathology. It has amnesic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties, but no analgesic effects.
Etomidate provides haemodynamic stability without histamine activity and minimal analgesic effects. It is used in RSI procedures in patients with raised intracranial pressure and cardiovascular conditions, often in combination with fentanyl.
Ketamine is a non-competitive glutamate N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocker that produces dissociative anaesthesia. It can be used for induction of anaesthesia in patients with hypotension, status asthmaticus, and shock, but is avoided in hypertensive patients due to relative contraindications.
Midazolam is a benzodiazepine with anticonvulsive, muscle relaxant, and anaesthetic actions. At higher doses or in combination with other opioids, it induces significant cardiovascular and respiratory depression.
Thiopental is administered intravenously as an inducing anaesthetic agent or as a short-acting anaesthetic. It is also used as an anticonvulsant agent and to decrease intracranial pressure in neurosurgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, a mother of three, comes to see you on day 20 postpartum and asks for contraception. She is currently alternating between breastfeeding and bottle-feeding her newborn, struggling with sleepless nights, and wants a referral for Fallopian tube ligation as she explains that, at present, she does not want any other children. She is a smoker.
Which of the following is the best method of contraception in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Explanation:Contraception Options for Postpartum Women: A Guide for Healthcare Providers
Postpartum women have unique contraceptive needs and considerations. In this guide, we will discuss the various contraception options available for postpartum women and their suitability based on individual circumstances.
Progesterone-Only Pill
The progesterone-only pill is a safe option for women who are breastfeeding and < six weeks postpartum. It can be started immediately after delivery and is the first-line management for women who cannot take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The pill thickens mucous, preventing sperm from entering the uterus, and suppresses ovulation. However, compliance can be an issue, and long-acting progesterone contraceptives may be more appropriate. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP) The COCP should not be used before six weeks postpartum in breastfeeding women and before 21 days in non-breastfeeding women. A risk assessment should be performed, and contraindications, such as smoking and age over 35, should be considered. Intrauterine System The intrauterine system is a highly effective long-acting reversible contraceptive that can be inserted at the time of delivery or within the first 48 hours postpartum. Delayed insertion until after four weeks postpartum is recommended to reduce the risk of uterine perforation. No Contraception Required Breastfeeding can suppress ovulation, but if a woman is not exclusively breastfeeding, contraception should be offered. The patient’s wishes should be established, and contraception should be discussed at the 6-week postpartum check. Tubal Ligation (Sterilisation) Tubal ligation is a permanent form of contraception that should not be considered until after six weeks postpartum. The patient should be counselled regarding the risks and benefits, the low success of reversibility, and the possibility of future desire for children. Male sterilisation should be considered first, and both partners should be present for the consultation. In conclusion, healthcare providers should consider individual circumstances and preferences when discussing contraception options with postpartum women. A thorough risk assessment and counselling should be performed before recommending any form of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old soccer player suddenly collapses during a game. He is immediately taken to the Emergency department where he is diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. Despite successful defibrillation, he experiences a recurrence of ventricular tachycardia and unfortunately passes away after prolonged resuscitation. The 12 lead ECG taken after resuscitation reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a possible cause of sudden arrhythmia in a young, previously healthy individual. It is recommended that relatives of the patient be screened for the condition. Most patients with HCM have an abnormal resting electrocardiogram (ECG), which may show left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, T-wave inversion, right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement. Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation occurs in about 20% of cases and is linked to an increased risk of fatal cardiac failure. Drug abuse is not a likely cause, and aortic stenosis is rare without congenital or rheumatic heart disease. Myocardial infarction and massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes.
In summary, HCM is a possible cause of sudden arrhythmia in young, previously healthy individuals. ECG findings may include left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, T-wave inversion, and various arrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is a common complication and is associated with an increased risk of fatal cardiac failure. Relatives of the patient should be screened for the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female medical student experiences severe epigastric pain, following an evening indulging in large amounts of fatty foods. She went to visit her general practitioner (GP) who, upon further investigation, organised an analysis of her lipoprotein profile.
Analysis showed a deficiency of apolipoprotein (apo) C-II; all other lipoproteins were normal.
Which of the following profiles is plasma electrophoresis most likely to show?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs
Explanation:Understanding Lipoprotein Abnormalities: Causes and Clinical Features
Lipoprotein abnormalities can lead to various health conditions, including atherosclerosis and pancreatitis. The Frederickson classification system categorizes hyperlipoproteinaemias based on their underlying defects, serum abnormalities, and clinical features.
One common cause of elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs is a deficiency in apo C-II, an essential cofactor of lipoprotein lipase. This deficiency impairs the hydrolysis of triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDLs, resulting in their accumulation in the bloodstream.
On the other hand, low VLDL levels and no other changes may indicate a deficiency in VLDL production. However, it is important to note that low levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs may not necessarily indicate a deficiency in either lipoprotein. In fact, both chylomicrons and VLDLs would be expected to be high in this scenario.
Understanding the causes and clinical features of lipoprotein abnormalities is crucial in diagnosing and managing related health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a 'pop' in his right foot while attempting a kick. He experienced significant pain and was unable to properly bear weight on the affected side. He is brought to the emergency department. During the examination, he is instructed to lie face down with his feet hanging off the edge of the examination bed. Upon squeezing the calf on the affected leg, there was no movement of his foot. What would be the primary imaging technique to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Ultrasound is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing a suspected Achilles tendon rupture. This is because it is a quick and easy test to carry out and can provide an accurate diagnosis in the first instance. The patient’s presentation, including an audible pop and Simmonds’ test positivity, strongly suggests an Achilles tendon rupture. While CT and MRI scans can also detect this injury, they are not the first-line choice due to their higher radiation exposure and longer testing times. Dismissing the need for imaging and assuming a simple sprain would be incorrect in this case, as the patient requires further testing to confirm or rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Among cancers, certain types are linked to specific genetic mutations that act as 'drivers'. For a 34-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with left-sided renal cell carcinoma, a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, and retinal haemangioblastomas, which gene is most likely to have a germline mutation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: VHL
Explanation:Genes and Cancer: An Overview of VHL, BRCA, APC, EGFR, and MEN1
Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic mutations. In this article, we will provide an overview of five genes that have been linked to different types of cancer: VHL, BRCA, APC, EGFR, and MEN1.
VHL Syndrome
VHL syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition associated with benign and malignant tumour formation on various organs of the body. It is caused by mutations in the VHL gene, found on the short arm of chromosome 3 and codes for the VHL protein, a tumour suppressor protein. VHL syndrome is associated with central nervous system and retinal haemangioblastomas, renal cysts and renal cell carcinoma, phaeochromocytoma, pancreatic cysts/tumours, and liver cysts.
BRCA Genes
The BRCA-1 gene (located on the long arm of chromosome 17) and BRCA2 gene (located on the long arm of chromosome 13) code for tumour suppressor proteins. Mutations in these two genes are linked with breast, ovarian, and prostate cancers.
APC Gene
The APC gene found on the long arm of chromosome 5 codes for the APC protein, a tumour suppressor protein. Mutations in the APC gene are associated with familial adenomatous polyposis, desmoid tumours, and primary macronodular adrenal hyperplasia.
EGFR Gene
The EGFR gene, located on the short arm of chromosome 7, codes for a protein called the epidermal growth factor receptor. Mutations in the EGFR gene have been linked to lung cancer, typically adenocarcinomas.
MEN1 Gene
The MEN1 gene, located on the long arm of chromosome 11, codes for menin protein, a tumour suppressor. Mutations in the MEN1 gene have been linked to multiple endocrine neoplasia (type 1), parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumours, bronchial carcinoids, and familial isolated hyperparathyroidism.
In conclusion, understanding the role of these genes in cancer can help with early detection, prevention, and treatment of various types of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 98
Incorrect
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As an investigator, you will be participating in a clinical trial of a new antihypertensive agent. The drug has already been tested on healthy volunteers, but this trial will be the first to involve patients. The aim of the trial is to determine the optimal dosage for therapy, which will be used in future studies. Are you ready to take part in this clinical trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 2 study
Explanation:Phases of Clinical Trials
Clinical trials are conducted in several phases to determine the safety and efficacy of a new drug. The first phase, known as phase 1, involves testing the drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety. In phase 2, the drug is tested on patients across a range of doses to establish the most effective dose with respect to clinical efficacy and adverse events. The third phase, known as phase 3, involves expanding the number of patients to confirm the drug’s efficacy and adverse event profile. This phase is conducted prior to registration. Finally, in phase 4, the drug is tested post-marketing to support clinical endpoints for reimbursement or to support marketing messages. These phases are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of a new drug before it is made available to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and sharp pain on the right side of her chest that worsens during inspiration. She also reports experiencing occasional joint pain in her hands for the past four months. During the physical examination, mild erythema is observed over her cheeks. What is the most sensitive investigation for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:Raised titre levels of Antistreptolysin O may indicate recent streptococcal infection or rheumatic fever.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain for the past 2 days and vomiting for the past 24 hours. She has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and hysterectomy 20 years ago. During the examination, her abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of previous intra-abdominal surgery, it is highly probable that they are suffering from small bowel obstruction caused by adhesions. Symptoms typically include early vomiting and later absolute constipation. Treatment involves administering IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube. Diagnostic tests such as an abdominal x-ray to check for dilated bowel loops and an erect chest x-ray to detect pneumoperitoneum may be necessary. If conservative treatment fails to improve the patient’s condition, a CT scan may be required to determine the location and type of obstruction. Close collaboration with the surgical team is also recommended.
Imaging for Bowel Obstruction
Bowel obstruction is a condition that requires immediate medical attention. One of the key indications for diagnosing this condition is through imaging, particularly an abdominal film. The imaging process is done to identify whether the obstruction is in the small or large bowel.
In small bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 35 mm, and the valvulae conniventes extend all the way across. On the other hand, in large bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 55 mm, and the haustra extend about a third of the way across.
A CT scan is also used to diagnose small bowel obstruction. The scan shows distension of small bowel loops proximally, such as the duodenum and jejunum, with an abrupt transition to an intestinal segment of normal caliber. Additionally, a small amount of free fluid intracavity may be present.
In summary, imaging is a crucial tool in diagnosing bowel obstruction. It helps identify the location of the obstruction and the extent of the damage. Early detection and treatment of bowel obstruction can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis
When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.
Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.
In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.
However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.
He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.
What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis line infection
Explanation:Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection
When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.
While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents with the classic murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus. The child is underweight for their age but is otherwise in good health.
What course of action would you suggest for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early operative closure
Explanation:Recommendations for Operative Closure and Antibiotic Use in Persistent Defects
Early operative closure is advised for patients with defects that have not resolved by 6 months of age. It is important to address these defects promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes. However, prophylactic antibiotics are no longer recommended for dental and other invasive procedures in these patients. This change in practice is due to concerns about antibiotic resistance and the potential for adverse effects. Instead, careful monitoring and prompt treatment of any infections or complications that arise is recommended. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the best possible outcomes for patients with persistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family
Explanation:It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has been experiencing left shoulder pain for the last five years. Recently, this pain has become more severe, and he has been advised to undergo a left shoulder replacement surgery. The patient has a history of diabetes and high blood pressure, but no other medical conditions. During his preoperative evaluation, the patient inquires about eating and drinking before the surgery, as he will not be staying overnight and will be arriving at the hospital on the day of the procedure.
What is the appropriate information to provide to this patient regarding fasting times for elective surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You can eat solids up to six hours before, clear fluids two hours before and carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before
Explanation:Pre-Operative Fasting Guidelines: What You Need to Know
When it comes to preparing for surgery, there are certain guidelines that patients must follow regarding their food and drink intake. Contrary to popular belief, patients do not always need to fast for extended periods of time before their procedure.
According to recent studies, prolonged fasting may not be necessary to prepare for the stress of surgery. However, there are still some important guidelines to follow. Patients should stop eating solid foods six hours before their operation, and most patients having morning surgery are made nil by mouth from midnight. Clear fluids can be consumed up to two hours before the procedure, but carbohydrate-rich drinks should be stopped two hours before surgery.
Carbohydrate-rich drinks are often used in enhanced recovery programs to increase energy stores postoperatively and aid in recovery and mobilization. It is important to note that eating solids two hours before the procedure can increase the risk of residual solids in the stomach at induction of anesthesia.
In summary, patients should follow these guidelines: stop eating solids six hours before surgery, stop consuming carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before surgery, and continue clear fluids up until two hours before the procedure. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure a safe and successful surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the labour ward at 38+4 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy and she reports that contractions began approximately 12 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is positioned anteriorly, is soft, and is effaced at around 60-70%. Cervical dilation is estimated at around 3-4 cm and the fetal head is located at the level of the ischial spines. No interventions have been performed yet.
What is the recommended intervention at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No interventions required
Explanation:The patient’s cervical dilation is 3-4 cm with a fetal station of 0, and her Bishop’s score is 10. Since her labor has only been ongoing for 10 hours, no interventions are necessary. A Bishop’s score of 8 or higher indicates a high likelihood of spontaneous labor, and for first-time mothers, the first stage of labor can last up to 12 hours. If the Bishop’s score is less than 5, induction may be necessary, and vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method.
If other methods fail to induce labor or if vaginal prostaglandin E2 is not suitable, amniotomy may be performed. However, this procedure carries the risk of infection, umbilical cord prolapse, and breech presentation if the fetal head is not engaged. Maternal oxytocin infusion may be used if labor is not progressing, but it is not appropriate in this scenario at this stage due to the risk of uterine hyperstimulation.
A membrane sweep is a procedure where a finger is inserted vaginally and through the cervix to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua. This is an adjunct to labor induction and is typically offered to first-time mothers at 40/41 weeks.
Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.
The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is presenting to the low clearance clinic with chronic kidney disease of unknown origin. He is experiencing general malaise, fatigue, and shortness of breath. His GFR has remained stable at 15 with a baseline creatinine of 385 μmol/L (and urea of 21 mmol/L) for over a year. However, recent blood work shows abnormal levels of Na, K, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, Ca, Phos, Hb, and MCV.
Which medication would be the most beneficial to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin
Explanation:Recommended Treatment for a Patient with CKD Stage 5
Of the drugs listed, erythropoietin is the most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 who is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath due to low hemoglobin levels. However, it is important to check the patient’s haematinics to ensure that iron, B12, or folate supplementation would not be more beneficial. Alfacalcidol is typically used to treat hyperparathyroidism, but it is not necessary for CKD stage 5 patients until their parathyroid hormone levels rise above 28 pmol/L, according to the Renal Association Guidelines. Since the patient’s bicarbonate levels are normal, oral supplementation is not required. Calcichew D3 and sevelamer are phosphate binders that prevent hyperphosphataemia, but they are not necessary for this patient. For further information, refer to the Renal Association Clinical Practice Guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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During a postoperative ward round, you are instructed to ask a nurse to clean a patient's surgical wound during dressing change. The patient is 48 hours post-surgery. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable substance to be used for wound cleaning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sterile saline
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to clean postoperative wounds with sterile saline for up to 48 hours after surgery. Patients can safely take a shower 48 hours after surgery. If the surgical wound has separated or has been opened to drain pus, tap water can be used for wound cleansing after 48 hours. This information can be found in section 1.4 of NICE guideline CG74.
Understanding the Stages of Wound Healing
Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages. The type of wound, whether it is incisional or excisional, and its level of contamination will affect the contributions of each stage. The four main stages of wound healing are haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling.
Haemostasis occurs within minutes to hours following injury and involves the formation of a platelet plug and fibrin-rich clot. Inflammation typically occurs within the first five days and involves the migration of neutrophils into the wound, the release of growth factors, and the replication and migration of fibroblasts. Regeneration occurs from day 7 to day 56 and involves the stimulation of fibroblasts and epithelial cells, the production of a collagen network, and the formation of granulation tissue. Remodeling is the longest phase and can last up to one year or longer. During this phase, collagen fibers are remodeled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.
However, several diseases and conditions can distort the wound healing process. For example, vascular disease, shock, and sepsis can impair microvascular flow and healing. Jaundice can also impair fibroblast synthetic function and immunity, which can have a detrimental effect on the healing process.
Hypertrophic and keloid scars are two common problems that can occur during wound healing. Hypertrophic scars contain excessive amounts of collagen within the scar and may develop contractures. Keloid scars also contain excessive amounts of collagen but extend beyond the boundaries of the original injury and do not regress over time.
Several drugs can impair wound healing, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, immunosuppressive agents, and anti-neoplastic drugs. Closure of the wound can be achieved through delayed primary closure or secondary closure, depending on the timing and extent of granulation tissue formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall on his outstretched hand. He complains of tenderness at the base of his thumb, specifically when pressure is applied to the base of the anatomical snuffbox. An X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the scaphoid waist. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cast for 6-8 weeks
Explanation:Non-displaced fractures of the scaphoid waist are commonly treated with a cast for a period of 6-8 weeks. These types of fractures often occur as a result of falls on outstretched hands (FOOSH), and may not be visible on an X-ray for up to 7 days. Surgery, such as external fixation or open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), is not typically necessary for non-displaced fractures of the small carpal bones. Splinting and bandaging are also not recommended as they do not provide sufficient stability for proper healing and may result in non-union of the fracture. Conservative care with ice packs and NSAIDs is also not appropriate for this type of injury.
Understanding Scaphoid Fractures
A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.
Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
What is the primary reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about gentamicin treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May produce ventilatory failure in sensitive patients
Explanation:Aminoglycosides and Their Side Effects
Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that can cause oto and renal toxicity, which is why drug concentrations need to be closely monitored during treatment. These antibiotics are primarily excreted by the kidneys, so any impairment in renal function can lead to increased toxicity. Additionally, a rare side effect of aminoglycosides is ventilatory failure, which is associated with impaired neuromuscular junction conduction. Therefore, patients with myasthenia gravis should not be given aminoglycosides.
Aminoglycosides are administered intravenously and cannot be taken orally because they are denatured in the digestive system. It is important to note that these antibiotics are reserved for serious infections due to their potential for toxicity. Patients receiving aminoglycosides should be closely monitored for any signs of toxicity, including hearing loss, kidney damage, and neuromuscular weakness. Overall, aminoglycosides are effective antibiotics, but their use should be carefully considered and monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension is undergoing an eye examination. He has been experiencing deteriorating headaches and reduced visual acuity over the past few weeks. Upon fundoscopy, he displays flame haemorrhages, cotton wool spots, arteriovenous nipping, and papilloedema. What level of hypertensive retinopathy does this correspond to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade IV
Explanation:Grade IV hypertensive retinopathy is indicated by papilloedema, which is a severe manifestation that requires immediate attention due to its association with high morbidity and mortality. The various grades of hypertensive retinopathy have distinct characteristics, which are outlined below.
Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification
Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old nursing home resident with end-stage dementia has an acute bowel obstruction; she is not a suitable candidate for surgical intervention.
Which of the following medications may be most effective in reducing her discomfort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loperamide hydrochloride
Explanation:Medications for Managing Bowel Obstruction in End-of-Life Care
Bowel obstruction during end-of-life care can be managed without surgery or nasogastric tube placement. Loperamide hydrochloride, an antidiarrhoeal medication, can provide relief by reducing bowel motility when used with an opiate analgesic. Ondansetron, an antiemetic, can treat nausea but may cause constipation by slowing gastric stasis. Dexamethasone can alleviate bowel discomfort by reducing inflammation and oedema caused by a tumour obstructing the bowel. Lorazepam can help alleviate distress or anxiety caused by symptoms, but it does not improve them. Paracetamol is a weak analgesic and is unlikely to relieve discomfort in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 114
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the bank holiday weekend. Admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the right lower zone of the lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It occurs when someone inhales foreign material, such as vomit, into their lungs. If an alcoholic is found unconscious and has a consolidation in the lower zone of their lungs, it is highly likely that they have aspiration pneumonia. Antibiotics should be prescribed accordingly.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is another condition that can cause breathlessness and consolidation on chest X-ray. However, it is unlikely to develop in a hospital setting and does not typically cause a fever. Treatment involves prednisolone and sometimes itraconazole.
Tuberculosis (TB) is becoming more common in the UK and Europe, especially among immunosuppressed individuals like alcoholics. However, TB usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs, and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days prior makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
Staphylococcal pneumonia can occur in alcoholics, but it is characterized by cavitating lesions and often accompanied by empyema.
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is also common in immunosuppressed individuals and causes bilateral perihilar consolidations, sometimes with pneumatocele formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous macrosomia
Explanation:It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.
She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.
During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.
Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology
This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.
It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection
Explanation:Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 118
Incorrect
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As part of a palliative care attachment for final-year medical students, the consultant is discussing non-pharmacological options for managing pain symptoms. The focus is on herbal therapies that have been clinically proven to provide analgesic benefits in palliative care.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capsaicin
Explanation:Natural Remedies for Pain Relief: A Look at Capsaicin, Arnica, Cod Liver Oil, Clove Oil, and Echinacea
When it comes to managing pain, many people turn to natural remedies. Among these remedies are capsaicin, arnica, cod liver oil, clove oil, and echinacea. Capsaicin, which is found in chilli peppers, has been shown in several studies to be effective in treating neuropathic-type pain. Arnica, on the other hand, has been found to be no more effective than placebo for pain relief. Cod liver oil, when taken with NSAIDs, has not been shown to have a significant analgesic effect for osteoarthritis pain compared to placebo. Clove oil is commonly used for dental pain, gastrointestinal upset, nausea, and vomiting, but there is no published research on its pain relief properties. Finally, echinacea is often used for colds and respiratory infections, but there is no published research on its analgesic effects. While natural remedies can be a helpful addition to pain management, it’s important to do your research and consult with a healthcare professional before trying any new treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:
Hb 85 g/l
WBC 6 * 109/l
Platelets 89 * 109/l
Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
ALP 215 u/l
ALT 260 u/l
γGT 72 u/l
LDH 846 u/I
A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of pain and swelling in his left big toe. He has just begun treatment for active tuberculosis. Which of the following drugs is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyrazinamide
Explanation:Although there have been reports of gout being caused by ethambutol, it is not currently listed as a known side effect in the British National Formulary (BNF).
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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Which statement about leptin is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produces satiety
Explanation:The Role of Leptin in Regulating Appetite and Body Weight
Leptin is a hormone that is produced by adipocytes, or fat cells, and its concentration in the bloodstream is directly related to the amount of fat in the body. When leptin levels are high, it acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to produce feelings of satiety, or fullness, which can help to reduce food intake. This makes leptin an important regulator of appetite and body weight.
However, in some cases, patients may develop leptin resistance, which means that their bodies are no longer able to respond to the hormone in the same way. This can lead to continued weight gain and difficulty in controlling food intake, even when leptin levels are high. Despite this, researchers continue to study the role of leptin in the body and explore potential treatments for obesity and other related conditions.
Overall, the physiology of leptin and its effects on appetite and body weight is an important area of research that has the potential to improve the health and well-being of millions of people around the world. By developing new treatments and interventions that target leptin and other related hormones, we may be able to help patients achieve and maintain a healthy weight and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who works in a meat processing plant comes to the Emergency department with a skin ulcer that has a black center. She reports that it started as a small itchy bump that turned into an ulcer a few days later.
What is the probable bacterium responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus anthracis
Explanation:Anthrax: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis, a spore-forming bacterium. It is a rare but serious disease that can be acquired through contact with infected animals or contaminated animal products. There are three main types of anthrax: cutaneous, inhalation, and intestinal.
Cutaneous anthrax is the most common type, accounting for 95% of cases. It is caused by direct contact with the skin or tissue of infected animals. The symptoms start with an itchy pimple that enlarges and eventually forms a black eschar. Inhalation anthrax, on the other hand, is caused by inhaling anthrax spores from infected animal products such as wool. The initial symptoms are similar to a cold, but respiratory failure may develop two to four days later. Intestinal anthrax is the rarest form and is caused by swallowing spores in contaminated meats. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, nausea, and bloody diarrhea.
Antibiotics are used to treat all three types of anthrax. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible after exposure to ensure maximum efficacy. The anthrax vaccine can also be given in combination with antibiotics. the types, symptoms, and treatment of anthrax is crucial in preventing and managing this serious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He is currently taking ramipril, pioglitazone, metformin, simvastatin, and acarbose. During previous examinations, he has been found to have microalbuminuria and a decreasing eGFR. His most recent eGFR measurement was 29 ml/minute/1.73 m2. He has an average build and height.
Which medication should be discontinued?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Using eGFR to Determine Dose Adjustments in Renal Impairment
Published information on the effects of renal impairment on drug elimination often uses creatinine clearance as a measure of glomerular filtration rate. However, in patients of average build and height, laboratories may report estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) based on the modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula. This can be used to determine appropriate dose adjustments for medications.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends avoiding metformin if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2 due to the risk of lactic acidosis. This is a serious condition that can occur when metformin accumulates in the body due to impaired renal function. By using eGFR to guide dose adjustments, healthcare providers can help prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe and effective medication use in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with mild vaginal bleeding. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a relatively large mass on the right side of the pelvis. The patient undergoes an abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with contrast injection. The scan shows multiple enlarged lymph nodes in the pelvis, along the iliac arteries. The para-aortic lymph nodes appear normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Gynaecological Malignancies: Understanding the Differences
When a postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding, pelvic mass, and pelvic lymphadenopathy, it is important to consider the different types of Gynaecological malignancies that could be causing these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis in this case is cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which typically metastasises to the pelvic lymph nodes along the iliac arteries.
While endometrial carcinoma (adenocarcinoma) is the most common Gynaecological malignancy, it would also be a possibility in this patient. Ovarian cancer, the second most common Gynaecological cancer, typically metastasises to the para-aortic lymph nodes and is not associated with vaginal bleeding.
Vulval cancers tend to metastasise to the superficial inguinal node and are unlikely to present with a pelvic mass or vaginal bleeding. Cervical adenocarcinomas are rare and derived from the endocervix, while uterine leiomyosarcoma often extends beyond the uterine serosa and occasionally metastasises to distant organs through blood vessels. However, neither of these malignancies typically present with vaginal bleeding and pelvic lymphadenopathy.
In summary, understanding the differences between the various types of Gynaecological malignancies is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination, she has a tender left iliac fossa.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test (ß-hCG)
Explanation:Investigations for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
When a woman of childbearing age presents with abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of gynaecological problems, including ectopic pregnancy. The first step in investigation should be to ask about the patient’s last menstrual period and sexual history, and to perform a pregnancy test measuring β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) levels in urine or serum.
Proctoscopy is unlikely to be beneficial in the absence of specific gastrointestinal symptoms. Ultrasonography may be useful at a later stage to assess the location and severity of an ectopic pregnancy, but transvaginal ultrasound is preferable to transcutaneous abdominal ultrasound.
Specialist gynaecological opinion should only be sought once there is a high index of suspicion for a particular diagnosis. Laparoscopy is not indicated at this point, as less invasive tests are likely to yield the diagnosis. Exploratory laparoscopy may be considered if other investigations are inconclusive.
Investigating Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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What investigation would be most useful in determining the level of pubertal development in males?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left wrist x ray
Explanation:The Use of Wrist X-Ray in Assessing Pubertal Development
Wrist x-ray is a valuable tool in determining bone age and assessing pubertal development in children with short stature. By examining the epiphyseal plates, it is possible to compare bone age and chronological age, and identify any discrepancies that may be due to delayed puberty. In girls, an ultrasound of the uterus may also be used to estimate pubertal development based on endometrial thickness.
While cortisol and growth hormone levels are not correlated with pubertal stage, testosterone levels can indicate whether a boy has entered puberty. However, they do not provide information on how far along in puberty he may be. It is important to note that hormone levels can be affected by various factors and may have diurnal variations.
Overall, wrist x-ray and other assessments of pubertal development can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in monitoring the growth and development of children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 127
Incorrect
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In which metabolic pathway is acetyl-CoA a significant substrate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:The Significance of Acetyl-CoA in Cellular Energy Status and Metabolism
Acetyl-CoA is a molecule that is produced through glycolysis and beta-oxidation of fatty acids. It plays a crucial role in the production of NADH and FADH2, which are essential substrates for oxidative phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle. The concentration of intracellular acetyl-CoA reflects the energy status of the cell, with high concentrations indicating a high energy status. This is significant because acetyl-CoA regulates the balance between catabolic and anabolic pathways in the cell, favoring the latter when there is an excess of acetyl-CoA.
One of the primary uses of acetyl-CoA is in the synthesis of fatty acids, which is increased in cells with high acetyl-CoA concentrations. Acetyl-CoA also inhibits its own production from pyruvate through a complex mechanism that involves allosterically activating pyruvate carboxylase. This enzyme usually competes with pyruvate dehydrogenase for pyruvate, but the product of the pyruvate carboxylase reaction, oxaloacetate, enters the gluconeogenic pathway.
Acetyl-CoA is also involved in other metabolic processes, such as the formation of HMG-CoA, which is required for both ketone and cholesterol synthesis. The enzyme HMG-CoA reductase is the target for statins in cholesterol synthesis. Overall, the significance of acetyl-CoA in cellular energy status and metabolism highlights its crucial role in regulating the balance between catabolic and anabolic pathways in the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third suicide attempt in the past two years. She had cut her wrist at home and was brought to the hospital after her sister found her unconscious. She was successfully resuscitated, received a blood transfusion, and was discharged after a few days in hospital. She has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder since her teenage years and works in retail. She is currently single after having had unsuccessful relationships in the past. She consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and smokes around ten cigarettes a day. She is currently taking lithium for her mental illness. She is otherwise healthy and does not suffer from any medical conditions. What will be included in her long-term risk management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks
Explanation:Best Practices for Suicide Risk Management
Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks is recommended by NICE to identify the needs of the patient and potential risks. However, the use of risk assessment tools to predict future danger is not advised due to their limited predictive value. Instead, a holistic approach considering biological, psychological, and social factors is more effective in identifying patients at high risk of suicide.
Establishing a crisis plan with the patient is part of the risk management strategy advocated by NICE. This plan includes self-management strategies and guidance on accessing emergency services if necessary. Asking about suicide plans and establishing a crisis plan does not increase suicide risk.
Confidentiality is crucial in the doctor-patient relationship, but it may need to be broken if the patient poses a serious risk to themselves or others. Therefore, informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained is incorrect.
While psychiatric medications are commonly used to manage underlying mental illnesses, NICE advises against prescribing them specifically to reduce self-harm. A tailored approach to medication management is necessary for each patient.
Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to suicide risk management is essential for effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients
Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’
Explanation:Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests
Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.
If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.
It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus visits his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about his deteriorating glycaemic control. The GP suspects poor compliance with diet and medication. What is the most effective approach to enhance his compliance during a brief consultation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motivational interview
Explanation:Effective Psychological Interventions in Primary Care
Primary care settings are often the first point of contact for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions. To provide effective care, healthcare professionals can employ various psychological interventions. Here are some of the most effective ones:
Motivational Interviewing: This patient-centred approach involves resisting a didactic course of action, understanding the reasons for the change in behaviour, listening to the patient’s ideas, concerns or expectations, and empowering the patient to understand they are able to change their behaviour. It has been proven to increase compliance with medication.
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): This talking therapy explores the patient’s understanding, concepts and reactions towards a certain problem, gradually building behavioural changes to challenge the concepts and manage the problem. It is used predominantly in the treatment of anxiety and depression, but can also be employed in many other mental health or physical conditions.
Self-Help Materials: Self-help materials in the form of leaflets and aids are a useful tool in the primary care setting, but the patient needs to be motivated for change in order for these to work.
Psychotherapy: This form of counselling employs various techniques to induce behavioural changes and habits that will stay with the patient in the long term. This requires a set amount of sessions over a period of time and therefore, cannot be performed in a short consultation.
Supportive Counselling: This psychological intervention has been shown to be best suited for treating mild to moderate depression and can be used in combination with other methods such as CBT.
By employing these psychological interventions, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions in primary care settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of left groin pain, associated with a lump that seems to come and go.
Following examination, the clinician deduces that the swelling is most likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia.
Indirect inguinal hernias can be controlled at:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.3 cm above the mid-point of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:Understanding Inguinal Hernias: Key Landmarks and Assessment Techniques
Inguinal hernias are a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Understanding the key landmarks and assessment techniques can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
Deep Inguinal Ring: The location of the deep inguinal ring is 1.3 cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Indirect hernias originate from this area.
Pubic Tubercle: The pubic tubercle is a landmark that distinguishes between inguinal hernias and femoral hernias. Inguinal hernias emerge above and medial to the tubercle, while femoral hernias emerge below and lateral.
Hasselbach’s Triangle: This is the area where direct hernias protrude through the abdominal wall. The triangle consists of the inferior epigastric vessels superiorly and laterally, the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly.
Inferior Epigastric Vessels: Direct hernias are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while indirect hernias arise lateral to these vessels. However, this assessment can only be carried out during surgery when these vessels are visible.
Scrotum: If a lump is present within the scrotum and cannot be palpated above, it is most likely an indirect hernia.
By understanding these key landmarks and assessment techniques, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage inguinal hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in the back of his legs bilaterally after walking about 150 yards. The sensation subsides after resting. His ABPI is 0.8. What is the primary imaging modality recommended for further evaluation of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duplex ultrasound
Explanation:The recommended first-line imaging modality for peripheral artery disease is duplex ultrasound. While other imaging techniques such as CTA, MRA, and catheter-based angiography can also be used, they are not the primary options. It is important to note that imaging should only be performed if it is likely to provide valuable information for the patient’s management. Duplex ultrasound followed by MRA, if necessary, is considered the most accurate, safe, and cost-effective imaging strategy for individuals with PAD, according to NICE guidelines. Based on the ABPI reading, sciatica is unlikely in this scenario.
Understanding Peripheral Arterial Disease: Intermittent Claudication
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) can present in three main patterns, one of which is intermittent claudication. This condition is characterized by aching or burning in the leg muscles following walking, which is typically relieved within minutes of stopping. Patients can usually walk for a predictable distance before the symptoms start, and the pain is not present at rest.
To assess for intermittent claudication, healthcare professionals should check the femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis, and dorsalis pedis pulses. They should also perform an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) test, which measures the ratio of blood pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. A normal ABPI result is 1, while a result between 0.6-0.9 indicates claudication. A result between 0.3-0.6 suggests rest pain, and a result below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss.
Duplex ultrasound is the first-line investigation for PAD, while magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) should be performed prior to any intervention. Understanding the symptoms and assessment of intermittent claudication is crucial for early detection and management of PAD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
Urine dip shows:
frank haematuria
blood 2+
protein 2+.
He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones
Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:
1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.
2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.
3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.
It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)
Explanation:Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations
Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.
Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.
Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.
Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.
Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.
Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.
By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with new symptoms of flushing, severe insomnia, and headaches. She has a medical history of asthma and a spontaneous deep vein thrombosis. These symptoms are affecting her daily routine, and she has not had her period for 12 months. After discussing the benefits and risks of hormonal replacement therapy, they decide to start treatment. What is the most suitable hormonal replacement therapy regimen for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal estradiol and levonorgestrel
Explanation:For women at risk of venous thromboembolism, transdermal HRT is the recommended option. In the case of a patient presenting with severe menopausal symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches, hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) may be prescribed after weighing the benefits and risks.
If the patient has a uterus, oral estradiol only should not be prescribed as it can cause endometrial hyperplasia and increase the risk of malignancy. Oral estradiol and levonorgestrel are a common combination for HRT, but in the case of a patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis, transdermal delivery is a more appropriate option as it does not increase the risk of developing a new clot compared to oral options.
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system can also be prescribed as HRT, but in this case, transdermal delivery is still the preferred option due to the patient’s medical history. Oral levonorgestrel alone is not used as HRT as it does not address the lack of estrogen that causes menopausal symptoms.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 138
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy, haematuria, haemoptysis, hypertension, and a right loin mass, and whose CT scan shows a lesion in the upper pole of the right kidney with a small cystic centre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The most frequent type of renal tumors are renal adenocarcinomas, which usually impact the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinomas, on the other hand, tend to affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastomas are extremely uncommon in this age range. While renal adenocarcinomas can cause cannonball metastases in the lungs that result in hemoptysis, this is not a characteristic of PKD.
Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.
Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.
Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.
Reference:
Lungberg B et al. EAU guidelines on renal cell carcinoma: The 2010 update. European Urology 2010 (58): 398-406. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 139
Incorrect
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You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy
Explanation:The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.
Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate
Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.
The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.
Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.
Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.
Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting. She reports this is mostly in the morning but has affected her a lot, as she is struggling to attend work. She can manage oral fluids, but she struggles mostly with eating. She has tried avoiding certain foods and has followed some conservative advice she found on the National Health Service (NHS) website, including ginger, and they have not helped. Her examination is unremarkable. Her documented pre-pregnancy weight is 60 kg, and today she weighs 65 kg. The patient is keen to try some medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Management of Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy: Medications and Considerations
Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are common and can range from mild to severe. Conservative measures such as dietary changes and ginger can be effective for mild symptoms, but oral anti-emetics are recommended for more severe cases. First-line medications include promethazine, cyclizine, and phenothiazines. If these fail, second-line medications such as ondansetron and metoclopramide may be prescribed. Severe cases may require hospital admission, parenteral anti-emetics, and fluid resuscitation. Thiamine is given to all women admitted with severe vomiting. Steroid treatments such as hydrocortisone should be reserved for specialist use. It is important to monitor for side-effects and consider referral to secondary care if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of constant abdominal pain. She tells you she has a history of peptic ulcers. The pain is worse with inspiration and movement.
On examination, there is rebound tenderness and guarding. There are absent bowel sounds. A chest X-ray shows free air under the diaphragm.
What clinical sign tells you that the peritonitis involves the whole abdomen and is not localised?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent bowel sounds
Explanation:Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Peritonitis
Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane lining the abdominal and pelvic cavity. It can be caused by various factors, including organ inflammation, viscus perforation, and bowel obstruction. Here are some of the common signs and symptoms of peritonitis:
Absent Bowel Sounds: This is the most indicative sign of generalised peritonitis, but it can also be present in paralytic ileus or complete bowel obstruction.
Guarding: This is the tensing of muscles of the abdominal wall, detected when palpating the abdomen, which protects an inflamed organ. It is present in localised and generalised peritonitis.
Pain Worse on Inspiration: Pain on inspiration can be a sign of either local or generalised peritonitis – the pain associated with peritonitis can be aggravated by any type of movement, including inspiration or coughing.
Rebound Tenderness: This is a clinical sign where pain is elicited upon removal of pressure from the abdomen, rather than on application of pressure. It is indicative of localised or generalised peritonitis.
Constant Abdominal Pain: This can have various causes, including bowel obstruction, necrotising enterocolitis, colonic infection, peritoneal dialysis, post-laparotomy or laparoscopy, and many more.
Understanding these signs and symptoms can help in the early detection and treatment of peritonitis. If you experience any of these symptoms, it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends who are concerned about his behavior. The patient's friends report that over the past few days the patient has hardly slept or eaten and is talking non-stop about a new business idea that he believes will make him a millionaire. He has also been spending a lot of money on his credit card and started making impulsive purchases. During the interview, the emergency department doctor observes that the patient is speaking rapidly and is difficult to interrupt. Despite the speed of his speech, the words themselves are coherent and follow a logical, albeit unusual, pattern of thought.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormal speech pattern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pressured speech
Explanation:Mania and Related Speech Patterns
Mania is a mental state characterized by elevated mood, energy, and activity levels. A patient presenting with decreased need for sleep, increased risk-taking behavior, and delusions of grandeur may be exhibiting symptoms of mania. One common speech pattern associated with mania is pressured speech, which is characterized by rapid speech that is difficult to interrupt.
Other speech patterns that may be observed in patients with mania include clanging, echolalia, neologism, and word salad. Clanging refers to the use of rhyming words, while echolalia involves repeating what the examiner says. Neologism refers to the creation of new words, and word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these speech patterns and other symptoms of mania in order to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients. By the characteristics of mania and related speech patterns, healthcare professionals can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with TB is undergoing induction phase treatment with Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Among these drugs, which one is most likely to result in peripheral neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid and Peripheral Neuropathy
Peripheral neuropathy is a common side-effect of isoniazid, according to the British National Formulary. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with pre-existing risk factors such as diabetes, alcohol dependence, chronic renal failure, pregnancy, malnutrition, and HIV infection. To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy, supplementation with pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is recommended.
In summary, isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. This side-effect is more likely to occur in individuals with certain risk factors, but can be prevented with the use of pyridoxine supplementation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential risks and take appropriate measures to prevent them in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. Once she is observed and tested, she is diagnosed with febrile convulsions. What advice should be given to her parents before they take her home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes, they should call an ambulance
Explanation:Paracetamol is commonly used to treat fever and pain in children. While there is a small chance of developing epilepsy, the risk is minimal. Additionally, there is no proof that paracetamol reduces the likelihood of future seizures.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 146
Incorrect
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Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.
On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appeared normal and there was no appendix inflammation.
What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
If the ultrasound scan does not show any signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis.
Since the patient has fibroids in her uterus, she is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, which is a common complication during pregnancy. Symptoms of fibroid degeneration may include fever, pain, and vomiting.
The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage.
While ovarian torsion can cause pain and vomiting, it typically occurs in patients with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or ovarian enlargement.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe bony pain. Despite being treated with increasing doses of opioids as an outpatient, he now reports experiencing intense pain in his right shoulder that worsens with movement. This pain is distinct from the metastatic bone pain he has been experiencing in his lower limbs. There is no history of trauma. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a shoulder x ray and give him a broad arm sling
Explanation:Managing Bony Pain in Patients with Metastatic Carcinoma
The common assumption is that all bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma is solely due to bone metastases. However, it is important to consider other possible causes, especially if the pain is worsened by movement and has a different character from known bone metastases. Patients with advanced malignancy are prone to low-force fractures, particularly in the neck of the humerus, even without a history of trauma.
Before increasing opioid dosage or adding NSAIDs, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and immobilize the fracture site. A broad arm sling can often provide sufficient pain relief. Bisphosphonates should not be used unless hypercalcemia has been confirmed. When a fracture is suspected, an x-ray is a simpler investigation modality than a bone scan or MRI. However, an MRI may be necessary to provide detail if a pathological fracture requires surgical repair, such as a neck of femur fracture associated with metastatic deposit.
While dexamethasone can be used as an adjunct in pain management, it should not be the next step. Proper diagnosis and immobilization of the fracture site should be the primary focus in managing bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral contraception. She is in good health, has no symptoms, and is not taking any medications. She does not smoke and has a BMI of 23 kg/m2. However, her blood pressure has been measured at 170/100 mmHg on multiple occasions. A thorough physical examination reveals no abnormalities, and her medical records show no history of hypertension.
The following test results were obtained:
- Sodium: 145 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
- Potassium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 89 mol/L (normal range: 60-110)
- Bicarbonate: 35 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
What is the most likely cause of her visit to the surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is the most likely diagnosis for a young patient with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. While the prevalence of this condition in unselected hypertensive patients is around 2%, it should be actively excluded in patients with these symptoms. A spot urine potassium test can be used as an initial investigation for hypokalaemia, with a level above 30 mmol/l indicating that GI loss and laxative abuse are unlikely. An elevated aldosterone:renin ratio is present in primary hyperaldosteronism, and blood test requirements should be discussed with the laboratory before investigation.
While diuretic abuse can cause hypokalaemia, it is much less common than primary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension is not typically present. Cushing’s syndrome, which is associated with hypokalaemia and alkalosis, can be screened for with a 24-hour urinary cortisol test, but this condition is less likely in a patient without other features of the syndrome. Addison’s disease, or hypoadrenalism, can be screened for with a short Synacthen test, which is used to detect hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered as a potential diagnosis in young patients with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Proper testing and screening can help rule out other potential causes of these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest pain that worsens on inspiration. She also experiences shortness of breath. She has no significant medical history or family history. Upon examination, she appears dyspnoeic, and a positive D-dimer test leads to a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, confirmed by a subsequent CT pulmonary angiogram. There is no clear cause for the embolism. As a result, she is started on anticoagulation therapy. How long should this treatment continue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:The typical duration of treatment for unprovoked pulmonary embolisms is 6 months, with first-line treatment now being direct oral anticoagulants. Patients are usually reviewed after 3 months, and if no cause was found, treatment is continued for a further 3 months. 3 months would be appropriate for provoked embolisms, but as there was no clear cause in this case, 6 months is more appropriate. 4 months is not a standard duration of treatment, and 12 months is not usual either, although the doctor may decide to extend treatment after review. In some cases, lifelong anticoagulation may be recommended if an underlying prothrombotic condition is found, but for this patient, 6 months is appropriate.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man was admitted to the Emergency Department after his roommate reported that he was afraid that the government had implanted a radio in his brain that was telling him to kill himself. Further evaluation revealed that he had many symptoms of schizophrenia and a decision was made to treat him with clozapine. Which statement about this drug is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a alpha1-adrenoceptor antagonist
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Clozapine: A Multifaceted Antipsychotic Medication
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication used in the treatment of schizophrenia for patients who have not responded to other medications. Its mechanism of action is complex and involves antagonistic effects on dopamine D2, 5-HT2A, alpha1-adrenoceptor, and muscarinic receptors. Clozapine’s antipsychotic action is likely mediated through a combination of antagonistic effects at D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway and 5-HT2A receptors in the frontal cortex. D2 antagonism relieves positive symptoms while 5-HT2A antagonism alleviates negative symptoms. However, it is important to note that clozapine has a D1 antagonist action and is not a D1 agonist. Understanding the multifaceted mechanism of action of clozapine is crucial in its effective use in the treatment of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of fatigue, lethargy, flu-like myalgias, and syncopal episodes. She also reports feeling low in mood. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
Serum:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
Plasma cortisol:
0900 h 145 nmol/l
30 min after ACTH 210 nmol/l
60 min after ACTH 350 nmol/l
0900 h ACTH: 4 pg/ml (<5 pg/ml low)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypopituitarism
Explanation:Distinguishing between Hypopituitarism and Other Conditions: A Biochemical Analysis
Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by reduced ACTH production, leading to decreased adrenal activity and a deficiency in cortisol. This deficiency results in sodium loss and potassium retention, as seen in the patient’s biochemistry. However, the mineralocorticoid is mostly under the influence of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis and would not be greatly affected. An initial blood sample is taken to assess the baseline level of cortisol, followed by an injection to stimulate the body’s production of cortisol. A sluggish rise in cortisol is observed due to adrenal atrophy resulting from chronically low stimulation by endogenous ACTH.
Other conditions, such as Conn’s syndrome, tuberculosis, anorexia nervosa, and Cushing’s disease, can present with similar symptoms but have distinct biochemical profiles. Conn’s syndrome results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia due to high aldosterone levels. Tuberculosis can cause Addison’s disease, resulting in a similar biochemical picture but with high ACTH at baseline. Anorexia nervosa patients are typically hypokalaemic, and the short ACTH stimulation test would likely be normal. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia due to cortisol’s mineralocorticoid activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.
She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.
Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.
Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.
What is the next most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine
Explanation:Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for two weeks. The pain is more intense on the right side and is aggravated when she combs her hair. She also experiences discomfort in her jaw when eating. Her neurological and fundoscopy examinations reveal no abnormalities, and she is referred to the emergency department.
Upon admission, the patient is prescribed high-dose oral prednisolone and undergoes a temporal artery biopsy, which yields normal results. What is the next most appropriate course of action for her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue high-dose prednisolone and repeat biopsy
Explanation:Performing an emergency computed tomography (CT) of the brain is not necessary for this patient. Emergency CT head scans are typically reserved for cases of head injury with symptoms such as reduced GCS, repeated vomiting, skull base fracture signs, post-traumatic seizures, or focal neurological deficits. Elderly patients may require a CT scan if they have experienced a fall with head injury or confusion.
Stopping high-dose prednisolone and referring the patient to a neurology clinic is not recommended. With a high suspicion of GCA, it is crucial to continue corticosteroid treatment to prevent inflammation from spreading to the eye. Any vision changes caused by GCA are typically irreversible, making it an acute problem that cannot wait for a referral to a neurology clinic.
Switching the patient to a lower dose of oral prednisolone is not advised. There is no evidence to suggest that reducing the dose of prednisolone is beneficial for GCA if the biopsy is negative. It is important to remember that a negative biopsy result may be due to skip lesions and not because the diagnosis is less likely.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his GP with a painless lump in his right testicle that has been present for 4 months and has gradually increased in size. He has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus, coeliac disease, and infertility. Additionally, he is a heavy smoker with a 20 pack-year history and consumes 30 units of alcohol per week. The GP suspects testicular cancer and refers the patient via the two-week-wait pathway. What is the most significant risk factor for this condition based on the patient's history?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Men who are infertile have a threefold higher risk of developing testicular cancer. This is important to consider for males between the ages of 20 and 30 who may be at risk. Risk factors for testicular cancer include undescended testes, a family history of the disease, Klinefelter’s syndrome, mumps orchitis, and infertility. Therefore, infertility is the correct answer.
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that causes inflammation when gluten is consumed. It is a risk factor for osteoporosis, pancreatitis, lymphoma, and upper gastrointestinal cancer, but not testicular cancer.
Excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for various types of cancer, such as breast, upper, and lower gastrointestinal cancer, but not testicular cancer.
Smoking is a significant risk factor for several types of cancer, particularly lung cancer. It is the most preventable cause of cancer in the UK. However, it is not associated with testicular cancer.
Diabetes mellitus is also a risk factor for various types of cancer, such as liver, endometrial, and pancreatic cancer. However, it is not associated with testicular cancer.
Understanding Testicular Cancer
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.
The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of worsening confusion, vomiting, and lethargy. Upon examination, the lungs are clear and the heart sounds are fast and irregularly irregular. The patient has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, and digoxin. It is suspected that a new medication has been recently added. What is the most likely medication that has been started?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is prescribed as a third-line treatment for hypertension. However, it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity when taken with digoxin. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, confusion, weakness, palpitations, and can lead to serious complications such as hyperkalaemia, arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor, is a potential medication for stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation, but it does not cause digoxin toxicity. Flecainide, an anti-arrhythmic agent, can cause bradycardia when taken with digoxin, but it is not likely to cause digoxin toxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not indicated for hypertension or atrial fibrillation and is not the most likely cause of digoxin toxicity in this patient who has no signs of fluid overload.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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Which eye sign is correctly matched with its corresponding condition from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome and blue sclerae
Explanation:Ocular Signs and Systemic Diseases: A Brief Overview
Various systemic diseases can manifest ocular signs that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some examples:
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome and blue sclerae: This genetic disorder affects collagen production and can cause the sclerae to have a blue tint.
Down syndrome and Bitot’s spots: Children with Down syndrome may have small white or greyish/brown spots on the iris called Brushfield spots. Bitot’s spots, on the other hand, are a sign of vitamin A deficiency and are collections of keratin on the anterior conjunctiva.
Haemochromatosis and Kayser–Fleischer rings: Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive disease in which copper accumulates in tissues, can cause a brown ring around the periphery of the cornea called Kayser–Fleischer ring.
Hypocalcaemia and band keratopathy: Hypercalcaemia can cause band keratopathy, which is visualised as bands across the centre of the cornea.
Tuberous sclerosis and Lisch nodules: Retinal hamartomas are associated with tuberous sclerosis, while Lisch nodules, pigmented nodules affecting the iris, are a sign of neurofibromatosis type 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of low back pain and stiffness that lasts for 20 minutes in the morning. He reports that his pain improves with exercise and taking ibuprofen. He denies any gastrointestinal, genitourinary, or skin symptoms. During the examination, he exhibits limited lumbar flexion as determined by Schober's test. An x-ray of his lumbar spine and sacroiliac joints has been ordered. What radiographic finding is likely to be observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndesmophytes
Explanation:Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female banker was brought into the Emergency Department by her family. They report a 3-day history of depression. She is now complaining of agitation, headache, confusion, fever, sweating and diarrhoea. The family claim she has been down lately and refused to go work after a big fight with her boyfriend. She is taking fluoxetine. The family found empty bottles of fluoxetine and sertraline on the floor of her flat. On examination, she is agitated and sweating; her blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 14 and temperature 39 °C.
What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:Common Medication-Related Syndromes and Their Symptoms
Serotonin Syndrome: This syndrome occurs when a patient takes multiple doses, overdoses, or a combination of certain medications such as SSRIs, SNRIs, or serotonin agonists. Symptoms can vary widely, but clinical suspicion is crucial. Known medicated depression with evidence of overdose should raise suspicion.
Malignant Hyperthermia: This is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder that occurs during anesthesia administration. It affects the ryanodine receptor gene in the sarcoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium in the skeletal muscle. Treatment involves dantrolene and supportive care.
Acute Dystonia: This presents with spasm in various muscle groups and can occur in the first few hours of administration of antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol.
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: This can occur as a result of taking high-potency antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication, followed by symptomatic management such as cooling the patient and administration of dantrolene or bromocriptine.
Akathisia: This is motor restlessness and can be a side effect of antipsychotic medication. However, it does not explain the range of symptoms seen in serotonin syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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What characteristic would be indicative of a ventricular septal defect in an acyanotic, healthy infant who has just had their one-month check-up and a murmur was detected for the first time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge
Explanation:Ventricular Septal Defects
Ventricular septal defects (VSD) are a common congenital heart condition that can be classified by location and size. The size of the VSD determines the clinical features and haemodynamic consequences. Small VSDs generate a loud, harsh, pansystolic murmur that is heard best at the left sternal edge and often associated with a thrill. They have minimal haemodynamic consequence so children are asymptomatic. Large VSDs cause greater haemodynamic effects, such that there is little flow through the VSD causing a quiet murmur or none at all. These children present with cardiac failure at around 1 month and, if untreated, over 10-20 years they may progress to Eisenmenger syndrome with reversal of the shunt.
Central cyanosis in infancy would indicate that an alternative diagnosis is more likely. In addition, children with large VSDs suffer an increased frequency of chest infections. There is pulmonary hypertension with increased vascularity seen on chest x Ray and evidence on ECG e.g. upright T-waves in V1. Initially, they are treated with diuretics and an ACE inhibitor, with surgical closure performed at 3-6 months. On the other hand, small VSDs usually close spontaneously, so children are monitored with ECG and echocardiography. the classification and clinical features of VSDs is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this congenital heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling in both legs extending from the groin area and dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Causes of Bilateral Lower Limb Edema: Differential Diagnosis
Bilateral lower limb edema can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with inferior vena cava obstruction, which is caused by extrinsic compression from a renal mass. This obstruction prevents venous drainage of the lower limbs and leads to bilateral edema and distended superficial abdominal veins. Other causes of bilateral lower limb edema include hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia, deep venous thrombosis, and heart failure. However, each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Hyponatremia and hypoalbuminemia cause generalized edema, while deep venous thrombosis presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected limb. Heart failure also causes bilateral dependent edema but does not lead to venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of intense lower back pain that extends down one of his legs. Despite having a manual job, he denies any history of injury. During the examination, it is noted that he has diminished perianal sensation and anal tone.
What would be considered a late sign in this patient's diagnosis, indicating possible irreversible damage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome typically manifests as lower back pain, sciatica, and decreased sensation in the perianal area. As the condition progresses, urinary incontinence may develop, which is a concerning late sign associated with irreversible damage. While a positive sciatic stretch test indicates nerve irritation or compression, it does not necessarily indicate spinal cord compression. Reduced perianal sensation is also a red flag, but it typically appears earlier than urinary incontinence. Although tingling in one leg may be caused by sciatic nerve irritation, it is not a specific sign of cauda equina syndrome, particularly if it is unilateral. While assessing anal tone is important, studies have shown that it has low sensitivity and specificity for detecting cauda equina syndrome.
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits the gynaecology department with complaints of painful, heavy periods and difficulty getting pregnant. She is worried as she and her partner plan to start a family soon. Upon examination, an ultrasound scan shows a submucosal uterine fibroid measuring 4.5 cm. What is the most suitable treatment option for her fibroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myomectomy
Explanation:If a woman is experiencing fertility issues due to large fibroids, the most effective treatment is myomectomy. In the case of a woman with a large submucosal fibroid that is distorting the shape of her uterus, options such as levonorgestrel-releasing IUS and tranexamic acid may provide symptomatic relief but will not address the underlying fertility issue. Medical treatment may also be ineffective due to the size of the fibroid. Hysterectomy and hysteroscopic endometrial ablation are not appropriate for women who wish to conceive in the future.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine
Explanation:Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression
Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.
For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.
In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.
Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.
Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.
Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.
Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.
Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female complains of intermittent pain from her lower back to her groin and has visible blood in her urine. She is experiencing discomfort and cannot find a comfortable position. Upon examination, there are no indications of peritonitis. Which diagnostic test is most likely to be effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT KUB
Explanation:Non-enhanced computed tomography scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general practitioner (GP)’s 3-week postnatal test. She had an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation and is currently breastfeeding.
Which of the following should be deferred until six weeks after delivery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Performing a smear test if this was delayed because of pregnancy
Explanation:Postnatal Check: What to Expect from Your GP
After giving birth, it is important to have a postnatal check with your GP to ensure that you are recovering well and to address any concerns you may have. Here are some of the things you can expect during your 6-week postnatal check:
Performing a Smear Test if Delayed Because of Pregnancy
If you were due for a routine smear test during pregnancy, it will be deferred until at least three months post-delivery. This is to avoid misinterpreting cell changes that occur during pregnancy and to identify any precancerous changes in the cells of the cervix.Assessment of Mood
Your GP will assess your mood and any psychological disturbance you may be experiencing. This is an opportunity to screen for postnatal depression and identify any need for additional support.Assessing Surgical Wound Healing and/or the Perineum if Required
Depending on the mode of delivery, your GP will assess the healing of any surgical wounds or perineal tears. They will also check for signs of infection or abnormal healing.Blood Pressure Reading
Your GP will perform a blood pressure reading, especially if you had hypertension during pregnancy. Urinalysis may also be performed if you had pre-eclampsia or signs of a urinary tract infection.Discussion of Contraceptive Options
Your GP will discuss family planning and the need for additional contraception, as required. This is important to prevent unintended pregnancies, especially if you are not exclusively breastfeeding.Overall, the 6-week postnatal check is an important part of your recovery process and ensures that you receive the necessary care and support during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment, she had a blood pressure reading of 152/101 mmHg. She mentions experiencing some swelling in her hands and feet but denies any other symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no protein. She has a history of asthma, which she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed, and depression, for which she discontinued her medication upon becoming pregnant. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral nifedipine
Explanation:Gestational hypertension is a condition where a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without significant protein in the urine. This woman has moderate gestational hypertension, with her systolic blood pressure ranging between 150-159 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 100-109 mmHg.
Typically, moderate gestational hypertension does not require hospitalization and can be treated with oral labetalol. However, as this woman has a history of asthma, labetalol is not recommended. Instead, NICE guidelines suggest nifedipine or methyldopa as alternatives. Methyldopa is not recommended for patients with depression, so the best option for this woman is oral nifedipine, which is a calcium channel blocker.
In cases of eclampsia, IV magnesium sulphate is necessary. It’s important to note that lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is not safe for use during pregnancy.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the medical admissions unit with complaints of breathlessness. Her GP had noted reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion at the left lung base. An urgent chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pleural effusion. To identify the cause of the effusion, an aspirate of the pleural fluid is taken, and the results show a pleural effusion fluid protein/serum protein ratio of 0.73. What is the probable reason for the pleural effusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:To determine the cause of a pleural effusion, the effusion fluid protein/serum protein ratio can be used. An effusion is considered exudative if the ratio is >0.5, indicating that there is more protein in the effusion than in the serum. In this patient’s case, the ratio is 0.73, indicating an exudative effusion. Only one of the listed options can cause an exudative effusion.
Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.
Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterior anterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.
Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.
In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.
For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports gradual worsening of his vision over many years and struggles with night-time driving due to glare. He is put on the waiting list for surgical repair.
What structure in the eye is affected by cataract formation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry after presenting with worsening respiratory symptoms suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Regarding spirometry, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 is a good marker of disease severity in COPD
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. However, there are several misconceptions about PFTs that can lead to confusion and misinterpretation of results. Here are some common misconceptions about PFTs:
FEV1 is the only marker of disease severity in COPD: While FEV1 is a good marker of COPD disease severity, it should not be the only factor considered. Other factors such as symptoms, exacerbation history, and quality of life should also be taken into account.
Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of COPD: Peak flow is not a reliable tool for diagnosing COPD. It is primarily used in monitoring asthma and can be affected by factors such as age, gender, and height.
Residual volume can be measured by spirometer: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer alone. It requires additional tests such as gas dilution or body plethysmography.
Vital capacity increases with age: Vital capacity actually decreases with age due to changes in lung elasticity and muscle strength.
Peak flow measures the calibre of small airways: Peak flow is a measure of the large and medium airways, not the small airways.
By understanding these common misconceptions, healthcare professionals can better interpret PFT results and provide more accurate diagnoses and treatment plans for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 171
Incorrect
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You are an FY1 doctor working in colorectal surgery. You are looking after a patient following an lower anterior resection of the patients rectum with a defunctioning loop ileostomy to remove a large adenocarcinoma in the proximal third of the rectum. The patient is now 65 years old and is nearly ready for discharge. Your consultant says they will review the patient in three weeks following discharge. They would like you to organise an investigation in two weeks time to ensure that the anastomosis performed to join the colon to the remaining portion of rectum has healed and is not leaking, prior to reversing the ileostomy. Please choose the most appropriate investigation from the options below.
MRI
11%
Transrectal ultrasound scan
6%
Gastrografin enema
30%
CT colon
25%
Barium enema
28%
A gastrografin enema involves passing a water soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum, then taking radiographs to assess the rectum. If there are any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid should show up as free fluid in the abdomen. As this is a possibility gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less toxic if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrografin enema
Explanation:To evaluate the rectum, a gastrografin enema is performed by administering a water-soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum and taking X-rays. In case of any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid will appear as free fluid in the abdomen. Gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less harmful if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 93-year-old man was admitted to your medical ward in Scotland a week ago, having developed pneumonia. He has a history of dementia, has had two previous small strokes and lives in a residential home. His dementia has been worsening for 5 years. He has difficulty remembering who the nursing home staff are. The staff report that his appetite is poor and that he has gradually lost weight over the last few months.
He is treated with antibiotics with good effect. A week later, a swallowing assessment is performed by the speech and language therapist, which suggests a high risk of aspiration. As a result of this assessment, the care team wish to stop him taking food and drink by mouth and start intravenous (IV) fluids.
How should you proceed next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Talk to the patient, explaining what you want to do and why, and listen to his answers
Explanation:Involving Patients in Decision Making: The Importance of Communication
Explanation: When it comes to making decisions about a patient’s care, it is crucial to involve the patient in the process. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 emphasizes that it cannot be assumed that any patient is incapable of making a decision about their care. Therefore, it is important to talk to the patient, explain what you want to do and why, and listen to their answers.
It is also important to note that relatives are not allowed to agree or refuse management for the patient. While they can provide valuable input, the patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration.
In the scenario of starting an IV, it is essential to speak to the patient first before proceeding. The patient’s consent should be obtained before any medical intervention is carried out.
If there are concerns about the patient’s capacity to make decisions, it is important to assess their understanding of the information provided. This can be done by giving them the information and checking whether they understand what has been said. Written information can also be provided to supplement the conversation.
In summary, effective communication with the patient is crucial in involving them in decision making about their care. The patient’s wishes and opinions should be the primary consideration, and any concerns about capacity should be assessed through communication and information sharing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his mother who reports that he has put a small bead into his ear. Upon examination, you confirm the presence of a plastic bead lodged deep in the external canal of his left ear.
What is the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient for review in ENT clinic
Explanation:Ear foreign bodies are common and can be removed by skilled ENT staff using appropriate equipment. If unsuccessful, a general anaesthetic may be required. In cases of infection or trauma, referral as an emergency is necessary. Antibiotics are only needed if there is evidence of infection. Foreign bodies should not be left in the ear to prevent infection and ensure no associated injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 174
Incorrect
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All can cause a mydriatic pupil, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil
Explanation:The Argyll-Robertson pupil is a well-known pupillary syndrome that can be observed in cases of neurosyphilis. This condition is characterized by pupils that are able to accommodate, but do not react to light. A helpful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA). Other features of the Argyll-Robertson pupil include small and irregular pupils. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis.
Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.
She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experienced an eclamptic seizure at 11 am today. Magnesium was administered, and the baby was delivered an hour later at midday. However, she had another eclamptic seizure at 2 pm. Both the mother and baby have been stable since then. What is the appropriate time to discontinue the magnesium infusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hours after last seizure
Explanation:The administration of magnesium should be initiated in women who are at high risk of severe pre-eclampsia or those who have eclampsia. It is important to continue the treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure, whichever occurs later. Therefore, the correct answer is 24 hours after the last seizure.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one week after returning from a trip to Puerto Rico. He reports that his fever began five days ago and was followed by the appearance of a rash. Additionally, he has noticed bleeding gums while brushing his teeth and has experienced two nosebleeds since returning from his vacation. During the examination, you observe multiple mosquito bites on his legs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dengue fever
Explanation:Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical countries, with an estimated 100 million people being infected annually. The symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and mild bleeding. However, it cannot be spread from person to person.
The high-risk areas for dengue fever include the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central and South America. Diagnosis is made through a blood test to identify the virus, and treatment is supportive with symptom control. Unfortunately, there are currently no vaccines available to prevent dengue fever.
The best way to prevent infection is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be done by wearing protective clothing, using mosquito repellent, and staying in air-conditioned or screened areas. the symptoms and risk factors of dengue fever can help individuals take necessary precautions to protect themselves from this potentially serious illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of myalgia and brown-coloured urine. She has been diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis for the fourth time, and the cause is still unknown.
What investigation should be considered at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:Investigating Recurrent Rhabdomyolysis: Genetic Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of muscle fibers into the bloodstream. This can cause kidney damage and other complications. In some cases, rhabdomyolysis may be caused by genetic polymorphisms or mutations that affect processes such as ATP production and calcium movement. Patients who have had recurrent episodes of unexplained rhabdomyolysis, especially those without obvious traumatic, drug-related, or toxic cause, should be investigated for genetic causes. Muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases.
Other diagnostic tests may also be helpful in certain situations. For example, the Gal-1 PUT test can be used to diagnose galactosaemia, a rare genetic disorder that can cause rhabdomyolysis in infants. Renin and aldosterone levels may be useful if primary hyperaldosteronism causing hypokalaemia is suspected as the cause of rhabdomyolysis, but this is rare in children. GFR testing is only necessary if there is renal impairment, and haemodialysis may be necessary in cases of severe renal failure.
In summary, recurrent rhabdomyolysis should be investigated for genetic causes, and muscle biopsy is a useful diagnostic test in these cases. Other diagnostic tests may be helpful in certain situations, but their use should be guided by the patient’s clinical presentation and history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
His blood test results are shown below.
Investigation Results Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps
Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.
Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.
In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia
Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIT is a prothrombotic condition
Explanation:Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral aspect of her midfoot after slipping off a kerb while walking. She is having difficulty walking and a radiograph reveals a fracture of the 5th metatarsal. What is the most probable mechanism of action that caused this fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inversion of the foot and ankle
Explanation:Fractures of the 5th metatarsal are commonly caused by the foot and ankle being forcefully inverted. These types of fractures are often seen in athletes, including dancers, football players, and rugby players, but can also occur from minor incidents such as stepping off a curb. Avulsion fractures are a specific type of 5th metatarsal fracture that result from the peroneus brevis muscle pulling on the proximal part of the bone during foot inversion. It is important to note that 5th metatarsal fractures are not associated with any other movements of the ankle or hip.
Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.
Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.
Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to your clinic with worries about delayed menarche. Upon taking her medical history, you find no developmental issues. She is currently at the 65th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. During the physical examination, you observe a short webbed neck and broad chest. After conducting a karyotype analysis, you discover an abnormality. What is the most prevalent heart condition linked to this clinical presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:The most frequently observed cardiac defect in individuals with Turner’s syndrome (45 XO) is a bicuspid aortic valve, which is more prevalent than coarctation of the aorta. Additionally, aortic root dilation and coarctation of the aorta are also associated with this condition.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion
Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:
Trophoblastic Disease
This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.Ectopic Pregnancy
This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.Threatened Miscarriage
This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.Confirmed Miscarriage
After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.Septic Abortion
This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 185
Incorrect
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What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heat intolerance
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders
Thyroid disorders are characterized by the dysfunction of the thyroid gland, which can lead to a variety of symptoms. Hypothyroidism, for example, is marked by weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin. On the other hand, hyperthyroidism is the excess secretion of thyroid hormones, which can stimulate basal metabolic rate and heighten catecholamine sensitivity. The three most common causes of primary hyperthyroidism are Graves’ disease, toxic adenoma, and toxic multinodular goitre. Other causes include de Quervain’s (post-viral) thyroiditis and drugs such as amiodarone.
One of the key symptoms of thyroid disorders is polydipsia, which refers to excessive thirst. Excess levothyroxine ingestion can also cause a biochemical picture similar to primary thyroid disease, with a suppression of thyroid-stimulating hormone and an elevated free thyroxine (T4) in plasma. It is important to understand the different types of thyroid disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By doing so, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with heavy vaginal bleeding. She reports passing large clots and experiencing cramping for the past 2 hours.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Pelvic examination reveals blood clots in the vaginal canal. A speculum exam shows active vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and a uterus consistent in size with a 9-week gestation. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals small amounts of fluid in the endometrium with an intrauterine sac measuring 22mm in crown-rump length, but no fetal cardiac activity is detected.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilation and curettage
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of hemorrhage, expectant management is not appropriate for a miscarriage. A patient with first-trimester vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and an intrauterine sac without fetal cardiac activity is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage. Miscarriages can be managed through expectant, pharmacological, or surgical means. Expectant management involves bed rest, avoiding strenuous physical activity, and weekly follow-up pelvic ultrasounds. This approach is typically recommended for patients with a threatened miscarriage that presents as vaginal bleeding. The threatened miscarriage may resolve on its own or progress to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete miscarriage. However, in this case, the open cervical os and absent fetal cardiac activity indicate that the miscarriage is inevitable, and the fetus is no longer viable. Medical management involves using drugs like misoprostol or methotrexate to medically evacuate retained products of conception in inevitable or incomplete miscarriages. Nevertheless, this patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which has caused hypotension and tachycardia, making her hemodynamically unstable. In all cases of early pregnancy loss with hemodynamic instability, urgent surgical evacuation of products of conception is necessary to minimize further blood loss. Dilation and curettage is a common and controlled method of uterine evacuation.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a tender nodule in the palm near the middle finger, which eventually becomes painless and leads to the formation of a superficial cord. This is followed by the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the finger. Fibrous nodules also develop on the penis. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition, which is more common in men?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns of Genetic Disorders
Genetic disorders can be inherited in different ways, depending on the specific condition. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions such as Dupuytren’s contracture, which affects the palms and fingers. This condition is more common in men and can be passed down from one generation to the next with varying degrees of penetrance.
X-linked recessive conditions, such as haemophilia A and B, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females. Duchenne muscular dystrophy and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are also X-linked recessive disorders.
Autosomal recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell disease, require two copies of the mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest. Hereditary haemochromatosis is another autosomal recessive disorder that affects iron metabolism.
X-linked dominant conditions, such as Alport syndrome and vitamin D-resistant rickets, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and can affect both males and females.
Polygenic conditions, such as essential hypertension and diabetes mellitus, are influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors. These conditions can be more complex to understand and manage than single-gene disorders.
Understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic disorders can help individuals and families make informed decisions about their health and genetic testing options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:
1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.
2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.
3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.
4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.
5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.
Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinoscopy
Explanation:Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses
When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.
Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.
In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician to discuss the possibility of tonsillectomy referral. She has experienced four instances of acute tonsillitis annually for the past five years. Some of these have necessitated antibiotics while others have been treated conservatively. As a graduate student, each of these occurrences has been debilitating, causing her to miss multiple days of classes. What is an indication for referral for tonsillectomy for tonsillitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episodes of tonsillitis are disabling and prevent normal functioning
Explanation:When to Consider Tonsillectomy for Recurrent Tonsillitis
Recurrent tonsillitis can be a debilitating condition that affects daily functioning. However, before considering tonsillectomy as a treatment option, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of recurrent tonsillitis through history and clinical examination. Additionally, it should be noted that tonsillectomy may only prevent recurrent acute attacks of tonsillitis and not sore throats due to other causes.
The national clinical guidelines suggest different criteria for referral for tonsillectomy based on the frequency and severity of tonsillitis episodes. One severe episode may not be enough to warrant surgery, while five or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in the preceding year may be an indication for referral. However, it is important to consider whether the frequency of episodes is increasing or decreasing, as the natural history of tonsillitis is for episodes to become less frequent over time.
For those with three or more well-documented, clinically significant, adequately treated tonsillitis in each of the preceding two or three years, referral for surgery may also be considered. However, it is important to keep in mind that tonsillectomy requires a short hospital admission, general anaesthetic, and can be painful. Recovery time can also result in a loss of time from education or work.
Overall, the decision to consider tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the frequency and severity of episodes, as well as the potential risks and benefits of surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia
Explanation:During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.
Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period
Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.
There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.
In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a head-on collision with his motorcycle. He is conscious and responsive, but he reports severe agony in his right leg. Upon examination, there is an exposed break in the right tibia with significant damage to the surrounding soft tissue and contamination. The medical team has administered intravenous antibiotics. What is the primary treatment for his fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent intravenous antibiotics and debridement in theatre
Explanation:Immediate administration of intravenous antibiotics and debridement is necessary for the management of open fractures, and definitive management should be delayed until soft tissues have recovered. A combined orthoplastic approach is recommended for achieving debridement, fixation, and soft tissue cover. If suitable, fixation and definitive soft tissue cover can be done immediately after debridement. However, if this is not possible, cover should be carried out within 72 hours to minimize the risk of infection. It is important to note that external fixation, fracture irrigation, and internal fixation should not be done before operative debridement, and free flap surgery should only be done after debridement.
Fracture Management: Understanding Types and Treatment
Fractures can occur due to trauma, stress, or pathological reasons. Diagnosis involves evaluating the site and type of injury, as well as associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are important in assessing changes in bone length, distal bone angulation, rotational effects, and foreign material. Fracture types include oblique, comminuted, segmental, transverse, and spiral. It is also important to distinguish open from closed injuries, with the Gustilo and Anderson classification system being the most common for open fractures. Management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, managing infection, and debriding open fractures within 6 hours of injury.
To ensure proper fracture management, it is crucial to understand the different types of fractures and their causes. Diagnosis involves not only evaluating the fracture itself, but also any associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are an important tool in assessing the extent of the injury. It is also important to distinguish between open and closed fractures, with open fractures requiring immediate attention and debridement. Proper management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, and managing infection. By understanding the different types of fractures and their treatment, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients with fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function
Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with black tarry stools. He has a history of chronic alcoholism for 30 years, consuming approximately a litre of vodka daily. During an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, oesophageal varices with bleeding and a small gastric ulcer were discovered. Due to active gastrointestinal bleeding, he was kept nil by mouth and given intravenous infusions of 5% glucose plus 0.45% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 60 ml/hour and 60 ml of 50% glucose water every 6 hours. Initially, he showed no signs of confusion, and his ammonia levels were normal. However, he later developed polymorphic VT, and refeeding syndrome is suspected. What electrolyte changes would you anticipate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low Phosphate, low potassium, low magnesium
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when nutrition is reintroduced to individuals who have been starved, severely malnourished, or metabolically stressed due to severe illness. This syndrome is characterized by metabolic disturbances that can be attributed to the resumption of glycaemia, which leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. As a result, insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis, which requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium, as well as cofactors such as thiamine. Furthermore, insulin stimulates the uptake of potassium into the cell, which can lead to low levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate.
To treat refeeding syndrome, it is essential to correct the electrolyte imbalances that occur. This can be achieved through careful monitoring of the patient’s electrolyte levels and providing appropriate supplementation as needed. By the underlying mechanisms of refeeding syndrome and taking appropriate measures to correct electrolyte imbalances, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 195
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types
Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.
While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS
Explanation:Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction
Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician, reporting difficulty watching television. He has a medical history of hypertension, but no other significant issues.
Tests:
Fasting plasma glucose: 6.5 mmol/l
Fundoscopy: Bilateral drusen affecting the fovea
Visual field testing: Bilateral central visual field loss
Fluorescein angiography: Bilateral retinal neovascularisation and exudates present
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Explanation:Understanding Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD)
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a common condition among individuals aged 75 years and above. It is characterized by the presence of yellow spots called drusen, which are waste products from the retinal pigment epithelium. Gradual loss of central vision, as well as the presence of foveal drusen on retinal examination, are typical signs of AMD. There are two types of AMD: wet (neovascular) and dry (non-neovascular). Dry AMD progresses slowly and has no known treatment, although stopping smoking can reduce its rate of progression. Wet AMD, on the other hand, arises when there is choroidal neovascularization and can be treated with laser treatment or anti-VEGF intravitreal injections to reduce new vessel formation.
Other eye conditions that may cause vision loss include diabetic maculopathy, proliferative retinopathy (PR), hypertensive retinopathy, diabetic retinopathy, retinitis pigmentosa, and chronic angle closure glaucoma. However, the patient’s symptoms and retinal examination findings suggest that AMD is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to understand the different eye conditions and their respective treatments to provide appropriate care and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with green fluid vomiting and a swollen belly. The baby was doing fine after birth and was being breastfed. The parents mention that the baby has urinated but has not yet passed meconium. During the examination, the baby seems weak, pale, and breathing rapidly.
What could be the probable reason for the baby's deteriorating condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a neonate with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium
Hirschsprung’s disease, NEC, biliary atresia, GBS sepsis, and haemolytic disease of the newborn are among the possible causes of abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in a neonate. Hirschsprung’s disease is the most likely diagnosis in a term neonate with bilious vomiting and absence of meconium, as it results from a developmental failure of the gut’s parasympathetic plexus. Surgical intervention via colostomy is necessary to relieve obstruction and prevent enterocolitis. NEC, which involves bowel necrosis, is more common in preterm neonates and may present with similar symptoms. Biliary atresia, a cause of neonatal jaundice, is less likely in this case, as the baby is pale and has not yet passed meconium. GBS sepsis is a potential diagnosis in any unwell neonate, but the history of not passing meconium within the first 48 hours and the presence of bilious vomit and distended abdomen suggest Hirschsprung’s disease as a more likely cause. Haemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by rhesus antibodies crossing the placenta, would not present with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Accurate diagnosis and prompt management are crucial in ensuring the best outcome for the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium oxalate stones
Explanation:Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes
Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.
Calcium Oxalate Stones
Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.Uric Acid Stones
Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.Cystine Stones
Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.Calcium Carbonate Stones
These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.Magnesium Carbonate Stones
Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A preterm baby is admitted to the hospital with signs of heart failure shortly after birth. The infant is experiencing poor feeding, excessive sweating, and fatigue, resulting in inadequate weight gain. The parents also report irritability and episodes of apnea. During the examination, a continuous machinery murmur and bounding peripheral pulses are detected. An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular enlargement and a shunt between two of the great vessels, indicating a possible patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What non-surgical intervention can be utilized to manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:To promote duct closure in patent ductus arteriosus, indomethacin or ibuprofen is used.
The incomplete closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth is known as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is causing the patient’s symptoms. During fetal development, this vessel allows blood to bypass the immature fetal lungs. However, if the duct remains open after birth, a large amount of blood can bypass the functioning lungs, resulting in reduced oxygen saturation and a murmur.
Prostaglandin E2 maintains the ductus arteriosus, so medications like indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, can be effective in closing the duct. However, in some cases, surgery may be necessary to close particularly large PDAs.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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